Exam 3: CABG, pump, vascular, pacemakers Flashcards

1
Q

what motions move the TEE probe anterior and posterior

A

anteflex/retroflex

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2
Q

what motions move the TEE probe R and L

A

flex to right, flex to Left

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3
Q

what is used to rotate the ultrasound beam

A

omniplane

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4
Q

what information do we get form basic TEE

A

L and R vent function
heat wall motion
heart chamber volume
vessel integrity
valve function and integrity
heart tumors
pericardial effusion

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5
Q

what are absolute contraindications to TEE

A

perforated viscous
esophageal stricture/tumor
esophageal perforation/laceration
esophageal diverticulum
active upper GI bleed

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6
Q

what are some relative contraindications to TEE

A

radiation fo neck/mediastinum
GI surgery/bleed
barretts esophagus
dysphagia/hiatal hernia
neck immobility/cervical disc disease
symptomatic hiatal hernia
esophageal varicies
coagulopathy

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7
Q

what distance do you initially insert TEE probe to

A

30-35 centimeters

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8
Q

what are the four positions for TEE

A

upper esophageal
mid esophageal
transgastric
deep transgastric

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9
Q

the LV should be ______x larger than the RV

A

1.5

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10
Q

what is the first view we go for in TEE

A

mid esophageal four chamber view

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11
Q

what distance for mid esophageal four chamber view

A

30-35 cm

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12
Q

what do we assess in mid esophageal four chamber view

A

chamber size
ventricular function
anterolateral/inferoseptal WMA
mitral valve disease
tricuspid valve disease
atrial septal defect
pericardial effusion

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13
Q

what is the second view we do in TEE

A

mid esophageal two chamber (LA/LV)

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14
Q

how do we get midesophageal two chamber view

A

rotate 80-100 degrees

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15
Q

what structures are visible in midesophageal two chamber view

A

LA
LV
mitral valve (posterior on left, anterior Right)

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16
Q

what do we assess in midesophageal two chamger

A

LA mass/thrombus
LV size and function
anterior/inferior WMA
MV disease
MV annulus measurement

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17
Q

what is the third view in TEE

A

midesophageal long axis

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18
Q

how do we get midesophageal long axis view

A

rotate to 130 degrees

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19
Q

what structures are in midesophageal long axis view

A

LA
LV
LVOT
Aortic valve
mitral valve
RV

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20
Q

what can we assess with midesophageal long axis

A

LV function
anterospeptal/infeolateral WMA
MV disease
AV and aortic root disease
interventricular septum pathology
cardiac air

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21
Q

what is the fourth view for TEE

A

midesophageal bicaval

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22
Q

how do we get midesophageal bicaval

A

omni to 90?

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23
Q

what is visible in ME bicaval

A

LA
RA
SVC
IVC
intratrial septum

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24
Q

what view is good for finding PFOs/ASDs

A

ME bicaval

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25
Q

what can be assessed in ME bicaval

A

ASD
PFO
lines/wires
venous cannula

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26
Q

what is the fifth view for TEE

A

ME aortic valve short axis

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27
Q

how do we get ME aortic valve short axis view

A

pull probe back, rotate to 10 degrees

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28
Q

what structures are in ME aortic valve short axis view

A

LA
IAS
RA
RV
PA
Aortic valve (L, R and non coronary cusps)

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29
Q

what do we assess in ME aortic valve short axis view

A

aortic valve disease
ASD
LA size
coronaries

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30
Q

what is the sixth view on TEE

A

ME RV inflow outflow view

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31
Q

what structures are in ME RV in flow out flow view

A

LA
RA
TV
AV
PA
PV
RV

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32
Q

what do we assess in ME RV in flow out flow view

A

pulmonic valve disease
pulmonary artery
RVOT
tricuspid valve disease
PAC position

