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Special Topics in OT (OCTH 670) > Exam #1 > Flashcards

Exam #1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of a neuron?

A

soma
axon
dendrites

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2
Q

neurons that transport info from
body sensors → CNS

A

sensory neurons

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3
Q

neurons that connect
sensory + motor neurons, or
local connections between
brain + spinal cord

A

interneurons

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4
Q

neurons that transport info from CNS →
body (effectors = muscles,
glands)

A

motor neurons

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5
Q

what type of neuron is a pseudounipolar?

A

sensory neuron

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6
Q

what type of neurons are multipolar neurons?

A

interneuron and motor neuron

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7
Q

AXOPLASMIC TRANSPORT:

A
  1. Carries enzymes and proteins from the presynaptic terminal to the soma
  2. Uses carrier proteins (kinesins & dyneins)
  3. Rate of axonal transport slows with aging and in neurodegenerative diseases (e.g., Alzheimer’s, ALS)
    ATP = adenosine
    triphosphate
    Energy-carrying molecule that supports
    intracellular energy transfer
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8
Q

What are the supporting cells of the CNS neurons?

A

astrocytes, microglia, oligodendrocytes

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9
Q

What are the supporting cells of the PNS neurons?

A

Schwann cells

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10
Q

What are the functions of glia?

A
  1. Myelinating
  2. Signaling/cleaning/nourishing
  3. Defending
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11
Q

Anions (-)

A
  1. Higher concentration within cell
  2. Chloride (Cl-) & charged amino acids (aa-
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12
Q

Cations (+)

A
  1. More concentrated in extracellular space
  2. Sodium (Na+)
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13
Q

voltage-gated potassium and sodium channels are closed

A

resting potential

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14
Q

local potentials summate to depolarize the membrane. Voltage-gated potassium and sodium channels remain closed.

A

slow depolarization

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15
Q

when the threshold potential is reached, voltage-gated sodium channels open and sodium rushes in. The membrane quickly depolarizes to a positive membrane potential.

A

fast depolarization

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16
Q

voltage-gated sodium channels are inactivated. Many voltage-gated potassium channels are open, potassium exits, taking positive charges out of the axon

A

repolarization

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17
Q

voltage-gated potassium channels remain open. Potassium continues to leave the axon, restoring the polarized membrane potential.

A

hyperpolarization

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18
Q

Changes in mV must reach _____ for the “all or nothing” potential to kick in
(an action potential)

A

-55mV

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19
Q

the negative charge registered when the nerve is “at rest” and not
conducting a nerve impulse.

A

resting potential

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20
Q

the positive electrochemical charge generated at the nerve impulse.

A

action potential

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21
Q

a change from the negative resting potential to the positive action potential.

A

depolarization

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22
Q

a change from the negative resting potential to a more negative potential.

A

hyperpolarization

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23
Q

the change in the electrical potential from the positive action potential back to
the negative resting potential.

A

re-polarization

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24
Q

local potentials that occur because of a change in ion concentration in the postsynaptic neuron

A

post-synaptic potentials

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25
Q

Depolarization =
Hyperpolarization =

A
  1. excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)
  2. inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)
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26
Q

Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs)

A

 Occurs when neurotransmitters bind to postsynaptic
receptors
 Ligand-gated channels open
 Instant flow of Na+ or Ca2+ into neuron causes
depolarization
 Example: neuromuscular junction
1. Binding acetylcholine (Ach) opens ligand-gated channels
2. Na+ flows into neuron
3. …
4. Contraction of muscle cells

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27
Q

Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)

A

 Occurs when neurotransmitters bind to postsynaptic receptors
 Ion channels open
 Local flow of Cl- in or K+ out of the neuron causes
hyperpolarization
 Inhibits the generation of an action potential
 Example: neuromuscular junction
1. Tetanospasmin (toxin)
2. Prevents Ca2+-dependent release of glycine, an inhibitory
neurotransmitter
3. …
4. Unopposed excitation of spinal neurons and muscle contraction
Summation

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28
Q

mimics the action of neurotransmitters

A

agonists

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29
Q

blocks the ability of the neurotransmitter to bend to a receptor

A

antagonists

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30
Q

What are the developmental stages”

A

 Pre-embryonic
 Embryonic
 Fetal

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31
Q

Conception to Day 14

A

Pre-embryonic

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32
Q

Day 15 to End of week 8 (organs are forming)

A

Embryonic

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33
Q

End of week 8 to Birth

A

Fetal

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34
Q

Embryonic stage:

A

Endoderm
Mesoderm
Ectoderm

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35
Q

the developmental stage that develops into sensory organs, epidermis, and the nervous system.

