EXAM 2: AP, monitors Flashcards

1
Q

blood flow through heart

A

SVC and IVC
RA
Tricuspid valve
RV
pulmonic valve
PA
lungs
pulmonary veins
LA
mitral valve
LV
aortic valve
aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what makes up the flexible skeletal structure of the heart

A

cartilage
-valve annuli
-aortic/pulmonic roots
-central fibrous body
-L and R fibrous trigones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the two layer sac that surrounds the heart

A

pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the fibrous sheath of the pericardium made of

A

mesothelial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the purpose of the pericardium

A

protects/lubricates and holds the heart in place

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what layer of pericardium contacts the outside of the heart

A

epicardium/visceral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what layer of pericardium conatins 15-30 ccs of serous fluid between epicardial and parietal space

A

pericardial space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what layer of the pericardium is adhered to the fibrous outer layer

A

parietal pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what layer of the pericardium is the outer layer fused to the central tendon of the diaphragm

A

fibrous pericardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

layers of pericardium

A

fibrous pericardium
parietal pericardium
pericardial space
epicardium/visceral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

heart layers image

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the inner most layer of the heart

A

endocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the middle layer of cardiac muscle

A

myocardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the outer layer of the heart and the inner layer of the pericardium

A

epicardium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is a differentiating factor of pericarditits

A

positional pain, increased when breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the thickness of the atria

A

5mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is the thickness of the ventricles

A

10mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

T/F semilunar valves have cardae tendinae

A

F, only atrioventricular valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does RA receive blood from

A

SVC, IVC, coronary sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what does LA receive blood from

A

pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

atria are formed of _______ thin layers of myocardium

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what happens if cordae tendinae are damaged/lost

A

regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

approximately _______% of CO goes to the heart itself

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what stage of cardiac cycle is LV perfused

A

diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what stage of cardiac cycle is RA, LA, and RV perfused

A

systole and diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the two main coronary arteries

A

left main
RCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what does the LMA give rise to

A

LAD
circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what does the RCA give rise to

A

PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does the RCA and branches supply

A

Rt atrium
RV
SA and AV nodes (sometimes)
interatrial septum
small portion of LV
posterioinferior IVS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what does the Left Main perfuse

A

LA
LV
most of IVS
R and L bundle branches
small part of RV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what cardiac vein parallels the LAD

A

great cardiac vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what cardiac vein parallels the PDA

A

middle cardiac vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what cardiac vein parallels the marginal branch of the RCA

A

small cardiac vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

where do all the coronary veins empty

A

coronary sinus (then RA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where is the coronary sinus located?

A

the posterior aspect of the atrioventricular groove

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

coronary vessels pic

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

coronary vessels pic 2

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

coronary vessel chart

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

cardiac muscle contracts (longer/shorter) than skeletal muscle

A

longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the three types of cardiac muscle

A

atrial muscle fibers/contractile
ventricular muscle fibers/contractile
excitatory/conductive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what structure is cardiac muscle allows AP to travel via ion flow between cells

A

intercalated disks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

contractile muscle fibers of the heart have more ______________ and less ________ than skeletal muscle

A

mitochondria
sarcoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

where does calcium influx come from in cardiac muscle

A

intracellular fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what two functions of cardiac muscle allow for better cardiac emptying

A

twisting motion
long contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

which direction does the subepicardial (outer) layer of the heart twist

A

leftward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

which direction does the subendocardial layer (inner) contract

A

rightward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

contraction sequence

A

-AP runs down sarcolemma (cell membrane) to T tubes
-opens L type Ca channels
-Ca influx into sarcoplasm
-Ca ions interact with troponin C
-tropomyosin rotates to uncover myocin binding site on actin
-myosin head binds to actin
-ATP hydrolysis occurs releasing ADP and phosphate
-ratcheting movement between myosin heads and actin
-actin and myocin slide past each other resulting in contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

troponin has _____ proteins

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what troponin does calcium bind to

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how long is the refractory period of the ventricles

A

0.25 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how long is the refractory period of the atrium

