Exam 3 HA Flashcards

1
Q

which cranial nerve is by report, ask if any problems w/ smell

A

CN I- Olfactory

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2
Q

which cranial nerve is handheld vision chart, read fine print

A

CN II- Optic

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3
Q

which cranial nerve is pupil size, reactivity (PERRLA aka pupils equal, round, reactive to light, accommodation)

A

CN II- Optic

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4
Q

which cranial nerve can be done with VI (abducens) and CN III occulomotor ..where you follow a finger with your eyes

A

CN IV- Trochlear

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5
Q

which cranial nerve tests for sensation (soft/sharp touch bilaterally)

A

CN V- Trigeminal

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6
Q

which cranial nerve is the 6 cardinal stages of gaze, often tests with CN IV and III

A

CN VI- Abducens

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7
Q

which cranial nerve is facial expressions where you wrinkle forehead, raise eyebrows, squeeze eyes shut, puff cheeks, smile, frown

A

CN VII- Facial

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8
Q

which cranial nerve is the whisper test

A

CN VIII- Acoustic

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9
Q

which cranial nerve is by report, ask if problems w/ taste or gag reflux

A

CN IX- Glossopharyngeal

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10
Q

which cranial nerve is the symmetrical rise & fall of uvula, able to swallow, no hoarseness

A

CN X- Vagus

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11
Q

which cranial nerve is the shoulder shrug, face push

A

CN XI- Spinal accessory

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12
Q

which cranial nerve is when the tongue is midline, move side to side

A

CN XII- Hypoglossal

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13
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there

A

31 pairs

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14
Q

how does aging affect CNS?

A

-slower response delay
-slowing of cognitive ability
-diminished balance
-decreased reflexes
-decreased sedation overall
-decreased coordination
-delay synapse

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15
Q

what are signs of meningeal irritation? (spinal cord meninges / intracranial hemorrhage)

A

-Flexion of the knee when the leg is pulled up, pt will also have stiffness in neck (nuchal rigidity) w neck pain (kernig and brudzinski signs)
-photophobia
-headaches
-fever

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16
Q

What is Glasgow coma scale (GCS) used for? what are the 3 things it evaluates?

A

used for LOC on unconscious patient

  1. eye response (do their eyes respond to voice, pain, touch, nothing, etc)
  2. motor response (what movement do they make)
  3. verbal response (do they talk/nonverbal)
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17
Q

if a patient had a hip replacement, what should they not do when it comes to ROM? & why?

A

they should not test adduction or flexion greater than 90 degrees b/c it could cause dislocation

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18
Q

what is the area where two bones come together, what is it’s function

A

joint, provides mobility to the skeleton

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19
Q

these are synovial (diarthrotic) joints that are known as the hinge joints & only perform flexion and extension

A

knee and elbow

**extension - increases angle
**flexion- decreases angle between bone or brings bones together

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20
Q

these are synovial (diarthrotic) joints that are known as the ball and socket joints

A

hip & shoulder

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21
Q

these are synovial (diarthrotic) joints that are known as the pivot joints

***allows bone rotation about another bone

A

atlas & axis

**this is the 1st & 2nd cervical vertebrae directly under the skull… allows for turning of the head from side to side

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22
Q

these are synovial (diarthrotic) joints known as the condyloid joint

A

wrists

Condyloid joints perform flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction movements.

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23
Q

these are synovial (diarthrotic) joints known as saddle joint

A

thumb

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24
Q

these are synovial (diarthrotic) joints known as the gliding joints

A

intervertebral

**Gliding joints are numerous, mostly small, allow very little motion.
Ex: carpal joints of the wrist, the tarsal joints of the ankle, and the facet joints of the spine

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25
Q

circular motion that combines flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction

A

circumduction

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26
Q

movement of a part away from the center of the body

A

abduction

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27
Q

movement of a part toward the center of the body

A

adduction

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28
Q

decreases the angle between bones or bring bones together

A

flexion

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29
Q

increases the angle to a straight line or zero degrees

A

extension

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30
Q

type of flexion that is bending the ankle so that toes move toward the heel

A

dorsiflexion

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31
Q

type of flexion that moves the foot so that the toes move away from the heel

A

plantar flexion

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32
Q

Turing the sole of the foot inward

A

inversion

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33
Q

turning the sole of the foot outward

A

eversion

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34
Q

this area integrates understanding of spoken and written words, language is processed here in the temporal lobe/left hemisphere