A

ectoderm

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36
Q

the developmental stage that develops into dermis, muscles, skeleton, and the excretory and circulatory systems

A

mesoderm

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37
Q

the developmental stage that develops into the gut, liver, pancreas, and respiratory system

A

endoderm

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38
Q

Formation of the nervous system:

A

Phase 1: A tube forms along the back of the embryo (Neural Tube)
Phase 2: Brain formation

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39
Q

When does neural tube formation occur?

A

days 18-26

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40
Q

What does the thickening of the ectoderm turn into?

A

Neural plate

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41
Q

What are the 3 enlargements that the brain region of the neural tube expands to form?

A

hindbrain
midbrain
forebrain

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42
Q

What does the hindbrain become?

A

medulla
pons
cerebellum
In the upper hindbrain, the central canal expands to form the fourth ventricle

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43
Q

What does the midbrain become?

A

midbrain
“The central canal becomes the cerebral aqueduct in the midbrain, connecting the third and fourth ventricles.”

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44
Q

What does the forebrain become?

A

the diencephalon (thalamus, hypothalamus, subthalamus, and epithalamus) and the telencephalon which develops into the cerebrum.

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45
Q

axons (tracts) that convey information among parts of the nervous system

A

white matter

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46
Q

areas of the central nervous system that appear gray contain primarily neuron cell bodies

A

gray matter

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47
Q

groups of cell bodies in the peripheral nervous system are called

A

ganglia

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48
Q

in the central nervous system, groups of cell bodies are most frequently called

A

nuclei

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49
Q

gray matter on the surface of the brain is called

A

cortex

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50
Q

What are the 3 parts of the somites?

A

myotome
sclerotome
dermatome

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51
Q
  1. an embryologic section of the somite
  2. a group of muscles innervated by a segmental spinal nerve
A

myotome

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52
Q

The area of the somite that will become bones

A

sclerotome

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53
Q
  1. the area of the somite that will become the dermis (skin)
  2. the dermis innervated by a single spinal nerve
A

dermatome

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54
Q

What are the 4 structures that the diencephalon consists of?

A

thalamus
hypothalamus
epithalumas
subthalamus
3rd ventricle

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55
Q

structure that process emotional and some memory information, integrate different types of sensations (i.e., touch and visual information), or regulate consciousness, arousal, and attention

A

thalamus

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56
Q

structure that maintains homeostasis and regulates growth, the reproductive organs, and many behaviors

A

hypothalamus

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57
Q

structure that is part of a neural circuit that controls movement

A

subthalamus

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58
Q

What does the telencephalon give rise to?

A

cerebral hemispheres, lateral ventricles

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59
Q

What lobe plays a role in emotion?

A

Insula (tucked inside lateral sulcus)

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60
Q

Neuronal death:

A

 During development as many has ½ of all neurons die
 Fail to establish connection OR were not active enough

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61
Q

a cell that regulates extracellular fluid, removes waste, part of the blood-brain barrier

A

astrocyte cells

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62
Q

cells that are activated by infection, clean up waste

A

microglia cells

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63
Q

cells that cover the somas in the PNS regulate the extracellular environment

A

satellite cells

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64
Q

a cell that helps produce CSF (cerebral spinal fluid)

A

ependymal cells

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65
Q

cells that act as phagocytes to destroy bacteria

A

schwann cells

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66
Q

cells that:
* regulates the extracellular environment
* maintain the blood-brain barrier
* clean up debris

A

oligodendrocytes

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67
Q

The ependymal cells form what kind of plexus?