A

0.15 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

why does the atria have a shorter refractory period

A

thinner muscle
no AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what phases make up the absolute refractory period

A

phase 1,2 and part of phase 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what phases make up the relative refractory period

A

phase 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is resting membrane potential of cardiac muscle

A

-90 mv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is threshold of cardiac muscle

A

-65 mv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what occurs during phase 4 of the cardiac AP

A

K leaks out
Na leaks in
T type Ca allow slow influx into cell
L type Ca open at threshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what occurs during phase 0 of cardiac cycle

A

depolarizing due to L type Ca
K falls with Ca equilibrium resulting in depolarization
voltage gated K channels open
K equilibrium moves cell to phase 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what ion repolarizes cell

A

K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what ion depolarizes cell

A

Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what occurs during phase 3 of cardiac cycle

A

calcium channels become inactive that opened in phase 0
intracellular Ca drops
phase 3 ends when membrane potential reaches -65 mv
K channels close with repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

pacemaker AP pic

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what phases are not part of the pacemaker AP

A

1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

how do beta blockers affect cardiac AP

A

increased permeability of K and Na
hyperpolarization of cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what happens with pacemaker and sympathetic activity

A

-beta 1 receptor activation
-G protein releases adenylyl cyclase
-ATP converted to cAMP which activates protein kinase A
-phosphorylation opens more L type Ca channels
-greater influx of Ca into cell shortens phase 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

How does parasympathetic/vagal response alter pacemaker cell

A

-acetylcholine binds to muscarinic receptors
-increased K permeability and decreased Ca permeability
-hyperpolarizes membrane
-increases time to reach threshold
-decreases HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

action potential comparisons

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

which part of the conduction pathway is fastest

A

bundle branches
Purkinje network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

which part of the conduction pathway is the slowest

A

SA node and AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is the pacemaker rate of SA node

A

60-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what is the pacemaker rate of AV node

A

40-55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the ventricular pacemaker rate

A

25-40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

conduction velocity fast to slow

A

bundle branches and purkinje
bundle of HIS
atrial muyocardium
ventricular myocardium
AC node
SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

which ventricle contracts first

A

RV (thinner and first in pathway)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what are cvp distances to right atria

A

subclavian=10cm
right ij= 15
left ij= 20
femoral vein= 40
right median basilic= 40
left median basilic= 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what are parts of cvp waveform

A

a= atrial contraction
c= tricuspid closure
v= filling of r atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how does a cerebral oximeter work

A

skull is translucent to infrared light
travels in arch like (parabolic pattern)
reflects venous return (doesn’t need pulse aka artery)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what is key in cerebral oximeter

A

look for a change in 20% below baseline
-big drop could mean stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

how can you increase cerebral oxygenation

A

-decrease minute ventilation to cause more co2 to cause vasodilation to increase blood flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is the distance from the subclavian vein to the R atria

A

10 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is the distance from the R IJ to the R atria

A

15 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is the distance from the L IJ to the R atria

A

20 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the distance from the right Femoral vein to the R atria

A

40cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the distance from the R median basilic vein to the R atria

A

40 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is the distance from the L median basilic vein to the R atria

A

50 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What does CVP measure?

A

right atrial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what is normal CVP

A

1-10mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what does CVP estimate

A

preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

in a CVP waveform what does the a wave denote

A

atrial contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

in a CVP waveform what does the c wave denote

A

tricuspid valve closure (pressure pushed against valve at closure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

in a CVP waveform what does the v wave denote

A

passive filling of RA (coranaries, IVC, SVC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

where does the a wave of the CVP waveform correlate to the EKG

A

comes after P wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

where does the c wave of the CVP waveform correlate to the EKG

A

during QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

where does the v wave of the CVP waveform correlate to the EKG

A

t wave/ repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what causes an elevated a wave in CVP waveform

A

(increased contractile force)
junctional rhythm (atria pushing on closed tricuspid valve)
PVCs
tricuspid stenosis
ventricular pacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what causes an elevated C wave in CVP waveform

A

(pushing against tricuspid valve)
pulm htn
mitral insufficiency (regurge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what are causes of elevated CVP

