Exam 3 genetics Flashcards

1
Q

What is Transduction in phage genetics?

A

During replication, the phage accidentally takes in a piece of the bacterial genome and puts it in another cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Lytic cycle in phage replication?

A

When a phage injects its DNA into a host cell (which circularizes to protect it from degradation) and uses host cell machinery to replicate the phage chromosome. The host cell’s DNA breaks down.
-Transcription and translation produces new phage components, which are assembled into phage progeny.
-Progeny phage are released by lysis from host bacterial cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the Lysogenic cycle in phage replication?

A

When a phage has injected its DNA into a host cell.
-The phage chromosome circularizes and does crossing over to integrate into the host chromosome.
-Multiple cell divisions helps to copy the prophage into multiple cells
-The prophage excises itself from the host chromosome, and the lytic cycle usually follows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a prophage?

A

A bacteriophage genome integrated into the host’s chromosome or exists as an exchromosomal plasmid inside the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When would you find clear media that you’ve cultured bacteria in?

A

If there were phages present, the cells would be lysed and the media would be clear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you calculate titer? (phage concentration aka plaque forming units)

A

(Number of plaques)*(Dilution)/(volume=usually 0.1mL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is MOI?

A

Multiplicity of Infection
-The average number of phage particles that infect a single bacterial cell
-Can be low or high depending on intent of experiment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When would you use a low MOI?

A

(<1 phage per cell)
-Assess genotype and phenotype of an individual phage
-Score viral genotypes
-Assess distance between genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When would you use a high MOI

A

(>2 phage per cell)
-Used for phage crossing and recombination
-Complementation testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How do you calculate distance between two genes?

A

-Add frequencies of recombinant genotypes together, divide by total

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is Cotransduction?

A

Transferring 2 or more genes together using a phage from one bacterium to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Cotransduction frequency?

A

-Depends on distance btwn two genes (happens more often when genes are closer together)
-Also depends on chance of genes being separated by a crossover event in the recipient cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is genetic fine structure?

A

The idea that there exist components that make up genes (the many base pairs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How do you test for complementation between two mutations in different viruses?

A

-Do one infection at high MOI (want 2 viruses in the same cell)
-phenotype Mutant = mutations on same gene
-phenotype WT= mutations on different genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How do you test for recombination between two viruses?

A

-Infect cells with high MOI (induces recombination btwn viruses)
-Do a second infection at low MOI (so we can phenotype and genotype the virus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Transformation in phage genetics?

A

DNA uptake from environment
-Crossover of environmentally acquired DNA with recipient chromosome leads to a transformant cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What did Esther Lederberg contribute to science?

A

Discovered F+ fertility factor, lambda phage, replica plating, and genetic mechanisms of specialized transduction
-Her work was overshadowed by her husband

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are other names for quantitative traits?

A

Polygenic traits or continuous traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are quantitative traits determined?

A

Environmental and genetic factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How to calculate Vp for F2 populations?

A

Vp= VG+VE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the VG of F1 progeny of two true breeding homozygous lines?

A

VG=0 (all genetically identical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the Vp of F1 progeny of two true breeding homozygous lines?

A

Vp=VE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How can you calculate VG?

A

(Vp of F2) - (Vp of F1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How to calculate heritability? (H^2)

A

((Vp of F2) - (Vp of F1))/(Vp of F2)

or

VG/Vp

-If close to 1, theres a lot of genetic variance! (less environmental)
-If 0, the parental phenotypes have no influence on the child’s phenotype (all environmental)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is heritability?

A

How much of the trait is determined genetically

-Midparent phenotype= average of mother and father phenotypes

-If Midparent phenotype and child phenotype are the same, there is no environmental influence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How do heritability and selection interact?

A

Selection does not alter offspring phenotypes if the trait is NOT HERITABLE

-If heritability is close to 1, the mean will move dramatically between generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is QTL Mapping?

A

Can be used to determine the genetic basis of continuous traits by comparing the observed and expected allele frequencies between classified phenotypes.
-Normally preformed with a backcross btw F1 and homozygous recessive parent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How do you calculate the distance between a marker and a QTL?

A

number of recombinants/total progeny

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

A

-Infinitely large population
-Non-overlapping generations
-Randomly mating populations

also
-No mutation, selection, or migration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What does “Infinitely large population” mean for HWE?

A

In a small population, you lose genetic variation (bc of genetic drift affecting allele frequencies)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What does “Non-overlapping generations” mean for HWE?

A

-No mixing between generations
-Complete turnover at each generation
-One generation dies before the next generation is born

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What does “randomly mating populations” for HWE?

A

-The genotype of an individual doesn’t influence the genotype of its chosen mate.
-Probability for a pair only depends on their frequency in the population
-

33
Q

What is the equation for how allele frequency determines genotype frequency in the next generation (under HWE)?

A

1=p^2+2pq+q^2

34
Q

In HWE, alleles at low frequency are mostly found in heterozygotes or homozygotes?

A

heterozygotes

35
Q

What are violations of HWE?