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33
Q

what is the seventh view of TEE

A

ME ascending aorta Short access view

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34
Q

how do we find ME ascending aorta Short access view

A

pull back from ME aortic valve view

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35
Q

what structures are in ME ascending aorta Short access view

A

PA
PV
ascending aorta
SVC
RPA

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36
Q

what do we assess for in ME ascending aorta Short access view

A

pulmonary artery pathology
pulmonary emboli
ascending aorta pathology
PDA
PAC position
atherosclerotic disease

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37
Q

what is the eight view of TEE

A

ME ascending aorta long axis view

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38
Q

how do we get ME ascending aorta long axis view

A

turn 90 degrees from ascending aorta short axis

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39
Q

what structures are in ME ascending aorta long axis view

A

RPA
Ascending aorta

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40
Q

what do we assess in ME ascending aorta long axis view

A

aortic pathology
pericardial effusion
pulmonary embolus

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41
Q

what is the ninth view of the TEE

A

descending aorta short axis

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42
Q

how do we get descending aorta short axis

A

rotate to left

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43
Q

what structures are in descending aorta short axis

A

descending aorta

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44
Q

what do we assess in descending aorta short axis

A

aortic pathology
flow reversal (aortic regurge)
balloon pump/percutaneous bypass wire position
left pleural effusoin
atherosclerotic disease

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45
Q

what is the the tenth view of the TEE

A

descending aorta long axis

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46
Q

how do we get descending aorta long axis

A

90 -105 degrees degrees omni beam to go verticle

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47
Q

what structures are in descending aorta long axis

A

descending aorta

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48
Q

what do we assess in descending aorta long axis

A

aortic pathology (dissection)
flow reversal from AR
IABP position

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49
Q

what is the eleventh view of TEE

A

trans gastric short-axis view

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50
Q

how do we get to transgastric short axis view

A

70 cm into stomach
anteflex

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51
Q

what structures are in transgastric short axis view

A

LV
ventricular septal wall
papillary muscles
ventricle walls

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52
Q

what do we assess for in transgastric short axis view

A

LV size function
interventricualr septal motion
VSD
pericardial effusion
volume status

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53
Q

what views do we get in ME location

A

four chamber
two chamber
long axis
short axis
bicaval
aortic valve short axis
RV IF/OF
ascending aorta short axis
ascending aorta long axis
descending aorta short axis
descending aorta long axis

