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Special Topics in OT (OCTH 670) > Exam 3 (Final) > Flashcards

Exam 3 (Final) Flashcards

1
Q

List the structures involved in the top-down control of voluntary movement:

A
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2
Q

Upper motor neurons deliver signals to

A

brainstem and spinal interneurons and lower motor neurons (LMNs)

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3
Q

Lower motor neurons transmit signals to

A

skeletal muscles, eliciting contraction of skeletal muscle fibers

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4
Q

What movement is produced by the C5 myotome?

A

elbow flexion

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5
Q

What movement is produced by the C6 myotome?

A

wrist extension

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6
Q

What movement is produced by the C7 myotome?

A

elbow extension

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7
Q

What movement is produced by the C8 myotome?

A

flexion of the tip of the middle finger

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8
Q

What movement is produced by the T1 myotome?

A

finger abduction

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9
Q

Describe the adaptation of muscle structure to being in a shortened position for months.

A

the connective tissue within the muscle loses elasticity and thickens and the biceps loses sarcomeres

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10
Q

Describe the adaptation of muscle structure to being in a lengthened position for months.

A

the muscle will add new sarcomeres

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11
Q

What are the four tracts for relaying signals for postural and gross movements?

A
  • Reticulospinal
  • Medial vestibulospinal
  • Lateral vestibulospinal
  • Medial corticospinal
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12
Q

A tract that:
Begins: in the reticular formation
Decussates: spinal cord
Activate: automatic movement, walking, postural control, etc
Terminate: spinal cord

A

Reticulospinal

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13
Q

A tract that:
Begins: medial vestibular nucleus
Decussates: medulla
Activate: controls head movement and postural stability
Terminate: spinal cord

A

Medial vestibulospinal

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14
Q

A tract that:
Begins: Lateral vestibular nucleus
Decussates: does not
Activate: postural control and balance of extensor muscles
Terminate: ventral horn

A

Lateral vestibulospinal

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15
Q

A tract that:
Begins: primary motor cortex
Decussates: does not
Activate: voluntary control of gross movements
Terminate: ventral horn

A

Medial corticospinal

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16
Q

Signs of UMN lesions:

A
  • Paresis and paralysis
  • Impaired selective motor control
  • Absent or decreased muscle tone (flaccidity and hypotonia)
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17
Q

Common causes of UMN lesions:

A

stroke
spinal cord injury
spastic cerebral palsy
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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18
Q

Describe & recognize abnormal movement patterns, including reflexes present in UMN syndrome:

A

Babinski sign- big toe extends when the sole of the foot is stroked from the heel to the ball of the foot

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19
Q

Excessive reflex response to muscle stretch

A

hyperreflexia

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20
Q

Adaptive shortening and stiffening of muscle, caused by the muscle remaining in a shortened position for prolonged periods of time

A

muscle contracture

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21
Q

Muscle contraction that is excessive for the task

A

muscle overactivity

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22
Q

Amount of tension in resting muscle

A

muscle tone

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23
Q

Adaptive changes within muscle secondary to a UMN lesion and/or prolonged positioning

A

myoplasticity

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24
Q

Decreased or lost ability to generate the level of force required for a task

A

paresis/paralysis

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25
Q

Excessive resistance to stretch of a muscle

A

spasticity

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26
Q

Involuntary muscle contraction that contributes to spasticity

A

UMN dystonia

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27
Q

Compare these gain of function signs in UMN syndrome: hypertonia, spasticity, and rigidity:

A

Hypertonia: abnormally strong resistance to passive stretch

Spasticity:

Rigidity: causes increased resistance to movement in all skeletal muscles throughout the body

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28
Q

Describe the tracts that relay signals for limb-selective motor control and distal movements. Include where the tract starts and terminates, identify if and where the tract decussates, and the results of activation.