A

wernicke area

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35
Q

this area regulates verbal expression and writing ability, the frontal lobe

A

broca area

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36
Q

broca vs wernicke

A

wernicke- integrates understanding of spoken and written words (language is processed).. temporal lobe/ left hemisphere

broca- regulates verbal expression and writing ability.. the frontal lobe

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37
Q

a pt w/ a stroke in the brain’s left hemisphere/temporal are more likely to have what?

A

damage to the wernicke area so will have language deficits- difficulty understanding verbal communication aka receptive aphasia

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38
Q

a pt that has damage to their Broca area (frontal lobe) causes what?

A

problems with speaking or finding words aka expressive aphasia

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39
Q

what is global aphasia

A

both expressive and receptive aphasia

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40
Q

CN I

A

-CN I Olfactory
-sense of smell
-sensory

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41
Q

CN II

A

-CN II Optic
-optic disc, vision acuity & peripheral vision
-sensory

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42
Q

CN III

A

-CN III Oculomotor
-eye movement
-motor

**performed with CN IV Trochlear, CN VI Abducens

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43
Q

CN IV

A

-CN IV Trochlear
-eye movement
-motor

**performed with CN III Oculomotor, CN VI Abducens

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44
Q

CN V

A

-CN V Trigeminal
-sharp/smooth sensation on face
-motor & sensory

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45
Q

CN VI

A

-CN VI Abducens
-eye movement
-motor

**performed with CN III Oculomotor, CN IV Trochlear, CN VI Abducens

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46
Q

CN VII

A

-CN VII Facial
-facial expressions
-sensory & motor

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47
Q

CN VIII

A

-CN VIII Acoustic
-hearing, whisper test
-sensory

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48
Q

CN IX

A

-CN IX Glossopharyngeal
-gag reflex, taste taste
-sensory & motor

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49
Q

CN X

A

-CN X Vagus
-rise/fall of uvula, able to swallow, no hoarseness
-sensory & motor

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50
Q

CN XI

A

-CN XI Spinal accessory
-shrug shoulders/push face
-motor

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51
Q

CN XII

A

-CN XII Hypoglossal
-move tongue side to side
-motor

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52
Q

what can cause herniation of the brain which can lead to change in basic vital functions such as breathing, reduced LOC, death

A

increases in CSF

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53
Q

if a pt had a stroke and you think they’re going through cerebellar herniation that affects the brain stem, what is the number 1 assessment?

A

priority assessment is RESPIRATORY! bc brain stem controls/is responsible for the respiratory center

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54
Q

a pt will not be able to cough or breathe on their own with this type of injury

A

C3 (cervical) injury

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55
Q

a pt will have arm movement and sensation, but no leg movement & will be in a wheelchair with this type of injury

A

T5 (thoracic) injury

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56
Q

a pt will have control of their legs and walk, but may have loss of bowel and bladder control with this type of injury

A

S4-5 (sacral) injury

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57
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) Score

A

scores range from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (normal)

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58
Q

the test evaluates cortical sensory function and is not usually done. ask the pt to close the eyes and identify a familiar object (coin, key) placed in their palm

A

stereognosis

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59
Q

this test evaluates cortical sensory function and is not usually done. use a blunt object to trace a number on the patient’s palm. Ask the pt to identify which number has been traced

A

graphesthesia

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60
Q

How to rate DTRs

A

0 - 4

0 no response
1+ diminished, low normal
2+ average, normal
3+ brisker than average
4+ very brisk, hyperactive with clonus

**muscle strength is 0-5

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61
Q

How to assess bicep DTR

A

-Partially flex elbow and place palm down. to assist w/ relaxation, the pt can rest their arm on yours.
-Place 1 finger or thumb on biceps tendon & strike the finger or thumb w/ the reflex hammer.
-Observe flexion at elbow and contraction of bicep muscle
**if pt has diminished or absent results, ask pt to clench teeth or squeeze one hand tight w/ the opposite hand to aid in detection (reinforcement)

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62
Q

how to hold reflex hammer

A

loosely w/ 2-3 fingers

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63
Q

What do you do as a distraction technique for patellar reflex DTR?