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54
Q

what is the only non ME view in basic TEE

A

TG short axis

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55
Q

what is red flow on color doppler

A

towards transducer

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56
Q

what is blue flow on color doppler

A

away from the transducer

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57
Q

what view is this

A

ME 4 chamber

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58
Q

what is 1

A

RA

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59
Q

what is 2

A

RV

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60
Q

what is 3

A

LA

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61
Q

what is 4

A

LV

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62
Q

what view is this

A

ME two chamber

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63
Q

what is 1

A

LA

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64
Q

what is 2

A

LV

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65
Q

what view is this

A

ME long axis

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66
Q

what is 1

A

LA

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67
Q

what is 2

A

LV

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68
Q

what is 3

A

aorta

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69
Q

what is 4

A

LVOT

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70
Q

what is 5

A

RV

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71
Q

what view is this

A

ME bicaval

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72
Q

what is 1

A

LA

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73
Q

what is 2

A

RA

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74
Q

what is 3

A

IVC

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75
Q

what is 4

A

SVC

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76
Q

what view is this

A

ME right ventricular inflow outflow

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77
Q

what is 1

A

LA

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78
Q

what is 2

A

RA

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79
Q

what is 3

A

TV

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80
Q

what is 4

A

RV

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81
Q

what is 5

A

pulm valve

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82
Q

what is 6

A

pulm art

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83
Q

what is 7

A

Aortic valve

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84
Q

what view is this

A

ME aortic valve short axis

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85
Q

what is 1

A

LA

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86
Q

what is 2

A

RA

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87
Q

what is 3

A

RV

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88
Q

what is 4

A

pulm art

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89
Q

what is 5

A

left coronary cusp

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90
Q

what is 6

A

right coronary cusp

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91
Q

what is 7

A

noncoronary cusp

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92
Q

what view is this

A

ME ascending aorta short axis

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93
Q

what is 1

A

SVC

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94
Q

what is 2

A

ascending aorta

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95
Q

what is 3

A

pulm valve

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96
Q

what is 4

A

Pulm art

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97
Q

what is 5

A

right pulm art

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98
Q

what view is this

A

ME ascending aorta long axis

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99
Q

what is 1

A

right pulm art

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100
Q

what is 2

A

ascending aorta

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101
Q

what view is this

A

descending aorta short axis

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102
Q

what is 1

A

descending aorta

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103
Q

what view is this

A

descending aorta long axis

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104
Q

what is 1

A

descending aorta

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105
Q

what view is this

A

transgastric short axis

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106
Q

what is 1

A

LV

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107
Q

what does the first letter of a pacemaker code refer to

A

chambers paced

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108
Q

what does the second letter of a pacemaker code refer to

A

chambers sensed

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109
Q

what does the third letter of a pacemaker code refer to

A

response to sensing

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110
Q

what is AAI pacemaker

A

atrium paced
atrium sensed
inhibit (demand mode)

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111
Q

what is VVD pacemaker

A

ventricle paced
ventricle sensed
dual (dependent)

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112
Q

what kind of heart rhythms use inhibit mode on pacemaders

A

fast
AFIB with RVR

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113
Q

what kind of heart rhythms use Dual mode on pacemaker

A

blocks

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114
Q

what is DDD pacemaker

A

dual paced
dual sensed
dual (dependent)

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115
Q

what does a magnet do to a pacemaker

A

VOO for single chamber
DOO for dual chamber
pacing on
sensing off
response off

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116
Q

what part of the ECPP is a holding tank/filter/defoamer for blood

A

venous reservoir

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117
Q

what part of the ECPP provides mechanical oxygenation/ventilation

A

oxygenator

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118
Q

what part of the ECPP cools/warms blood

A

heat exchanger

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119
Q

what part of the ECPP supplies medical air/FiO2 to oxygenator

120
Q

what part of the ECPP pumps blood

A

Arterial pump

121
Q

what part of the ECPP scavenges blood from surgical field/vents heart (prevents excess blood loss/poor surgical field of view)

A

cardiotomy suction/vent lines

122
Q

what part of the ECPP allows for myocardial arrest

A

Cardioplegia System

123
Q

what part of the ECPP supplies anesthetic gas to oxygenator

124
Q

what part of the ECPP Bridges the HLM to the patient

125
Q

what is normal dose for Heparin

A

300-400 units/kg

126
Q

what is the half life of Heparin

127
Q

what does heparin bind to

A

antithrombin 3

128
Q

what clotting factors does heparin inactivate

A

2a
9a
10a
11a
12a

129
Q

what is ACT goal for CPB

A

480 seconds

130
Q

what is ACT goal for TAVRs

A

250-300 seconds

131
Q

what is antidote dose for heparin

A

1-1.3 mg/100 heparin

132
Q

what deficiency leads to heparin resistance

A

antithrombin 3 deficiency

133
Q

what is treatment for AT3 deficiency

134
Q

if patient has heparin resistance, what two medications can we use for anticoagulation

A

bivalrudin
argatroban

135
Q

what is the MOA of bivalrudin

A

direct thrombin inhibitor

136
Q

what is the dose for bivalrudin for CPB

A

1mg/kg bolus
2.5 mg/kg/hr infusion

137
Q

what labs do we monitor for bivalrudin

138
Q

your patient has heparin resistance and renal failure, what anticoagulant do you use

A

argatroban

139
Q

your patient has heparin resistance and liver failure, what anticoagulant do you use