A

choroid plexus

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68
Q

Purpose of CSF:

A

cushion
provide nutrients
shock absorption
buoyancy (allows the brain to float)

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69
Q

divides the two cerebral hemispheres

A

longitudinal fissure

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70
Q

the surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres are marked by rounded elevations called _____ and grooves called _____.

A

gyri (singular: gyrus), sulci

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71
Q

What are the 6 lobes of the cerebral hemispheres?

A

frontal
temporal
parietal
occipital
limbic
insula

72
Q

the boundary between the frontal lobe and the parietal lobe

A

central sulcus

73
Q

the boundary between the parietal lobe and the occipital lobe, clearly marked only on the medial hemisphere by the

A

parieto-occipital sulcus

74
Q

the division of the temporal lobe and the frontal lobe, marked by the

A

lateral sulcus

75
Q

the entire surface of the cerebral hemispheres is composed of gray matter, called

A

cerebral cortex

76
Q

structure that processes sensory, motor, and memory information and is the site for reasoning, language, nonverbal communication, intelligence, and personality

A

cerebral cortex

77
Q

two collections of axons connecting the cerebral cortex with other central nervous system areas

A

corpus callosum and the internal capsule

78
Q

bundle of axons that connects the right and left cerebral cortices

A

corpus callosum

79
Q

axons that project from the cerebral cortex to sub-cortical structures and from subcortical structures to the cerebral cortex

A

internal capsule

80
Q

gray matter structures in the hemispheres are

A

basal ganglia
amygdala (temporal lobe)
hippocampus (temporal lobe)

81
Q

What are the 3 structures the basal ganglia consists of?

A

caudate
putamen
globus pallidus

82
Q

structure that are involved in social and goal-oriented behavior, movement, and emotions

A

basal ganglia

83
Q

structure involved in emotions and motivation

A

amygdala

84
Q

a structure that is a part of the declarative memory system (e.g. address)

A

hippocampus

85
Q

a white matter bundle that connects the hippocampus with the hypothalamus

A

fornix

86
Q

Name the 4 ventricles?

A

lateral ventricle
3rd ventricle
4th ventricle

87
Q

What ventricle is located in the diencephalon?

A

3rd ventricle

88
Q

What ventricle is located in the cerebral hemispheres?

A

lateral ventricles

89
Q

What ventricle is located posterior to the pons and the medulla?

A

4th ventricle

90
Q

membranous coverings of the brain and spinal cord, are part of the cerebrospinal fluid system

A

meninges

91
Q

from internal to external, what does the meninges consist of

A

pia mater
arachnoid mater
dura mater

92
Q

the delicate inner layer of the meninges, which is directly attached to the spinal cord

A

pia matter

93
Q

the middle layer of the meninges, which is web-like and filled with fluid to cushion the brain

A

arachnoid mater

94
Q

the tough outer layer of the meninges

A

dura mater

95
Q

the vertebral arteries join to for what artery?

A

basilar artery

96
Q

artery and its branches supply the pons and most of the cerebellum

A

basilar artery

97
Q

What arteries does the basilar artery divide to become?

A

posterior cerebral arteries

98
Q

an anastomotic ring of nine arteries, which supply all of the blood to the cerebral hemispheres

A

Circle of Willis

99
Q

What are the 9 arteries of the Circle of Willis?

A

2 anterior cerebral arteries
2 internal carotid arteries
2 posterior cerebral arteries
anterior communicating artery
2 posterior communicating arteries

100
Q

the internal carotid artery branches into two of the major cerebral arteries

A

anterior and middle cerebral arteries

101
Q

What artery does the posterior cerebral artery branch off from?

A

the top of the basilar artery

102
Q

What are the 3 major cerebral arteries?

A

anterior cerebral artery
middle cerebral artery
posterior cerebral artery

103
Q

What are the functional deficits that may occur with vertebrobasilar ischemia?

A

gait and limb ataxia
limb weakness
oculomotor palsies
oropharyngeal dysfunction
loss of vision
double vision
numbness
dizziness
headache
vomiting

104
Q

What are the effects of anterior cerebral artery stroke?