A

ask pt to lock their fingers in front of the chest and one hand against the other (reinforcement)

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64
Q

what is an abnormal plantar reflex?

A

where the great toe extends upward and the other toes fan out aka a Babinksi sign when you start at the heel and go upwards

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65
Q

what are the 3 sinuses and how to evaluate them?

A
  1. frontal (forehead)
  2. ethmoid (next to nose)
  3. maxillary (near cheeks)

evaluate by looking for tenderness and pain at this sites

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66
Q

what separates the middle and external ear?

A

the tympanic ear drum

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67
Q

what is presbyopia

A

normal part of aging, far sighted vision so can’t see anything near so they need reading glasses (due to aging, happens later in life)

**hyperopia is also farsightedness (long life condition)

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68
Q

What do people w/ allergies might have a hx of?

A

frequent upper respiratory infections

**allergy people tend to get sick more frequently than non-allergy people

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69
Q

what are physical signs of dehydration

A

-dry skin
-cracked/dry lips
-increased HR
-lower B/P

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70
Q

signs of overhydration

A

-edema / puffiness

71
Q

when doing an exam of upper respiratory on a person w/ a sore throat, what will you find?

A

hypertrophic tonsils (enlarged!)

72
Q

what are the vision changes that are common w/ aging

A

-decreased depth perception
-decreased night vision

73
Q

exposure to UV can cause this (foggy/cloudiness/dull), it obstructs light that is going through the eyes

74
Q

what test is when the tuning fork is placed behind the ear on the MASTOID PROCESS, evaluates AC & BC (AC should be twice as long as BC)

A

Rinne Test

75
Q

what test is when the tuning fork goes on the middle of the head.. evaluates unilateral hearing loss.. determines if someones has SNHL or conductive HL

A

Weber Test

76
Q

What can occur in a post op tonsillectomy pt? & how do we know this is happening?

A

-bleeding can occur
-we know this by seeing the pt swelling a lot, cleaning their throat, coughing/spitting/vomiting blood (hemoptysis)

77
Q

What is the term for a pt without smell? What could be a cause of this?

A

-anosmia
-Covid could be the cause as well as chronic inflammation/infection or a tumor on the CN I Olfactory

78
Q

How to assess the pupil

A

PERRLA
-Pupils are Equal, Round, Reactive to Light, Accommodating

79
Q

what do you do first for a pt w/ a head injury?

A

Stabilize the C Spine

80
Q

what is ataxia

A

irregular, uncoordinated gait

81
Q

what is the term for loss of bone density

A

Osteoporosis

82
Q

non-modifiable vs modifiable risk factors for osteoporosis

A

non-modifiable = old age, female gender, genetics/family hx

modifiable = diet (low calcium/vit D), no weight bearing activities, smoking, drinking alcohol 2+ more drinks a day, body frame

83
Q

this is a bone density test for diagnosing osteoporosis

84
Q

how else can we document muscle strength besides 1-5 scale

A

Complete ROM against gravity and full resistance

85
Q

This is what connects the muscle to the bone

86
Q

What is the name of the fall risk scale?

A

Morse Palmer Scale

87
Q

s shaped curvature of the spine

88
Q

forward rounding of the back, which leads to a hunchback or slouching posture

A

Kyphosis , most common in the thoracic spine

89
Q

This indicates turbulent blood flow, it’s not normal b/c it’s a blockage AKA stenosis

A

bruit/thrills

90
Q

what is the term for lid lag

91
Q

What does it mean if a pt has 20/20 vision vs 20/40 vision?

A

20/20 vision can see the smallest print at 20 ft.
20/40 vision a person sees at 40ft what a normal person can see at 40ft

92
Q

How many spinal nerves are there? What are the 5 regions?