A

bivalrudin

140
Q

what is the moa of argatroban

A

direct thrombin inhibitor

141
Q

what labs do we monitor with argatroban

142
Q

what anticoagulant do we use for patients with HIT

A

argatroban

143
Q

what is the half life of argatroban

144
Q

what is the half life of bivalrudin

145
Q

what is the MOA of amicar/aminocaproic acid

A

Aminocaproic acid is a lysine analog that binds competitively to plasminogen, blocking plasminogen from binding to fibrin and the subsequent conversion to plasmin
This activity subsequently results in the inhibition of fibrin degradation (fibrinolysis)

146
Q

what is the MOA of TXA (tranexamic acid)

A

-lysine analog that inhibits plasminogen activation
-synthetic plasminogen-activator, inhibition of fibrinolysis and clot degradation

147
Q

formula for calculating CPB HCT

A

(preop hct x pt blood volume) / (patient blood volume+ prime volume + anesthesia volume)

148
Q

SVR calculation

A

MAP-CVP/CO x 80

149
Q

for every 7* drop in temp, VO2 is reduced by ____________

150
Q

what is mild hypothermia for CPB

151
Q

what is moderate hypothermia for CPB

152
Q

what is severe hypothermia for CPB

153
Q

what is deep hypothermia for CPB

154
Q

what is glucose goal post CPB

155
Q

where does antegrade cardioplegia go

A

coronary arteries
drains out of coronary sinus/RA

156
Q

where does retrograde cardioplegia go

A

coronary sinus
drains out of coronary arteries
monitored via coronary sinus pressure

157
Q

what two labs often increase on rewarming

158
Q

how many chambers

159
Q

how many chambers

160
Q

how many chambers

161
Q

what kind of pacemaker

A

dual chamber AICD

162
Q

what kind of pacemaker

A

single chamber AICD

163
Q

what kind of pacemaker

A

biventricular pacemaker

164
Q

what kind of device

A

leadless pacemaker

165
Q

what is this device

A

loop recorder

166
Q

what happens with collateral myocardial circulation and CAD

A

increase in size and number

167
Q

T/F collateral myocardial circulation exists in normal hearts

168
Q

T/F collateral myocardial circulation is beneficial at rest

169
Q

what can happen with collateral myocardial circulation during increased myocardial demand

A

coronary steal

170
Q

Coronary steal graphic

171
Q

what is an anastomosis

A

a connection made between 2 vessels

172
Q

what does the # of grafts refer to

A

the number of DISTAL anastomosis made

173
Q

what do we do PREOP for CABG

A

*Beta-blocker administration within 24 hrs. of procedure
*All should receive statin
*Continuation of calcium channel blockers
*ACE inhibitor continuation is controversial - I prefer holding
*ASA continue or hold 6-24 hrs. pre-op
*Antiplatelet is typically held 5-7 days
*Heparin usually discontinued in pre-op 1 hour prior
*Typically metformin held 24-48 hrs. pre-op

174
Q

T/F give BB prior to CABG

175
Q

T/F give statin before CABG

A

T, to all patients

176
Q

T/F continue CCB before CABG

177
Q

T/F continue ACE-I before CABG

178
Q

T/F continue ASA before CABG

A

either continue or hold for 6-24 hours

179
Q

T/F continue anti-platelet therapy before CABG

A

F, hold for 5-7 days

180
Q

T/F continue heparin before CABG

A

F, D/C 1 hour prior

181
Q

T/F continue metformin before CABG

A

F, hold for 24-48 hours

182
Q

what do CRNAs do PREOP for CABG

A

large bore IV placement
A-line placement
CVL or CORDIS placement
anxiolytics

183
Q

what intraop monitors do we use for CABG

A

A line
CVP
PA
CO/CI
TEE
SvO2
TEG

184
Q

what drugs do we have prepped for induction of CABG

A

INDUCTION
-lidocaine
-fentanyl/sufentanil
-etomidate
-roc/vec/cis
UPPERS
neo stick
levophed on pump
epinephrine on pump
DOWNERS
nitroglycerin