A

stroke affecting the cortical branches of the anterior cerebral artery results in personality changes and cognitive changes due to frontal lobe damage (flat affect, impulsiveness, divergent thinking, fine touch/sensation, gait apraxia, etc)

105
Q

What are the effects of middle cerebral artery stroke?

A

stroke affecting the cortical branches of the middle cerebral artery causing contralateral homonymous hemianopia combined with contralateral hemiplegia and hemisensory loss ( aphasia, neglect, spatial relationships, nonverbal communication, ect)

106
Q

What are the effects of posterior cerebral artery stroke?

A

stroke affecting the midbrain branches of the posterior cerebral artery causes eye movement paresis or paralysis affecting the muscles innervated by the oculomotor nerve due to damage of the oculomotor nerve, the oculomotor nuclei, or neurons descending from cortical eye movement centers (agnosia, contralateral hemiparesis, etc)

107
Q

What artery supplies blood to the corpus callosum, frontal lobe, parietal lobe, etc?

A

anterior cerebral artery

108
Q

What artery supplies blood to the diencephalon, thalamus, and occipital lobe?

A

posterior cerebral artery

109
Q

What artery supplies blood to the internal capsule, caudate, etc?

A

middle cerebral artery

110
Q

What are the 4 main components of a neuron?

A
  • Dendrites
  • Soma
  • Axon
  • Presynaptic terminals
111
Q

branchlike extensions that serve as the main input sites for the neuron. They are specialized to receive information from other neurons at synapses, the term used to describe communication sites between a neuron and another cell.

A

dendrites

112
Q

the cell body of the neuron

A

soma

113
Q

projections that are the transmitting elements of the neuron that release neurotransmitters, chemicals that bind to receptors on the target cell at the synapse.

A

presynaptic terminals

114
Q

a process extending from the soma that serves as the output unit of the cell, specialized to send information to other neurons, muscle cells, or glands

A

axon

115
Q

What are the 3 different types of neurons?

A
  • Multipolar
  • Bipolar
  • Pseudounipolar
116
Q

the most common type of neuron in the vertebrate nervous system

A

multipolar neuron

117
Q

a neuron that has two primary processes that extend from the cell body:

  • Dendritic root
  • Axon”
A

bipolar neuron

118
Q

a neuron that has a single projection from the cell body that divides into two axonal roots and has no true dendrites.

A

pseudounipolar neuron

119
Q

What are the most common pseudounipolar neurons that bring information from the body into the spinal cord?

A

sensory neurons

120
Q

What are the four types of membrane channels necessary for the
transmission of information by neurons.

A
  • Ligand-gated ion channels
  • Voltage-gated ion channels
  • Modality-gated ion channels
  • Leak channels
121
Q

when a neuron is not transmitting information, the difference in the electrical potential between the interior and the exterior of the neuron is called the _______

A

resting membrane potential
“the interior of the neuron is more negatively charged than the extracellular fluid”

122
Q

when the potential becomes less negative (more positive) than the resting potential

A

depolarization

123
Q

the potential becomes more negative than the resting potential

A

hyperpolarization

124
Q

The initial change in membrane potential is called a __________because it spreads only a short distance along the membrane before dissipating due to the activity of leak channels and the Na+/K+ pump. Can be either depolarizing or hyperpolarizing

A

local potential

125
Q

a large depolarizing signal that is actively propagated along an axon by repeated generation of a signal. Because they are repeatedly regenerated, they transmit information over longer distances

A

action potential

126
Q

Steps of an action potential:

A
  1. Rapid depolarization due to opening of the voltage-gated Na+ channels
  2. A decrease in Na+ conduction due to inactivation of the Na+ channels
  3. Rapid repolarization due to the opening of voltage-gated K+ channels
127
Q

Explain the two structural adaptations in axons that promote faster conduction velocity.

A

a larger axon diameter and myelination; a larger diameter reduces resistance to current flow, while myelin acts as an insulator, allowing for faster signal transmission by concentrating the electrical signal at specific nodes along the axon (called nodes of Ranvier)

128
Q

neurons that relay commands in the opposite direction from the CNS to muscles and glands of the body

A

efferent neurons

129
Q

neurons that carry sensory information from the body toward the central nervous system (CNS)

A

afferent neurons

130
Q

describe the functions of glial cells in the central nervous system (CNS).