A

31 spinal nerve pairs

  1. Cervical (C1-8)
  2. Thoracic (T1-12)
  3. Lumbar (L1-5)
  4. Sacral (S1-5)
  5. Coccygel (Co1)
93
Q

what eye issues are more common in older adults?

A

-Cataracts
-Glaucoma
-Macular degeneration

94
Q

this condition causes blurred distance and near vision

A

astigmatism

95
Q

this condition is where your eyes make rapid, repetitive, uncontrolled movements

96
Q

cloudiness in the lens may indicate what condition?

97
Q

this is used to test distance vision, most common eye exam

A

Snellen Chart

98
Q

this is used to test near vision

A

Jaeger Chart

99
Q

this is used to test color blindness

A

Ishihara cards

100
Q

this is used to test peripheral vision

A

confrontation

101
Q

what does it mean if a 60 year old pt has difficulty reading fine print

A

he has lost the ability to accommodate (contract the pupil for near vision).. this starts at 40 y/o & pts start using reading glasses

102
Q

the term for unequal pupils

A

anisocoria (defect in oculomotor nerve)

103
Q

this term is referred to as lazy eye

104
Q

this term is referred to as eye strain

A

asthenopia

105
Q

how to assess the eyes

106
Q

this is nearsightedness aka can only see close up

107
Q

this term is when eyes are cross eyed

A

Strabismus

108
Q

this is the waxy substance in the ear

109
Q

2 ways sound is perceived

A
  1. Air conduction (normal pathway, through inner ear)
  2. Bone conduction (bypassing external ear & delivering sound directly to inner ear through the skull)
110
Q

connective hearing loss vs sensorineural hearing loss

A

conductive- blockage in ear like cerumen, hearing loss can be reversed .. middle/external ear

sensorineural- due to loud noises, hearing loss can’t be reversed, inner ear

111
Q

common causes of hearing loss in adults

A

-advanced age
-meniere disease
-hearing loss
-ototoxic meds (high dose aspirin, chemotherapy, strong diuretics)
-autoimmune inner ear disease
-noise exposure

112
Q

these may indicate barotrauma from pressure changes or a basilar skull fracture

A

hemotympanum, otorrhea, or TM rupture

113
Q

this is the sensation of the room spinning, indicates dysfunction of the bony labyrinth in the inner ear

114
Q

this is thought to be an inability to filter internal noise from the external input of sound.. ringing in the ear

115
Q

swimmer’s ear

A

otitis externa, otalgia indicates ear dysfunction

116
Q

this test evaluates high pitched hearing loss

A

whisper test

117
Q

3 parts to the ear

A

external ear, middle ear, inner ear

118
Q

this is the barrier between the external auditory canal & middle ear

A

Tympanic Membrane

119
Q

what part of the ear contains the malleus, incus, and stapes

A

middle ear which conducts sound waves to the inner ear

120
Q

what part of the ear translates sound to the nerves and brainstem

121
Q

these provide the body w/ proprioception and equilibrium

A

semicircular canals and vestibule

122
Q

what are the 2 functions of the ear?

A

hearing & equilibrium

123
Q

risk factors for hearing loss

A

family hx, frequent ear infections, use of certain medications, lack of immunizations, exposure to loud noises, exposure to smoke, allergies, airplane travel, diving, inappropriate celling of ears, age over 50

124
Q

double vision

125
Q

dry mouth

A

xerostomia

126
Q

loss of sense of smell

127
Q

difficulty swallowing, may occur w/ neurovascular disease or injury such as stroke

128
Q

parts of the upper airway vs parts of the upper GI tract

A

upper airway: nose, sinuses, throat

upper GI tract: mouth & throat

129
Q

most common site of anterior nosebleeds aka epistaxis

A

Kiesselbach plexus

130
Q

most common site of oral cancer

A

pharyngeal fossa

131
Q

this part of the mouth is a good location for absorption of sublingual meds

A

the highly vascular floor of the mouth

132
Q

this is known as “sway back”, the spine is curved inward

133
Q

how to test cerebellar function

A

-finger to nose
-heel to shin
-tandem walk
-pronator drift

134
Q

what is the function of cerebellar function

A

-coordination of movement
also posture & balance, motor learning, muscle tone

135
Q

age related neurological changes

A

-slower response
-depth perception impaired
-lack of movement
-slow cognitive ability
-less balance
-decreased sensation
-decreased coordination

