Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

DEH1800 Hygiene II > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

If a student has special needs that would require help in evacuating the building that information should be given to the instructor at the beginning of the semester. That information should be given at the time of the need to evacuate so help can be provided.

A. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

B. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

C. Both statements are true.

D. Both statements are false.

A

C. Both statements are true.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

According to the SPC Clinic Manual, special needs patients includes patients with:

A) medical, physical, emotional, or financial situations requiring modifications of care.

B) medical, physical, psychological or social situations requiring modifications of care.

C) medical, physical, and emotional situations requiring modifications of care.

D) medical, physical, and psychological situations requiring modifications of care

A

B) medical, physical, psychological or social situations requiring modifications of care.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Examples of special needs patients include, but are not limited to, people with _______ or developmental disabilities, complex ______ problems, and significant _____ limitations.

A

A: intellectual; medical; physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Define: ASA III

A) Patients are able to walk up one flight of stairs or two level city blocks, but will have to stop after completion of the exercise because of distress.

B) Patients are able to walk up one flight of stairs or two level city blocks, but will have to stop enroute because of distress.

C) Distress is present even at rest. Patients pose significant risk since patients in this category have a severe medical problem.

D) Elective treatment is contraindicated

A

B) Patients are able to walk up one flight of stairs or two level city blocks, but will have to stop enroute because of distress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Define: ASA II

A) mild systemic disease

B) Severe systemic disease

C) Severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

D) None of the above.

A

A) mild systemic disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All of the following are examples of an ASA III disease EXCEPT

A) Obesity (30 < BMI < 40)

B) Active hepatitis

C) Alcohol abuse

D) Pacemaker

A

A) Obesity (30 < BMI < 40)

Explanation: Obesity (30 < BMI < 40) is ASA II. However, Morbid obesity (BMI greater than/equal to 40) is classified as ASA III

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Choose the correct answer. A severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is classified as:

A) ASA III

B) ASA IV

C) ASA V

D) ASA VI

A

B) ASA IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

All of the following are categorized as ASA II (Mild systemic Disease) EXCEPT

A) Current smoker

B) Social alcohol drinker

C) Pregnancy

D) All are categorized as ASA II

A

D) All are categorized as ASA II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ASA V is defined as a patient that is morbund and is not expected to survive more than 24 hours with or without an operation. ASA V is classified as a patient with a terminal disease.

A) The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

B) The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

C) Both statements are true.

D) Both statements are false.

A

C) Both statements are true.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Healthy, non-smoking with minimal use of alcohol are defined as ASA I.

True

False

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In the SPC Clinic Manual it states, “List all medications and record their indicators and side effects which are found on ______ or______.”

A

A: Lexi comp; orange book

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

_________ is a common condition where mild inflammation and redness of the _______ membrane occurs beneath a denture.

A

A: Denture stomatitis; oral mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SPC protocol for cleaning denture appliances.

A) Inspect denture, bag denture with soap, ultrasonic bath, rinse denture, scrub denture, return to patient

B) rinse denture, bag denture with soap, ultrasonic bath, scrub denture, Inspect denture, return to patient

A

A) Inspect denture, bag denture with soap, ultrasonic bath, rinse denture, scrub denture, return to patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The obturator should be removed during extraoral and treatment procedures. An obturator is a prosthesis designed to close a congenital or acquired opening, such as a cleft palate.

A) The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

B) The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

C) Both statements are true.

D) Both statements are false.

A

B) The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

Explanation: Depending on the size of the palatal defect, the obturator may need to stay in place in the mouth during parts of the intraoral and extraoral examination to prevent choking or inhalation of materials.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What degrees do you insert an instrument for assesment stroke?

A

0-40 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Assessment stroke angulation

A

50-70 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Assessment stroke lateral pressure

A

contact with the surface of the tooth, without pressure application

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Assessment stroke character

A

fluid stroke; medium length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Assessment stroke direction

A

vertical, oblique, horizontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Assessment stroke number of strokes

A

abundant, must cover the whole root surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Calculus removal/scaling stroke purpose

A

calculus removal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Calculus removal/scaling stroke instrument

A

sickle scalers, curetes, files

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Calculus removal/scaling stroke angulation

A

70-80 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Calculus removal/scaling stroke lateral pressure

A

moderate or firm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Calculus removal/scaling stroke character

A

powerful but short strokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Calculus removal/scaling stroke number of strokes

A

limited; applied only to the necessary area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Root planning stroke purpose

A

removal of residual calculus, biofilm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Root planning stroke instrument

A

curets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Root planning stroke angulation

A

60-70 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Root planning lateral pressure

A

light or moderate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Root planning stroke character

A

light strokes of medium length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Root planning stroke number of strokes

A

abundant, must cover the whole root surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When scaling the angle of the universal curets should be positioned what degree angle to the terminal shank?