A

(elevated preload)
RV failure
tricuspid stenosis or regurge
cardiac tamponade
constrictive pericarditis
volume overload
pulmonary htn
LV failure (chronic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

how does hypovolemia affect CVP waveform

A

hides abnormalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what causes a large V wave in CVP waveform

A

(increased filling pressure)
increased preload
high volume of fluid given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what happens to CVP waveform when you give alot of volume

A

up and plateaus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what condition causes a lack of a waves in CVP waveform

A

a fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

with a swan, what is the distance from the Rt IJ to the RA

A

15-25 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

with a swan, what is the distance from the Rt IJ to the RV

A

25-35 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

with a swan, what is the distance from the Rt IJ to the PA

A

35-45 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what is the approx normal pressure of the RA

A

5
(no systolic, same as CVP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what is the approx normal pressure of the RV

A

25/5
(gain systolic, diastolic mimics RA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what is the approx normal pressure of the PA

A

25/10
(systolic same, diastolic increase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what does a thick line on a swan represent

A

50 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what does a thin line on a swan represent

A

10 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what is the thermistor port on a swan for

A

CO
CI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what color is the CVP port on a swan

A

blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what color is the balloon port on a swan

A

red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

how many ccs go in a swan balloon

A

1.5 ccs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what color is the PA port on a swan

A

yellow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what is used to introduce a swan? how big is it? where is it usually placed?

A

cordis
9 french
Rt IJ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

when do you inflate the swan balloon during insertion

A

RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

what is a common dysrhythmia when inserting a swan

A

PVCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

if you insert swan from the L side IJ instead of the R how much distance do you add

A

10 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

how can you tilt bed to help with swan insertion

A

R and trendelenburg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what is the A wave on a PAOP or wedge

A

left atrial contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what is the C wave on a PAOP or wedge

A

mitral valve closure (bulge)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what is the v wave on a PAOP or wedge

A

filling of L atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what causes a large a wave on PAOP

A

mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what causes a large v wave of PAOP

A

mitral regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what causes an elevated PA pressure

A

LV dysfunction
mitral stenosis/insufficiency
L-R shunt
ASD/VSD
pulm htn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what causes an elevated PAOP

A

LV dysfunction
cardiac tamponade
constrictive pericarditis. (chronic pericarditis, mimics tamponade)
Ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what three pressures are the same in a patient with cardiac tamponade

A

PAD
PAOP
CVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the Frank-Starling law of the heart?

A

the more the heart fills with blood during diastole, the greater the force of contraction during systole (to a point then it fails)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

when do you read a PA mean in a spontaneous breathing patient? a ventilated patient

A

patient peak- diastolic pressure during expiration
vent valley (or just make them apnic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

what does PAOP approximate

A

LVEDP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

PA pressure is and indirect measurement of

A

ventricular function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

what is normal CVP, PADP, PAOP

A

cvp 1-10
PADP- 5-15
PAOP- 4-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

what causes CVP, PADP, and PAOP to be low

A

hypovolemia, or misplaced transducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

what causes normal or high CVP, High PADP, and high PAOP

A

LV failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

what causes high CVP, normal or low PADP, and normal or low PAOP

A

RV failure
Tricuspid regurge
Tricuspid stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what causes normal or high CVP, High PADP, and normal or low PAOP

A

PE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what causes high CVP, High PADP, and normal PAOP

A

Pulm HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what causes high CVP, High PADP, and high PAOP

A

tamponade,
ventricular interdependence,
transducer not at phlebostatic axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

what causes normal CVP, normal High PADP, and high PAOP

A

LV myocardial ischemia
MR?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

what causes low CVP, High PADP, and normal PAOP

141
Q

how do you calulate CO

142
Q

what is normal CO

143
Q

how do you calculate CI

A

CI= CO/BSA

144
Q

what is normal CI

A

2.8-3.6 L/min

145
Q

what helps us calculate CO, CI on a swan

A

thermodilution +/- 5-10%

146
Q

how does thermodilution work

A

inject 10ccs ns/d5,
computer reads temp change and when it returns to normal

147
Q

why is mixed venous drawn from PA

A

has SVC and IVC blood

148
Q

what is normal mixed venous

149
Q

what does mixed venous tell us

A

measurement of O2 delivery, can be an indicator of low CO

150
Q

What can cause a loss of a waves or only v waves

A

Afib
Ventricular pacing

151
Q

What causes giant a waves aka cannon a waves

A

Junctional rhythms
Complete AV block
PVCs
Ventricular pacing
Tricuspid/ mitral stenosis
Diastolic dysfunction
Myocardial ischemia
Ventricular hypertrophy