185
Q

what occurs post induction for CABG

A

line placement and TEE

186
Q

what lab monitors clot formation and breakdown graphically

A

TEG- thromboelastography

187
Q

what does R value of TEG tell us

A

time for initial clot/fibrin formation

188
Q

what does K value of TEG tell us

A

speed of clot formation at the end of R until amplitude reaches 20 mm

189
Q

what does the Alpha Angle of TEG tell us

A

Speed of clot formation like K. Both are speed of clot strengthening

190
Q

what does MA of TEG tell us

A

Strength of clot based on platelet function, fibrin, and interaction between platelets and polymerizing fibrin. (Maximum Amplitude) of clot. Maximum strength of clot

191
Q

TEG picture

192
Q

what is the most controllable and important determinant of myocardial oxygen consumption

193
Q

what is formula for coronary perfusion pressure

A

Diastolic BP-PCWP

194
Q

what is goal of intraop BP maintanence for CABG

A

maintain adequete coronary perfusion pressure

195
Q

what is hemodynamic goal for preload for CABG

A

decrease
(decreased LVEDP will increase myocardial O2 supply and decrease demand. Nitroglycerin selectively dilates coronary vessels)

196
Q

what drug selectively dilates coronary vessels

A

nitroglycerin

197
Q

what is goal for HR for CABG

A

slow/normal
(too fast=ischemia, consider BB)
(too slow= not enough CO for coronary perfusion)

198
Q

what medication can we give during CABG if HR is too fast

199
Q

what can too fast of a HR during CABG lead to

200
Q

what can too slow of a HR during CABG lead to

A

decreased coronary perfusion

201
Q

what is goal for rhythm for CABG

A

maintain Sinus
(maintains 20% atrial kick for CO)

202
Q

what is goal for compliance during CABG

A

increase
(concentric LCH common with HTN history decreases compliance)

203
Q

what cardiac change can HTN lead to

A

concentric LVH

204
Q

what is goal for contractility in CABG if normal LVF

A

depress
(decreased contractility= decreased MVO2)

205
Q

what is goal for contractility in CABG if decreased LVF

206
Q

what does a decrease in contractility lead to

A

decreased myocardial use of O2 (MVO2)

207
Q

what is goal of SVR for CABG

A

maintain
(hypertension is better than hypotension)

208
Q

what do we treat hypotension with in CABG

A

phenylephrine

209
Q

what is goal of PVR for CABG

A

maintain
(usually not a problem)

210
Q

what are sights for graft harvesting with CABG

A

saphenous vein
radial artery
LIMA/RIMA

211
Q

which graft has longer patency

212
Q

GRAFT type graphics

213
Q

what is an important anesthesia action during sternotomy

A

‘OFF LUNGS”
hold ventilations, switch to manual

214
Q

what is an anesthetic consideration during LIMA harvest

A

keep low TV to prevent obstructing surgeons view

215
Q

what occurs in CABG after sternotomy/LIMA harvest

A

aortic cannulation

216
Q

what is target ACT for CABG/PUMP

217
Q

what is minimum ACT for pump

218
Q

what is bolus dose of CABG for initial heparization

A

300-400 units/kg

219
Q

what is off pump dose of heparin for CABG

A

1/2 pump dose (150-200units/kg)

220
Q

when do we give heparin bolus for CABG

A

prior to the LIMA/RIMA takedown

221
Q

what is BP goal for aortic cannulation

A

BP <90 sys

222
Q

when can we allow BP to rise

A

after cannula is placed

223
Q

what do we monitor during CABG

A

*Monitor electrolytes
*Monitor glucose
*Monitor MAP
*Monitor cerebral oximeter
*Ensure anesthetic is being delivered (perfusionist)
*Meds upon warming

224
Q

what do we do when preparing to come off pump

A

resume ventilation
prepare to receive circuit volume

225
Q

how can we prepare to receive circuit volume when coming off pump

A

*Make room by decreasing SVR
*Maintain MAP of 60-70
*Monitor right heart via swan and surgeon’s eyes
*TEE to assess LV function
*Add inotrope support if necessary
*Ask perfusion to spin down the rest for later administration