A

90 degree

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Moving the hoe in the indirect and horizontal manner can cause injury to the

A

epithelium tissue of the oral cavity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When sharpening Gracey Curets you should hold the sharpening stone__________ to the floor.

A

perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The Gracey curet has only _______ cutting edge?

A

one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When sharpening Gracey Curets adjust the angle of the stone to more obtuse at about _____ to _____ degrees.

A

10;20

The angle of the blade’s face towards the sharpening stone may be 100 to 110 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

To maintain the exceptional curvature of the Gracey curet, track the instrument’s

A

contour while sharpening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

To sharpen the curet blade’s face, apply a cone-shaped sharpening stone toward the

A

curet blade’s face in a slight back-and-forth stroke manner.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How many strokes should you perform while sharpening the face of the blade?

A

4 to 6 strokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

To estimate the sharpness of the utilized appliance use the

A

acrylic stick test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

To protect the curet’s toe from getting a cuspate look sharpen the curet’s blade completely from

A

its shank end to its toe.

Sharpen all around the toe to maintain its sharp form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

After finishing the first blade of the universal curet, move to the ________ end and sharpen it using the same principles.

A

opposite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A sharp curet has a fine line at the cutting edge that will not reflect light. T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A dull cutting edge is like a small surface and reflects
light as shown. T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Over time, the steam autoclave may dry out an Arkansas stone and lead to chipping or breakage. T/F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Dry Stone Advantage

A

The problems related to maintaining a sterile
stone and preventing contamination when oil, tap
water, or a lubricant is applied are eliminated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A dry stone :sharpens the cutting edge without

A

nicks in the
blade; nicks can be created from particles of metal
suspended in a lubricant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A dry stone allows the stone to be completely sterilized without the problem of interference by the

A

oil left in and on
the stone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Water on Stone is used not only for lubrication of ceramic stone,
but they may also be used

A

dry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Oil lubrication is recommended with certain quarried
stones such as the

A

Arkansas stone to prevent drying
out.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Instruments are autoclaved before sharpening, and the
stone and instruments are sterilized again after nonsterile

A

lubricant is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The lubricant can facilitate the movement of the instrument
blade over the stone to prevent

A

scratching of
the stone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Benefits of lubricating a sharpening stone

A
  • Suspend the metallic particles removed during
    sharpening.
  • Help to prevent clogging of the pores of the stone
    (glazing) .
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The objectives during sharpening are twofold:

A

▶▶ To produce a sharp cutting edge.

▶▶ To preserve the original shape of the instrument.

56
Q

Instrument shape is also known as

A

contour

57
Q

The contour of a curet toe is

A

a smooth, continuous
curvature with no points or flat edges.

58
Q

When instruments become grossly dulled, recontouring

A

wastes the instrument.

59
Q

Restoring original contour to a grossly dull instrument
often leaves a blade that is

A

not functional and therefore
useless.

60
Q

Tests for Instrument Sharpness

A
  • Visual or Glare Test
  • Plastic test stick
61
Q

A solid, consistent bevel results from:

A
  • Instrument and stone positioned at the correct angle.
  • Movement occurring in a single plane.
62
Q

Irregular bevel is revealed by:

A

• Breaks in the fine line of the blade edge.

• Varying facets indicating the improper stone
placement/movement.

63
Q

Newly sharpened instruments are finished by carefully inspecting the edges for a clean consistent bevel with no particles or “wire edge” remaining. T/F

A

True

64
Q

How is the wire edge produced during sharpening?

A
  • metal particles removed
    during grinding remain attached to the edge of
    the instrument and create the wire edge
65
Q

By sharpening into, toward, or against the cutting edge,
the production of a wire edge is minimized. T/F

A

True

66
Q

A two-step sharpening procedure is used for

A

Universal Curets

67
Q

A three-step sharpening procedure is used.

A

Area specific Curets

68
Q

Diamond-coated files are not sharpened. T/F

A

True

69
Q

Two or three
passes with the tanged file are usually sufficient to bring
each edge back to sharpness. T/F

A

True

70
Q

When sharpening the Hoe scaler rounded corners help to prevent

A

laceration of soft tissue
or grooving of tooth surface.

71
Q

When sharpening a hoe scaler the hoe needs to be adapted to the surface of a stationary flat stone at the original bevel of _____ degrees?

A

45

72
Q

To round the sharp corners of the hoe scaler,
a flat stone is rubbed over the instrument with a gentle

A

rolling motion. The sharp corners
of a chisel are rounded in the same way.

73
Q

Use ammonia, gasoline,
or kerosene when stone becomes

A

discolored

74
Q

If the stone becomes “glazed” by metal particles ground into
the surface, rub the stone over

A

emery paper placed on a
flat, solid surface.