152
Q

What can cause large V waves on cvp

A

Tricuspid/ mitral regurg
Acute increase in intravascular volume

153
Q

What can cause elevated CVP

A

Rv failure
Tricuspid stenosis/regurg
Cardiac tamponade
Restrictive pericarditis
Volume overload
Pulm HTN
LV failure

154
Q

What can cause elevated PAP

A

LV failure
Mitral stenosis/regurg
L to R shunt
ASD or VSD
Volume overload
Pulm HTN
Cather whip

155
Q

What causes elevated PAOP

A

LV failure
Mitral stenosis/ regurg
Cardiac tamponade
Constrictive pericarditis
Volume overload
Ischemia

156
Q

What can cause overestimated thermodutjln CO

A

Low injectate volume
Injectate too warm
Thrombus on thermistor of PAC
Partially wedged PAC

157
Q

What can cause underestimates of thermodultion CO

A

Excessive injectate volume
Too cold injectate

158
Q

RCA branches

A

SA nodal
right marginal
inferior (posterior) interventricular
AV node

159
Q

left coronary artery branches

A

circumflex
LAD
left marginal

160
Q

location of great cardiac vein

A

parallels LAD and drains into coronary sinus

161
Q

middle cardiac vein location

A

parallels posterior (inferior) interventricular branch and drains into coronary sinus

162
Q

small cardiac vein location

A

parallels right marginal artery and drains into coronary sinus

163
Q

where do anterior cardiac veins drain

A

several small veins that directly into atrium

164
Q

smallest cardiac veins drain

A

drain through the cardiac wall directly into all four heart chambers, but mostly the right atrium

165
Q

low CVP
Low PADP
low PAOP

A

hypovolemia
transducer not at phlebostatic axis

166
Q

normal or high CVP
high PADP
high PAOP

A

LV failure

167
Q

high cvp
normal/low PADP
normal/low PAOP

A

RV failure
tricuspid regurg
tricuspid stenosis

168
Q

high cvp
high PADP
normal/low PAOP

A

pulm embolism

169
Q

high cvp
high PADP
normal PAOP

170
Q

high cvp
high PADP
high PAOP

A

cardiac tamponade
ventricular interdependence
transducer not at phlebostatic axis

171
Q

normal cvp
normal/high PADP
high PAOP

A

LV myocardial ischemia
mitral regurg

172
Q

Low cvp
high PADP
normal PAOP

173
Q

what does the horizontal/x axis represent in a PV loop

174
Q

what does the verticle/y axis in a PV loop represent

175
Q

what is point A in a PV loop

A

-End Diastole
-Beginning of cardiac cycle
-Full LV ready to contract
-Mitral closure

176
Q

what is segment AB in a PV loop

A

-Beginning of systole
-Isovolumic LV contraction on closed aortic valve
-Pressure increase without volume loss

177
Q

what is point B in a PV loop

A

-Aortic Valve opening
-Pressure exceeds force to overcome AV

178
Q

what is segment BC in a PV loop

A

LV ejection into aorta
-AV is open
-LV is contracting
-LV volume is decreasing
-Gradual pressure increase then decrease

179
Q

what is point C in a PV loop

A

-AV closure
-LV pressure drops below AV pressure threshold

180
Q

what is segment CD in PV loop

A

-LV isovolumic relaxation
-Empty LV
-AV is closed

181
Q

what is point D in a PV loop

A

Mitral Valve opening

182
Q

what is segment DA in a PV loop

A

-Filling of the LV
-End of the cardiac cycle
-Pressure and volume gradually increase