A
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29
Q

Describe the functional arrangement of neurons in the primary motor
cortex:

A
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30
Q

Describe the function of the raphespinal tract and give examples of how activation affects motor output:

A

modulates motor control through serotonin
(Example: During exercise, the raphespinal tract is activated, increasing serotonin release to facilitate muscle tone and motor coordination, making movements more fluid and efficient. In contrast, during sleep, serotonin levels drop, leading to muscle relaxation and reduced motor activity).

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31
Q

Describe the function of the ceruleospinal tract and give examples of how activation affects motor output:

A

modulates motor activity through the release of norepinephrine
(Example: During a stressful or frightening situation, the ceruleospinal tract is activated, releasing norepinephrine and increasing muscle tone throughout the body preparing it for a fight or flight response.

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32
Q

Define feedforward and use the terms to describe a functional task:

A

prepares the body for the movement of a task.
(Ex. before a standing person reaches forward, the gastrocnemius muscle contracts to prevent the loss of balance that would otherwise occur when the center of gravity changes).

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33
Q

Define feedback and use the terms to describe a functional task:

A

information about the state of the system.
(Ex. if a person slips while walking on ice, they get feedback from proprioceptors, vestibular receptors, and vision).

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34
Q

What are the three classifications of movement:

A
  • Posture
  • Walking
  • Reaching/grasping
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35
Q

provides orientation and balance (equilibrium)

A

posture

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36
Q

self-propel a person from one place to another place

A

walking

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37
Q

locating the object in space and assessing the shape and size of the object

A

reaching/grasping

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38
Q

Describe the role of vision and somatosensation in reaching/grasping:

A
  1. coordinated the activity with the eyes, head, and trunk
  2. contact the object
  3. somatosensory information switch grasp to lift
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39
Q

a type of receptor that responds the entire time a stimulus is present (Ex. holding a cup, receptors are firing the entire time).

A

tonic receptors

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40
Q

a type of receptor that adapts to a constant stimulus and stops responding while the stimulus is still present (Ex. putting on a watch and not perceiving it’s on your wrist unless you look at it)

A

phasic receptors

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41
Q

C5 spinal level dermatome is innervated by which nerve

A

axillary nerve

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42
Q

C6 spinal level dermatome is innervated by which nerve

A

musculocutaneous and radial nerves

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43
Q

C7 spinal level dermatome is innervated by which nerve

A

radial and musculocutaneous nerves

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44
Q

C8 spinal level dermatome is innervated by which nerve

A

median nerve

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45
Q

T1 spinal level dermatome is innervated by which nerve

A

ulnar nerve

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46
Q

Explain the clinical relevance of impaired dermatome versus
peripheral sensory patterns:

A

Sensory loss in a specific dermatomal pattern suggests that the lesion is affecting a particular nerve root or spinal cord segment.

Impairment in peripheral nerve patterns often suggests a lesion at a more distal site, affecting the nerve after it has branched from the spinal root

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47
Q

Describe the stimulus detected by Golgi tendon organs:

A

detect changes in muscle tension or force during contraction by helping to prevent excessive force that could damage the muscle or tendon

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48
Q

What are the three types of pathways for bringing sensory
information from the body to the brain.

A
  • Conscious relay pathways
  • Divergent pathways
  • Nonconscious relay pathways
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49
Q

A pathway that conveys light touch, proprioceptive, nociceptive, and temperature information.

A

Conscious relay pathways

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50
Q

A pathway that slow nociceptive (pain) is transmitted through

A

Divergent pathway

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51
Q

A pathway that conveys movement-related information to the cerebellum

A

Nonconscious relay pathways

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52
Q

light touch and conscious
proprioception pathway (Dorsal column):

A

1st neuron: DRG
2nd neuron: nucleus cuneatus/gracilis
3rd neuron: thalamus
decussates in the medulla

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53
Q

Explain the clinical relevance of the somatotopic map in the
primary somatosensory cortex (postcentral gyrus):

A

localizing sensory deficits following a stroke or brain injury, allowing clinicians to pinpoint the affected area of the brain based on the pattern of sensory loss in specific body regions.