A

-Migration (introduces new allele frequencies and genotypic frequencies of both populations)
-Assortative mating (non-random)(certain genotype individuals attracted to certain other genotype individuals)
-Inbreeding (non-random) (increases likelihood of homozygotes for alleles that are rare in the population at large)
-Mutation (creates new alleles to alter allele frequency)

36
Q

What is the probability of mutation in humans per site, per generation?

37
Q

What is natural selection?

A

-Individuals with genotypes that make them better suited to their environments than their peers are more likely to transmit their gametes to the next generation

-Selection on existing genetic variation

38
Q

What are the two main sources of genetic variation?

A

mutations and recombination

39
Q

What is evolution?

A

descent with modification and change in allele frequencies over time

40
Q

What is genetic fitness?

A

Differential ability for individuals to survive and reproduce in a particular environment

41
Q

How do you calculate the selection coefficient?

A

1-(fitness)

42
Q

How do you calculate frequency after selection?

A

fitness*genotypic frequency

43
Q

How do you calculate the allele frequency in the next generation of offspring after a selection has happened?

A

((fitnessgenotypic freq)+(0.5previous allele frequency))/((fitness*genotypic freq)+(previous allele frequency))

44
Q

What is the fitness of a most favored genotype?

45
Q

What is the fitness of a least favored genotype?

46
Q

What is the founder effect?

A

-A type of population bottleneck and genetic drift where a small population is established from a larger population (via chance)
-Allele frequencies in this population will differ from original populations

47
Q

What is a population/genetic bottleneck?

A

When a relatively large population is reduced by a catastrophic event
–Allele frequencies in this population will differ from original populations

48
Q

Will small or large populations experience more dramatic changes in allele frequency due to genetic drift?

A

small populations

49
Q

What is directional selection?

A

When a specific phenotype is favored and natural selection acts to shift allele frequency in that direction

50
Q

What is balancing selection?

A

When multiple alleles are maintained in a population at high frequencies

51
Q

What is the study of molecular evolution?

A

Using comparisons of DNA variability within and between species to make inferences about evolutionary relationships and past evolutionary processes

52
Q

Why do proteins have differing evolutionary constraints in their sequences?

A

Higher evolutionary constraints (less mutations to a gene that show up in living things) indicate that a protein is vital to function and mutations are usually detrimental to it

53
Q

How does redundancy of genetic code create the possibility of silent mutations?

A

The third position of a codon is variable and usually will code for the same amino acid if a mutation happens to that 3rd nucleotide

54
Q

What is negative selection?

A

When the ratio of non-synonymous/synonymous mutations is HIGHER within a species

55
Q

What is positive selection?

A

When the ratio of non-synonymous/synonymous mutations is HIGHER BETWEEN species

56
Q

What is speciation?

A

Reproductive isolation which may result from morphological, behavioral, or geographic conditions that prevents interbreeding btwn populations

57
Q

What is allopatric speciation?

A

Geographical isolation causing speciation

58
Q

What is sympatric speciation?

A

Reproductive isolation causing speciation

59
Q

where on the deoxyribose molecule does each new nucleotide bind in a sugar-phosphate backbone?

A

the 3’ -OH

60
Q

How can you tell when genetic material of a virus is single or double stranded (given % nucleotide data?)

A

If A and U are not the same percentage, the genetic material of the virus is single stranded

61
Q

Is DNA right or left handed?

62
Q

Is DNA parallel or antiparallel?

A

antiparallel

63
Q

Where do sequence specific DNA binding proteins bind?

A

In the major groove of DNA

64
Q

Where do non-specific DNA binding proteins bind?

A

To the sugar phosphate backbone

65
Q

What type of supercoiling facilitates helix opening?

66
Q

What type of supercoiling hinders helix opening?

67
Q

What are the three essential features of genetic material?

A

-Sufficient info capacity
-Ability to replicate
-Ability to mutate

68
Q

What end of DNA are nucleotides added to?

69
Q

What direction is replication?

70
Q

What does DNA polymerase require?

A

-DNA template
-dNTPs
-3’ OH primer

71
Q

What are functions of DNA pol1

A

PRIMER REMOVAL AND GAP FILLING
-5’-3’ polymerization
-3’-5’ exonuclease proofreading
-5’-3’ exonuclease primer removal

72
Q

What are functions of DNA pol2

A

DNA REPAIR
-5’-3’ polymerization
-3’-5’ exonuclease proofreading

73
Q

What are functions of DNA pol3

A

DNA SYNTHESIS
-5’-3’ polymerization
-3’-5’ exonuclease proofreading

74
Q

WHat are the fucntion of telomeres?

A

-Repeated DNA sequences at teh end of eukaryotic chromosomes
-Telomere binding proteins TRF1 TRF2 WRN

75
Q

What is the structure and function of telomerase

A

RNA Component: serves as a template for telomere elongation
Protein component: catalyzes addition of nucleotides 5’-3’
-Makes DNA copy of RNA (reverse transcriptase)

76
Q

What is Telomerase?

A

An RNA dependant DNA POLYMERASE

77
Q

What are the steps to telomere elongation?

A
  1. Telomerase extends ss DNA template of lagging strand
  2. DNA pol synthesizes primers and okazaki fragments
    3.Primer is removed and ligation of DNA fragments
78
Q

What type of cells have higher telomerase activity?

A

cells with higher prolifertaion