183
Q

describe changes in PV loop with Aortic stenosis

A

increased Y axis (height)
left shifted and shortened x axis
shorter AB segment
narrow loop

184
Q

describe changes in PV loop with Mitral Stenosis

A

L shift
shorter DA segment
BC segment shorter
decreased volume

185
Q

describe changes in PV loop with aortic regurge

A

R shift
long DA segment
CD curved

186
Q

describe changes in PV loop with mitral regurge

A

shorter AB
higher A point
long BC
long DA
increased SV

187
Q

pressure volume loops comparison

188
Q

what is normal size of aortic opening

189
Q

what is aortic stenosis >1.5

190
Q

what is aortic stenosis 1-1.5 cm

191
Q

what is aortic stenosis <1.0

192
Q

what is aortic stenosis <0.5

193
Q

at what pressure gradient do AS patients become symptomatic

194
Q

at what pressure gradient are AS patients considered severe

195
Q

at what pressure gradient are AS patients considered critical

196
Q

what is most common cause of AS

A

bicuspid aortic valve

197
Q

what does the pressure gradient in AS lead to in heart

A

concentric LV hypertrophy

198
Q

what happens metabolically with LV hypertrophy

A

increased myocardial O2 demands

199
Q

what does in increased pressure gradient lead to circulation wise

A

reduced coronary perfusion

200
Q

what do 50% of aortic stenosis patients also have

A

correlating CAD

201
Q

what are features of noncompliant LV (LVH)

A

compromised diastolic filling
dependence on atrial kick

202
Q

how is LVEDP in concentric hypertrophy

A

maintained

203
Q

when is AS valve replacement recommended

A

symptomatic with severe AS
asymptomatic patient with EF <50%
already having cardiac surgery

204
Q

what regular heart rhythm do we avoid in AS and why

A

tachycardia
need time to perfuse coronaries and ventricular filling
increased myocardial O2 demand

205
Q

in AS do we want Hyper or hypo tension

A

hyper is better (maintain SVR)

206
Q

what irregular heart rhythm do we avoid in AS and why

A

AFIB
need atrial kick

207
Q

what is goal for preload in AS

A

full
need volume to stretch noncompliant LV
increased preload decreases gradient across LVOT
LVEDP>LVEDP

208
Q

what is goal for HR in AS

A

slow/normal
too fast= ischemia
too slow= not enough CO for coronary perfusion

209
Q

what is goal for Rhythm in AS

A

maintain sinus
atrial kick can contribute up to 40%
cardiovert early

210
Q

what is goal for compliance in AS

A

improve
thick LV prone to diastolic failure
increased LVEDP reduces coronary perfusion
Cautiously treat with NTG maintaining LVEDV and MAP

211
Q

what is goal for contractility in AS

A

maintain
concentric hypertrophy with normal chamber size
normal or increased EF initially
falling EF later

212
Q

what is goal for SVR in AS

A

maintain coronary perfusion gradient
hypertension better than hypotension
treat hypotension with phenylephrine
caution with vasodilation

213
Q

what is goal for PVR in AS

A

maintain
diastolic failure can lead to dyspnea

214
Q

what are the two kind of aortic valve replacements

A

tissue
mechanical

215
Q

what are properties of tissue AV replacment

A

most popular
no anticoagulants
10-20 year lifespan

216
Q

what are properties of mechanical valve AV replacement

A

can last a lifetime
require anticoagulation

217
Q

how do we measure aortic regurge

A

jet size
volume with echo

218
Q

what is aortic regurge with <30% regurgitant fraction

219
Q

what is aortic regurge with >50% regurgitant fraction

220
Q

what kind of structural changes happens with aortic regurge

A

eccentric hypertrophy
LVEDV 3-4X normal

221
Q

what are indications for surgery in Aortic regurge

A

symptomatic
asymptomatic with EF <50%

222
Q

what is goal for preload in AR

A

increase
increased volume to maintain forward flow

223
Q

what is goal for HR in AR

A

high-normal
decreased diastolic time decreases regurge
avoid brady

224
Q

what is goal for rhythm in AR

A

usually sinus

225
Q

what is goal for compliance in AR

A

maintain
eccentric hypertrophy can lead to LVEDV 3-4x normal
return large pump volume after bypass to prevent failure