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54
Q

Describe the pathway for relaying fast nociception and
temperature and crude touch from the body to the cerebral cortex. Include where each neuron starts and terminates and identify where the information decussates:

A

Chapter 11

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55
Q

Explain divergence as it pertains to the somatosensory system:

A
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56
Q

Explain the clinical importance of the distinction between
nociception and pain:

A
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57
Q

Describe the pathways for relaying slow nociception from the
body to the brainstem, midbrain, and emotion system. Include where each neuron starts and terminates and identify where the information decussates:

A
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58
Q

Predict distributions of sensory impairments from a lesion that
affects either the right or left half of the spinal cord:

A
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59
Q

Predict the location of a spinal cord lesion from the distribution of sensory impairments:

A
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60
Q

Compare the types of pain experience associated with the lateral and the medial nociceptive systems:

A
61
Q

What are the four functions of the cranial nerves?

A
  1. Supply motor innervation to muscles
  2. Transmit somatosensory information
  3. Transmit special sensory information
  4. Provide parasympathetic regulation
62
Q

Cranial nerve I:

A

Olfactory:
Function- smell
Brain Connection- inferior frontal lobe

63
Q

Cranial nerve II:

A

Optic:
Function-Vision
Brain Connection- diencephalon

64
Q

Cranial nerve III:

A

Oculomotor:
Function-moving eyes, constrict pupil
Brain Connection- anterior midbrain

65
Q

Cranial nerve IV:

A

Trochlear:
Function- moves eye medial and down, constricts the pupil
Brain Connection- posterior midbrain

66
Q

Cranial nerve V:

A

Trigeminal:
Function- facial sensation, chewing
Brain Connection- Pons

67
Q

Cranial nerve VI:

A

Abducens:
Function- abduct eyes
Brain Connection- between pons and medulla

68
Q

Cranial nerve VII:

A

Facial:
Function- facial expressions, tears, close eyes, taste, salvation
Brain Connection: between the pons and the medulla

69
Q

Cranial nerve VIII:

A

Vestibulocochlear:
Function- hearing, position of head
Brain Connection: between the pons and the medulla

70
Q

Cranial nerve IX:

A

Glossopharyngeal:
Function- swallowing, taste, salivation
Brain Connection: medulla

71
Q

Cranial nerve X:

A

Vagus:
Function- taste, swallowing, and speech
Brain Connection: medulla

72
Q

Cranial nerve XI:

A

Accessory:
Function- elevates shoulders and turns head
Brain Connection: spinal cord

73
Q

Cranial nerve XII:

A

Hypoglossal:
Function- moves tongue
Brain Connection: medulla

74
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the pupillary reflexes?

A

optic

75
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the vestibulo-ocular reflexes?

A

oculomotor
abducens
vestibulocochlear

76
Q

Which cranial nerve is responsible for the gag reflexes?

A

glossopharyngeal
vagus

77
Q

What are the deficits associated with the cranial nerve I (olfactory)?

A

inability to sense smell (anosmia)

78
Q

What are the deficits associated with the cranial nerve V (trigeminal)?

A

anesthesia

79
Q

What are the deficits associated with the cranial nerve VII (facial)?

A

paralysis/paresis of the facial muscles (inability to close one eye)

80
Q

What are the deficits associated with the cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear)?

A

inability to hear (deafness)

81
Q

What are the deficits associated with the cranial nerve IX (glossopharyngeal)?

A

inability to swallow, decreased salivation

82
Q

What are the deficits associated with the cranial nerve X (vagus)?

A

difficulty speaking and swallowing

83
Q

What are the deficits associated with the cranial nerve XI (accessory)?

A

flaccid paralysis of trapezius and sternocleidomastoid

84
Q

What are the deficits associated with the cranial nerve XII (hypoglossal)?