136
Q

warning s/s of spinal injury

A

-motor or sensory weakness
-bowel or bladder dysfunction
-pain of spine
-breathing issues

137
Q

care after spine trauma

A

-immobilization
-bed rest
-blood thinners to prevent clots
-antibiotics to prevent UTIs

138
Q

this is irregular gait…
what can cause this?

A

-ataxia is irregular gait
-can be caused by vestibular abnormality aka inflamed labyrinth which causes vertigo

139
Q

this is caused primarily by brain edema, tumors, trauma

symptoms include mobility issues, severe case of this is stiff neck before going unconscious

A

cerebellar herniation

140
Q

treatment of cerebellar herniation

A

oxygen therapy, antibiotics, steroids

141
Q

risk factors for CVA (cerebrovascular accident) or Stroke

A

high bp
diabetes
hyperlipidemia
heart disease
smoking

142
Q

age related musculoskeletal changes

A

-bones: less mass, less density
-joints: stiffer, less flexible
-muscles: loss of size & strength

143
Q

infection that causes inflammation of the membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord

A

meningitis (headache, fever, back pain, stiff neck)

treatments- oxygen therapy, antibiotics, steroids

144
Q

Morse fall risk scores

A

no risk 0-24
low risk 25-50
high risk greater than 51

145
Q

stiff hunch back gait (ataxia)

A

propulsive

146
Q

stiff, drags feet gait (ataxia)

147
Q

knees and thighs cross or hit each other gait (ataxia)

A

scissoring

148
Q

toes point down, foot scrapes gait (ataxia)

149
Q

duck like gait (ataxia)

150
Q

pain prevents normal movement, walk w/ a limp gait (ataxia)

151
Q

feet slide gait (ataxia)

152
Q

type of fracture that is small or stress fx

A

hairline fx

153
Q

type of fracture that does not break skin

154
Q

type of fracture that bone breaks the skin

A

Open / compound fx

155
Q

type of fracture when a tendon or ligament pulls a small piece of bone away

A

avulsion fx

156
Q

type of fx that breaks in 2 places leaving a piece floating

A

segmental fx

157
Q

type of fracture that is a break in 3 or more pieces

A

comminuted fx

158
Q

type of fracture where bone is crushed

A

compression fx

159
Q

type of fracture that is a diagonal break

A

oblique fx

160
Q

type of fracture that breaks spiral around the bone, twisting

161
Q

type of fx that is straight line break

A

transverse fx

162
Q

type of fx that is incomplete break when one side breaks while the other bends

A

greenstick fx

163
Q

hearing is based on what 2 things

A

frequency and intensity

164
Q

intentional vs resting tremors

A

intentional - worse w/ movement, better at resting

resting tremor - Parkinson’s , tremors get better w/ movement.. worse w/ rest

165
Q

significant changes w/ someone who has a change in neurological status?

A

-changes of LOC: confusion, lethargy, coma, drowsiness

-AMS: disorientation, delirium, cognitive impairment, aphasia

-changes in motor function: weakness/paralysis, ataxia (irregular gait), loss of balance

-sensory changes: numbness, tingly, visual changes, hearing loss, altered smell/taste

-behavioral changes: irritation, agitation aggression

-signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP): headache, n/v, pupil changes, Cushing’s triad aka hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respiration.. LATE sign

-seizure activity

-vital sign change is LATE sign

166
Q

what causes ptosis?

A

-stroke, MS

167
Q

lack of normal muscle tone/ strength

168
Q

diminished tone (elders)

A

hypotonicity

169
Q

hypertonic, stiff

A

spasticity

170
Q

sudden, violent involuntary contraction

171
Q

involuntary twitching

A

fasciculation

172
Q

involuntary/ voluntary contraction

173
Q

high pressure in eye, causes tunnel vision, damage to optic nerve