226
Q

what is goal for contractility in AR

A

maintain
surgery indicated for EF <55%
may need inotropes after pump

227
Q

what is goal for SVR in AR

A

vasodilate to enhance forward flow

228
Q

what is goal for PVR in AR

A

maintain
PVR increases rapidly with acute AR= acute failure

229
Q

what is goal for CPB in AR

A

decrease LV distension
can develop due to slow HR or nonbeating heart
consider LV vent retrograde of ostial cardioplegia

230
Q

when does mitral regurge occur

231
Q

what is MR usually caused by

232
Q

how is EF on echo with MR

A

often overestimated

233
Q

a calculated EF of ________% with sever MR represents significant LV dysfunction

234
Q

what heart changes does MR lead to

A

LA and LV eccentric hypertrophy

235
Q

what rhythm develops in 50% of MVRs

236
Q

T/F in MR repair is preferred over replacement

237
Q

what is goal of preload in MR

A

increase or decrease
enhance forward flow

238
Q

what is goal of HR in MR

A

high-normal
decreased diastolic time minimizes regurge
avoid brady

239
Q

what is goal of Rhythm in MR

A

NSR or if AF control vent rate

240
Q

what is goal of compliance in MR

A

maintain
eccentric hypertrophy of LA and LV

241
Q

what is goal of contractility in MR

A

maintain
may need inotropes after pump

242
Q

what is goal of SVR in MR

A

decreased
cautious vasodilation enhances forward flow

243
Q

what is goal of PVR in MR

A

decreased
acute pulmonary edema can develop with MR
May need to treat urgently with MV repair

244
Q

what is goal of CPB for MR

A

LV dysfunction can be unmasked after surgery

245
Q

what is the MAZE procedure for after MR sx

A

scar the LA to stop AFIB for 12 months

246
Q

what is the MOA of protamine

A

protamine is a positively charged protein that forms an ionic bond with heparin, thus rendering it inactive.

247
Q

what is the DOA of protamine

248
Q

what do we do PREOP for aortic stenosis patient

A

2 IVs
A line
Type and Cross
ICU bed
Cardiac consult
EKG/TTE

249
Q

what do we do INTRAOP for aortic stenosis

A

have levophed drip
BBs (esmolol)
avoid tachycardia
high narcotic
half nitrous half iso
FULL preload (stretch non-compliant LV)
normal/low HR
Maintain SVR

250
Q

when is AS valve replacement recommended

A

symptomatic with severe AS
asymptomatic patient with EF <50%
already having cardiac surgery

251
Q

what regular heart rhythm do we avoid in AS and why

A

tachycardia
need time to perfuse coronaries and ventricular filling
increased myocardial O2 demand

252
Q

in AS do we want Hyper or hypo tension

A

hyper is better (maintain SVR)

253
Q

what irregular heart rhythm do we avoid in AS and why

A

AFIB
need atrial kick

254
Q

what is goal for preload in AS

A

full
need volume to stretch noncompliant LV
increased preload decreases gradient across LVOT
LVEDP>LVEDP

255
Q

what is goal for HR in AS

A

slow/normal
too fast= ischemia
too slow= not enough CO for coronary perfusion

256
Q

what is goal for Rhythm in AS

A

maintain sinus
atrial kick can contribute up to 40%
cardiovert early

257
Q

what is dromotropy

A

conduction velocity

258
Q

what is chronotropy

259
Q

what is inotropy

A

force of contraction

260
Q

tamponade is a ____________ problem

261
Q

what reflex is forced expiration against a closed glottis producing an increase in intrathoracic pressure and increase CVP

262
Q

what reflex is brought on by PPV breath hold

263
Q

what is effect of valsava manuever

A

activate baroreceptor reflex to lower HR and BP

264
Q

what reflex is brought on by Direct stimulation through decreased blood flow to the vasomotor center