A

poor tongue control, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), and speaking

85
Q

Identify the cranial nerve that can transmit information directly to
the cortex, bypassing the thalamus

A

olfactory (CN I)

86
Q

What are the effects of a cortical lesion on the facial muscles?

A

inability to smile or raise eyelids

87
Q

What are the effects of a UMN lesion on the facial muscles?

A

inability to smile or raise the lower lip

88
Q

What are the 3 types of memory?

A
  1. working memory
  2. declarative memory
  3. procedural memory
89
Q

memory that maintains goal-relevant information for a short time.

A

working memory

90
Q

What areas are activated during working memory?

A

prefrontal cortex
temporoparietal association cortex

91
Q

memory that recollects events, locations, facts, and concept

A

declarative memory

92
Q

What areas are activated during declarative memory?

A

lateral prefrontal cortex
medial temporal lobe

93
Q

memory that refers. to the recall of skills and habits

A

procedural memory

94
Q

What areas are activated during procedural memory?

A

frontal cortex
thalamus
basal ganglia

95
Q

What are the 4 aspects of consciousness?

A
  1. level of arousal
  2. attention
  3. selection of object attention, based on goals
  4. motivation and initiation for motor activity and cognition
96
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with the first aspect of consciousness (level of arousal)?

A

serotonin

97
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with the second aspect of consciousness (attention)?

A

norepinephrine

98
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with the third aspect of consciousness (selection of object attention, based on goals)?

A

acetylcholine

99
Q

What neurotransmitter is associated with the fourth aspect of consciousness (motivation and initiation for motor activity and cognition)?

A

dopamine

100
Q

A disorder that shows difficulty sustaining attention with onset during childhood

A

ADHD

101
Q

What are some symptoms of ADHD?

A

inattention
impulsiveness

102
Q

What are the 3 types of ADHD?

A
  1. Inattention type
  2. Hyperactive impulsive type
  3. Combined
103
Q

What are the primary symptoms of Frontotemporal dementia?

A

Onset: 45-65 years old
Symptoms: personality changes, behavior disturbances, language impairment

104
Q

What are the primary symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Onset: 65 years old
Symptoms: memory loss, cognitive decline, disorientation, confusion

105
Q

What cortical areas are designated as prefrontal association areas?

A
  • Lateral prefrontal cortex
  • Medial prefrontal cortex
  • Ventral prefrontalcortex
106
Q

What is the function of the lateral prefrontal cortex?

A

goal-directed behavior

107
Q

What is the function of the medial prefrontal cortex?

A

emotions and self-awareness

108
Q

What is the function of the ventral prefrontal cortex?

A

regulate mood (social behavior and decision-making)

109
Q

What are the impairments associated with the lateral prefrontal cortex?

A
110
Q

What are the impairments associated with the medial prefrontal cortex?

A
111
Q

What are the impairments associated with the ventral prefrontal cortex?

A
112
Q

Where is the temporoparietal association area located?

A
113
Q

What are the functions of the temporoparietal association area?

A

cognitive intelligence
understanding communication, directing attention, and comprehending space

114
Q

Where is Wernicke’s area located?

A

left temporal lobe

115
Q

Where is Broca’s area located?

A

left frontal lobe

116
Q

What is the function of Wernicke’s area?

A

language comprehension
*meaningless sound output

117
Q

What is the function of Broca’s area?

A

difficulty producing normal language
*difficulty expressing oneself

118
Q

What is the function of the Corticospinal tract?

A

voluntary motor control (moves trunk and limbs)

119
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract decussate?

A

medulla

120
Q

What is the function of the dorsal column?

A

fine touch, proprioception, and vibrations

121
Q

What is the function of the spinothalamic tract?

A

pain, temperature, crude touch

122
Q

Where does the spinothalamic decussate?

A

spinal cord (anterior commissure)

123
Q

What is the function of the vestibulospinal tract?