A
  • Oligodendrocytes are found in the CNS, and each one myelinates parts of several axons from different neurons
  • regulates the extracellular environment
  • maintain the blood-brain barrier
  • clean up debris
131
Q

describe the functions of glial cells in the peripheral nervous system (PNS).

A
  • Schwann cells are found in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and can only myelinate one axon at a time
  • Schwann cells act as phagocytes, ingest and destroy bacteria and other cells. After injury, Schwann cells provide trophic factors for repair of axons.
132
Q

Guillain-Barré syndrome:

A
  1. PNS affected
  2. muscle weakness/sensory issues
  3. all ages
133
Q

Multiple Sclerosis:

A
  1. CNS affected
  2. fatigue, coordination/balance problems, memory issues, and blurred vision
  3. 20-40 years of age
134
Q

Comparisons of Guillain-Barré syndrome and Multiple Sclerosis.

A
  1. demyelination
  2. autoimmune
135
Q

What are the 3 components of a synapse?

A
  1. presynaptic terminal: where neurotransmitters are released
  2. postsynaptic terminal: which contains receptors that bind the neurotransmitters
  3. synaptic cleft: synaptic communication between neurons can occur
136
Q

Discuss the events at chemical synapses resulting in synaptic communication:

A
  • an action potential arriving at the presynaptic terminal triggers the release of neurotransmitters from synaptic vesicles
  • which then diffuse across the synaptic cleft and bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron,
  • causing a change in its membrane potential and potentially initiating a new action potential
137
Q

depolarizing postsynaptic potentials that occur when neurotransmitters bind to postsynaptic ligand-gated ion channels, allowing a local, instantaneous flow of sodium (Na+) or Ca2+ into the neuron.

A

excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs).

138
Q

hyperpolarizing postsynaptic potentials that reduce the possibility of an action potential

A

inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs)

139
Q

acetylcholine (ACh)- excitatory:

A

loss of ACh-expressing neurons and nicotinic receptor-expressing neurons in the brain is a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease

140
Q

norepinephrine (NE)- inhibitory/excitatory:

A

Excessive levels of NE can produce panic disorder and increased heart rate

141
Q

dopamine (DA): “excitatory”

A

Parkinson’s disease is characterized by motor dysfunction and is due in large part to inadequate dopamine levels

142
Q

serotonin: “excitatory/inhibitory”

A

Low: depression, anxiety
Excess: obsessive-compulsive disorder, schizophrenia

143
Q

γ-aminobutyric acid (GABA)- “inhibitory”

A

Low levels can cause neural overactivity, leadi­ng to seizures, unwanted skeletal muscle contractions, and anxiety

144
Q

glutamate “excitatory”

A

Overactivity of NMDA receptors may cause epileptic seizures.15 Changes in glutamate transmission are associated with chronic pain, Parkinson’s disease

145
Q

glycine “inhibitory/excitatory”

A

unwanted skeletal muscle contractions (spinal cord) and impaired learning and memory (brain)

146
Q

“ beta blockers prevent activation of __________ beta receptors to prevent sympathetic system activation in stressful situations.”

A

norepinephrine

147
Q

L-dopa is a __________ replacement agent that increases _________ neurotransmission in the brain to control bradykinetic symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.

A

dopamine

148
Q

AChE inhibitors are drugs that increase ________ levels by blocking the action of enzymes that break down ACh to treat Alzheimer’s Disease symptoms like memory.

A

acetylcholine

149
Q

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are a class of drugs that treat depression and other conditions by increasing _______ levels in the brain

A

serotonin

150
Q

Benzodiazepines are drugs that increase _______ levels at the GABBA A receptors to decrease anxiety and allow the body to relax after stressful situations.

A

GABBA

151
Q

phencyclidine prevents the overexcitation of NMDA receptors that causes changes in ________ transmission that’s associated with Parkinson’s disease

A

glutamate

152
Q

Strychnine is responsible for inhibiting postsynaptic _______ receptors causing painful involuntary skeletal muscle spasms.