A

cushings reflex

265
Q

what are steps to cushing’s reflex

A
  • ICP>MAP hypothalamus increases stimulation of the SNS to the heart * Baroreceptor reflexes kick in and stimulate a PNS response * Bradycardia may also be caused by vagal nerve impingement due to increased
    ICP
266
Q

what is cushings triad (sign of increased ICP/cushings reflex)

A

HTN
bradycardia
respiratory variability

267
Q

what causes the bradycardia is cushings triad

A

baroreceptor response on R branch of the AV node which innervates the SA node

268
Q

where are chemoreceptors located

A

carotid and aortic bodies

269
Q

what nerves do the chemoreceptors utilize

A

Herings and Vagus

270
Q

what stimulates the chemoreceptors

A

decrease in O2 <50
increase in CO2
hydrogen ions/low ph

271
Q

what reflex may play a role in HTN from OSA

A

chemoreceptor reflex

272
Q

the chemoreceptor reflex is not a powerful stimuli until arterial BP falls below ___________

273
Q

what reflex is triggered by right atrial stretch receptors

A

bainbridge reflex

274
Q

how much can the bainbridge reflex increase HR

275
Q

what is sensed by the right atrial stretch receptors

A

increased Rt atrial pressure

276
Q

when there is an increase in Rt atrial pressure the _________ reflex kicks in, which inhibits the ____________ nervous system

A

bainbridge
PNS

277
Q

by what mechanism does the bainbridge reflex inhibit the PNS

A

nucleus tractus solitarius

278
Q

what reflex is bradycardia occuring during ocular surgery

A

oculocardiac reflex

279
Q

what muscle is specifically invovled in the oculocardiac reflex

A

medial rectus

280
Q

what medications do we give to combat the oculo cardiac reflex

A

glyco
atropine

281
Q

what is the afferent limb of the oculocardiac reflex

A

trigeminal nerve

282
Q

what is the efferent limb of the oculocardiac reflex

A

vagus nerve

283
Q

which reflex is caused by Traction or pressure on the structures within the peritoneal and thoracic cavities

A

celiac reflex

284
Q

what relfex is caused by insufflation

A

celiac reflex

285
Q

what nerve is stimulated by the celiac reflex

A

vagus nerve

286
Q

what is a hemodynamic effect of the celiac reflex

A

decreased preload

287
Q

what reflex responds to noxious ventricular stimuli sensed by chemoreceptors and mechanoreceptors within the LV wall by
inducing the triad of hypotension, bradycardia, and coronary artery dilation

A

Bezold-Jarisch Reflex

288
Q

what is the goal of the Bezold Jarisch Reflex

A

Reperfusion

289
Q

what portion of the NS does the Bezold-Jarisch activate

A

PNS, invoking bradycardia

290
Q

what are the three physiologic effects of the Bezold Jarisch REflex

A

hypotension
bradycardia
coronary artery dilation

291
Q

what reflex is activated by myocardial ischemia or infarction, thrombolysis, revascularization, and syncope

A

Bezold-Jarisch Reflex

292
Q

what medication do we give to counteract the Bezold-Jarisch reflex

293
Q

what part of the cardiac output equation is effected by cardiac tamponade

A

SV so the patient is HR dependent

294
Q

what is a Rapid” fluid/blood collection
between the parietal pericardium and visceral
pericardium

A

cardiac tamponade

295
Q

when does cardiac tamponade become clinically significant

A

fluid compresses the heart

296
Q

how does heart adapt to increased pressure from tamponade

A

increasing venous pressure

297
Q

how is preload in tamponade

298
Q

what is sign of tamponade on SWAN

A

increasing and equalizing CVP, PADP, and PAWP

299
Q

tamponade image

300
Q

what are acute causes of cardiac tamponade

A

trauma
post-op CABG
invasive procedures: Cardiac cath procedure
thoracic aortic aneurism repture