A

balance, posture, and head movements

124
Q

What are the three functions of the reticular formation?

A
  1. Integrates sensory and cortical information
  2. Regulates somatic motor activity, autonomic function, and consciousness
  3. Modulates nociceptive information
125
Q

What are the major reticular nuclei?

A
  • Ventral tegmental area
  • Pedunculopontine nucleus
  • Raphe nuclei
  • Locus coeruleus and the medial reticular area
126
Q

What are the tests used for oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerve lesions?

A

dynamic visual acuity test
vestibulo-ocular reflex test

127
Q

A test that tests the patient’s ability to maintain gaze on an object while the head is moving.

A

dynamic visual acuity test

128
Q

A test where you ask the patient to read an eye chart while you passively rotate the patient’s head at a frequency of 2turns per second

A

vestibulo-ocular reflex test

129
Q

What are the functions of the cerebellum?

A

adjust posture and coordinate movements

130
Q

Anterior Spinocerebellar Tract:

A

coordinates motor control about body movements

131
Q
A

DR >DRG > DH >

132
Q

Why are motor signs of cerebellar damage ipsilateral?

A
  • Information in spinocerebellar afferents comes from ipsilateral sources.
  • Cerebellar efferents to most of the medial upper motor neurons remain ipsilateral.
  • Cerebellar efferents project to the contralateral cerebral cortex.
133
Q

the ability of neurons to change their function, chemical profile (quantities and types of neurotransmitters produced), and/or structure

A

neuroplasticity

134
Q

Examples of neuroplasticity:

A
  • Habituation
  • Experience-dependent plasticity: learning and memory
  • Recovery and maladaptation after injury
135
Q

What are two types of experience-dependent plasticity associated
with learning and memory?

A
  1. Synaptic plasticity
    long-term potentiation (LTP)
    long-term depression (LTD)
  2. Structural plasticity
136
Q

Compare and contrast central and peripheral nervous system
recovery following injury:

A

CNS:
limited regeneration
incomplete/partial recovery
rehabilitation

PNS:
high capacity regeneration
can make a full recovery
complete recovery of function

137
Q

pain that lasts or recurs for longer than 3 months

A

chronic pain

138
Q

A type of chronic pain that arises independently of other conditions.

A

primary chronic pain
(migraines

139
Q

A type of chronic pain that arises as a consequence of another condition.

A

secondary chronic pain
(ex. osteoarthritis)

140
Q

a process in which the central nervous system (spinal cord and brain) becomes hyperreactive to pain signals

A

central sensitization

141
Q

Describe the different contributors to neuropathic pain.

A
  • Central sensitization
  • Ectopic foci
  • Ephaptic transmission
142
Q

pain arising as a direct consequence of a lesion or disease affecting the somatosensory system

A

neuropathic pain

143
Q

pain caused by damage to the CNS, and pain will be felt in the part of the body that corresponds to the lesioned brain or spinal cord area.

A

central neuropathic pain

144
Q

pain caused by injury or disease of the peripheral nerves resulting in sensory abnormalities (paresthesia)

A

peripheral neuropathic pain

145
Q

The circle of Willis:

A
  1. anterior cerebral arteries
  2. anterior communicating artery
  3. middle cerebral artery
  4. posterior communicating arteries
  5. posterior cerebral artery
  6. Basilar artery
146
Q

Explain the principle of the biopsychosocial model of pain:

A

pain is a complex and subjective experience influenced by:

Biological factors
Psychological factors
Social factors

147
Q

occurs when a particular spinal nerve or segment of the spinal cord is disrupted.

A

segmental dysfunction

148
Q

occurs due to injuries or lesions in the spinal cord, such as those caused by trauma, tumors, infections, or degenerative diseases (e.g., multiple sclerosis, spinal cord infarction)

A

Vertical tract dysfunction

Special Topics in OT (OCTH 670) (3 decks)

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