226
Q

what is BP goal for aortic decannulation

A

systolic BP <90

227
Q

what is dose of protamine for reversal of heparin

A

1 mg per 100u heparin

228
Q

when do we give protamine

A

after decannulation has occurred

229
Q

what kind of line do we give protamine in

A

peripheral IV

230
Q

what do we give to ‘pretreat” for histamine reaction

A

antihistamine
H2 agonist such as famotidine

231
Q

what is a consideration for protamine administration

232
Q

what are S/S protamine reaction

A

increase PiP
decreased BP

233
Q

when do we get ACT after protamine admin

234
Q

what may happen that could require more protamine

A

cell savor blood is given (still hepranized)

235
Q

what is HCT goal post op

236
Q

what is EF requirement for OPCABG

237
Q

what hemodynamic change do we prepare for in OPCABG

A

extreme swings in BP

238
Q

what medications do we prepare to combat OPCABG BP swings

A

albumin 500 ml 5%
nitro
levo

239
Q

what is it called when they lift the heart up out of the chest during OPCABG

A

verticalization of heart

240
Q

exposure for the __________ is considered with the most dramatic deterioration in stroke volume

A

circumflex

241
Q

what are features of noncompliant LV (LVH)

A

compromised diastolic filling
dependence on atrial kick

242
Q

how is LVEDP in concentric hypertrophy

A

maintained

243
Q

what is C

244
Q

what is D

245
Q

what is E

246
Q

what is F

247
Q

what is G

248
Q

what is A

249
Q

what is B

250
Q

what is C

251
Q

what is D

252
Q

what is E

253
Q

what is F

254
Q

what view is this

A

Subcostal 4 chamber view

255
Q

what view is this

A

subcostal IVC view

256
Q

what is A

257
Q

what is B

A

hepatic vein

258
Q

what is C

259
Q

what is D

260
Q

what is E

261
Q

what view is this

A

apical 4 chamber view

262
Q

what is A

A

apex of heart

263
Q

what is B

264
Q

What is C

265
Q

what is D

266
Q

what is E

267
Q

What is F

268
Q

what is G

269
Q

what is H

270
Q

what view is this

271
Q

what is A

272
Q

what is B

A

aortic outflow

273
Q

what is C

274
Q

what id D

A

LV outflow

275
Q

what is E

276
Q

what is F

277
Q

what is G

278
Q

what view is this

279
Q

what is A

280
Q

What is B

281
Q

what is C

A

papillary muscles

282
Q

5 Ps of limb ischemia

A

Pulselessness -early sign
Pallor-early sign
pain
Parathesia-late sign
paralysis-late sign

283
Q

what ABI ratio is abnormal

284
Q

what ABI ratio is associated with limb threatening ischemia

285
Q

Type 1 crawford aneurysm

A

all or most of the descending thoracic aorta

and the upper abdominal aorta

286
Q

crawford type II aneurysm

A

involve all or most of the descending thoracic aorta and all or most of the abdominal aorta

287
Q

type III crawford

A

involve the lower portion of the descending thoracic aorta and most of the abdominal aorta

288
Q

type IV crawford

A

involve all or most of the abdominal aorta, including the visceral segment.

289
Q

type 1 debakey

A

begin in the ascending aorta and extend throughout the entire aorta.

290
Q

type II debakey

A

confined to the ascending aorta

291
Q

type III debakey

A

begin just distal to the left subclavian artery and extend either to the diaphragm(type IIIA) or to the aortoiliac bifurcation (type IIIb).

292
Q

stanford type A

A

involve the ascending aorta

293
Q

standford type B

A

do not involve the ascending aorta

294
Q
A

crawford type I

295
Q
A

crawford type 2

296
Q
A

crawford type 3

297
Q
A

crawford type 4