301
Q

what are chronic causes of cardiac tamponade

A

malignancy
infection
autoimmune

302
Q

how does cardiac tamponade appeat on EKG

A

low voltage
ST elevation in all leads or just anterior leads if trauma related

303
Q

what is a sign of cardiac tamponade after CABG that nurse may notice in ICU

A

chest tube drainage stops

304
Q

what is the critical feature of cardiac tamponade

A

cardiac chamber collapse

305
Q

which chambers collapse first in tamponade

A

lowest pressure chambers
RA
LA
RV during systole

306
Q

how is CO in tamponade

307
Q

what part of NS is stimulated by tamponade

308
Q

how does doppler flow appear in tamponade

A

respiratory variability

309
Q

why do intracardiac pressures rise in tamponade

A

must rise to equal pericardial pressure

310
Q

what maintains cardiac output in tamponade

311
Q

how does SVR respond to tamponade

A

increases to maintain BP and venous return

312
Q

what is Becks Triad

A

for tamponade:
-decreased BP
-increased venous pressure (CVP, JVD distension, PCWP)
-distant/muffled heart sounds

313
Q

what is a sign of tamponade seen on Arterial wave form

A

pulsus paradoxus

314
Q

what is pulsus paradoxus

A

drop in BP/flattening of ABP wave form on inspiration

315
Q

what causes pulsus paradoduxus

A

increased intrathoracic pressure from respiration= decreased RAP

316
Q

tamponade CXR

317
Q

how much volume is in pericardial space before tamponade is noticeable on xray

318
Q

what is the best test for tamponade

A

TEE or TTE

319
Q

what volume of tamponade can echo detect

320
Q

what feature of tamponade can echo detect that CXR cannot

A

diastolic dysfunction and collapse

321
Q

tamponade echo

322
Q

another tamponade echo

323
Q

tamponade EKG

324
Q

what is treatment for tamponade

A

surgery
pericardiocentesis
pericardial window

325
Q

how do we manage tamponade

A

fluid resuscitation
inotropic support
avoid drugs that may decrease HR

326
Q

what is anesthetic management of tamponade

A

maintain preload
avoid decrease in SVR and CO
avoid large TV to reduce transthoracic pressures
have surgeon scrubbed and ready to cut prior to induction
have plenty of IV access

327
Q

T/F decrease preload in tamponade

328
Q

T/F give large TV during tamponade

329
Q

what drug do we have ready to go for tamponade induction

A

baby epi (10 mcg/ml)

330
Q

what are characteristics of acute pericarditis

A
  • Common, but goes unrecognized
  • Self-limiting, 6 weeks
  • Usually viral 30-50%
331
Q

what do we give for viral pericarditis

A

NSAIDs
steroids

332
Q

what is a Dense fusion of parietal and visceral pericardium that limits diastolic filling

A

constrictive pericarditis

334
Q

what is treatment for constrictive pericarditis

A

remove pericardium

335
Q

T/F removing pericardium fixes constrictive pericarditis

A

doesnt fix all of it, need inotropes after procedure

336
Q

what are s/s constrictive pericarditis

A
  • Can mimic cardiac tamponade
  • Increased CVP
  • Pulses Paradoxus
  • Rate dependent C.O.
  • Usually heart and lungs appear normal on CXR
  • Kussmaul’s sign
  • Pericardial knoc
337
Q

how do heart and lungs appear on CXR with constrictive pericarditis

338
Q

what is kussmauls sign

A

deep breath results in an increased CVP

339
Q

what is the definitive treatment for constrictive pericarditis

A

pericardiectomy

340
Q

how do we manage constrictive pericarditis

A

-Maintain preload
* Don’t decrease HR - maintains the C.O.
* Maintain ionotropic support

341
Q

what often happens post pericardectomy

A

drop CO by 15-30%
-overdialtion increases LVEDV, stunning myocardium

342
Q

how do we treat drop in CO post pericardectomy

343
Q

T/F clinical improvement is immediate post pericardiectomy

344
Q

what reasons do we always use R sided DLT

A

L upper lobe lobectomy
L pneumonectomy

346
Q
A

Aortic stenosis

347
Q
A

Mitral stenosis

348
Q
A

Aortic regurg

349
Q
A

Mitral regurg