A

glycine

153
Q

Describe the closing of the neural tube:

A

occurs when the edges of the neural folds meet at the dorsal midline of the embryo fuse together and form a closed tube that will eventually develop into the brain and spinal cord

154
Q

Why does the adult spinal cord end at the L1–L2 vertebral level?

A

as the fetus matures, the spinal column grows faster than the cord

155
Q

neurons that die are probably those that failed to establish optimal connections with their target cells or that were too inactive to maintain their connection (happens to half the neurons that are formed during the development of some brain regions)

A

neuronal death

156
Q
A

axonal retraction

157
Q

Explain why neural damage that occurs in utero may not be evident until a year or more after the damage occurred

A

the brain is still actively developing during pregnancy and early infancy, meaning the full impact of the damage may not become noticeable until the affected brain regions are supposed to be actively functioning in more complex behaviors and skills, which often develop later in the first year of life

158
Q

a movement and postural disorder caused by abnormal brain development or permanent, nonprogressive damage to a developing brain. The brain lesion interferes with signals descending from the brain to the lower motor neurons

A

cerebral palsy

159
Q

Malformations associated with spina bifida occulta:

A

neural tube defect that results when the inferior neuropore does not close

160
Q

Malformations associated with spina bifida meningocele:

A

protrusion of the meninges through the bony defect

161
Q

Malformations associated with spina bifida myelomeningocele:

A

neural tissue and meninges protrude outside the body

162
Q

Malformations associated with spina bifida myeloschisis:

A

most severe defect, consisting of a malformed spinal cord open to the surface of the body, which occurs when the neural folds fail to close

163
Q

What does the CSF system include?

A

Ventricles
Meninges
CSF fluid

164
Q

Describe the flow and function of the cerebrospinal fluid system:

A
  1. The CSF system regulates the extracellular milieu and protects the central nervous system
  2. CSF is formed primarily in the ventricles and then circulates through the ventricles and into the subarachnoid space (between the arachnoid and the pia mater) before it is absorbed into the lymph circulation.
  3. CSF supplies water, certain amino acids, vitamins, proteins (e.g., brain-derived neurotrophic factor, a protein that promotes neuron growth), and specific ions to the extracellular fluid and removes metabolites from the brain.
165
Q

Where are the lateral ventricles located?

A

both cerebral hemispheres (C-shaped)

166
Q

Where is the 3rd ventricle located?

A

narrow slit in the midline of the diencephalon; thus its walls are the thalamus and the hypothalamus

167
Q

Where is the 4th ventricle located?

A

a space posterior to the pons and medulla and anterior to the cerebellum

168
Q

What is the function of the ventricles?

A

supplies water, certain amino acids, vitamins, proteins (e.g., brain-derived neurotrophic factor, a protein that promotes neuron growth), and specific ions to the extracellular fluid and removes metabolites from the brain.

169
Q

a canal through the midbrain, the ________ that connects the 3rd and 4th ventricles

.

A

cerebral aqueduct

170
Q

PAD- abbreviation for the meninges:

A

pia mater
arachnoid mater
dura mater

171
Q

a system that helps maintain brain homeostasis and eliminates waste

A

glymphatic system

172
Q

Glymphatic flow:

A
  1. CSF flows into the brain
  2. CSF and interstitial fluid mix
  3. CSF and solutes flow into channels surrounding veins and cranial nerve tracts
  4. CSF drains into cervical lymph vessels
173
Q

an enlargement of the ventricles caused by CSF circulation being blocked and pressure building up (present at birth)

A

congenital hydrocephalus

174
Q

an enlargement of the ventricles caused by CSF circulation being blocked and pressure building up (from a disease or injury)

A

acquired hydrocephalus

175
Q

in this type of hydrocephalus, the ventricular system is intact (communicating), and a blockage exists beyond the fourth ventricle

A

communicating hydrocephalus

176
Q

in this type of hydrocephalus, the blockage is within the ventricular system itself, most often the cerebral aqueduct

A

non-communicating hydrocephalus

177
Q

What is the function of the blood-brain barrier?

A

to prevent pathogens from entering the CNS (drugs and protein antibodies)

Special Topics in OT (OCTH 670) (2 decks)

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