75
Q

Care of the Tanged File

A
  • Corrodes easily, wipe it with isopropyl alcohol soaked gauze
  • Manufacturer’s directions
76
Q

INSTRUMENT SHARPENING:

A

The process of grinding away metal between two surfaces to remove a rounded junction- without changing the original shape of the instrument

77
Q

CUTTING EDGE:

A

A line where two surfaces meet at an angle- has length but no thickness when sharp

78
Q

HONING:

A

Also means sharpening, but is often used to refer to the removal of the wire edge that is raised onto the face of the blade during sharpening

79
Q

BEVEL:

A

The inclination one line makes with another when they are not at right angles

80
Q

What are the four factors that determine the level of an instrument sharpness?

A
  • patient load
  • frequency of use
  • degree of patient difficulty
  • procedure to be used with instrument
81
Q

When should you sharpen?

A
  • before
  • during
  • after
82
Q

The edge of high quality steel is not effected by autoclaving. T/F

A

True

83
Q

Ruby stone and composition stone lubricant

A

water

84
Q

Arkansas stone lubricant:

A

oil

85
Q

India stone lubricant

A

oil

86
Q

Carborundum stone lubricant

A

water

87
Q

Ceramic stone lubricant

A

water or dry

88
Q

Ceramic stones are composed of

A

high alumina ceramica man made saphires

89
Q

Ceramic stones are fired in

A

kilns at 3,000 degrees

90
Q

Ceramic stones with sharpen any metal. T/F

A

true

it is harder than metal

91
Q

Will ceramic stones break?

A

Yes, but will not wear out

92
Q

Always begin sharpening at the

A

heel 1/3

93
Q

Finish sharpening by using the conical stone across the face of the blade to do what?

A

remove the wire edge that may have formed

94
Q

When sharpening the sickle scaler hold the terminal shank at

A

12 o’clock and the stone or card at 3 minutes after

95
Q

When sharpening for a universal curette how is the instrument held?

A

toe pointed toward you; terminal shank at 12 o’clock; stone or card at 3 minutes past

96
Q

Armamentarium

A

All instruments needed for a procedure

97
Q

In the SPC clinic, the instrument is sharpened prior to

A

seeing a patient; in private practice, instruments may be sharpened during the
appointment.

98
Q

Triple Bend gross removal of

A

moderate to heavy tenacious calculus and stain

99
Q

Triple Bend adaption is from the

A

incisal/occlusal edge

100
Q

Triple bend is mostly for sub or supra?

A

supragingival use because of the broader working end

101
Q

Double bend #100 use

A

supra and sub

102
Q

Double bend #100 is used for

A

moderate to heavy calculus and stain

103
Q

Single bend #10 (thinsert) power is

A

low to medium

104
Q

Single bend #10 (thinsert) removal is

A

light to moderate calculus, stain, and biofilm

105
Q

Single bend #10 (thinsert) can be supra or sub?

A

Both

106
Q

Piezo 1S (blue) is similar to the _________ ultrasonic?

A

1000

107
Q

Piezo 1S (blue) removes

A

heavy to moderate

mainly supra gingival

108
Q

Piezo 1S (blue) is great for

A

interproximals

109
Q

Piezo 10Z (blue) similar to 100 ultrasonic is good for what kind of calculus?

A

moderate no deeper than 3-4mm and biofilm removal

110
Q

Piezo H3 (green) perio tip is similar to the ultrasonic thinsert and is designed for use on

A

anterior to premolar teeth but can be used on facial, lingual, and some mesial surfaces

111
Q

Piezo H3 (green) perio tip is good for sub-gingival pocket

A

debridement

112
Q

Implant (softip) is good for what kind of calculus removal?

A

light to moderate plaque & calculs removal without damage to the implant, added benefit of lavage

113
Q

Beavertail (#3) is used mostly on lower anteriors and is good for what kind of calculus removal?

A

heavy supragingival calculus and stain

114
Q

Right and left slim line insert is good for

A

right and left furcation and posterior interproximal light to moderate calculus removal

115
Q

Diamond coat insert is used in

A

surgical settings for removal of tenacious calculus

116
Q

Subgingival technique “vertical adaption” position like a

A

probe enables access of active area to depth of pocket

117
Q

Subgingival technique “vertical adaption” what kind of strokes?

A

mostly horizontal strokes on buccal/lingual surfaces

oblique stroke on interproximal surfaces

118
Q

Contact area/supragingival technique “oblique adaption” position like a

A

hand instrument predominatly oblique

119
Q

Contact area/supragingival technique “oblique adaption” you should do what kind of stokes?

A

vertical thru the contact area

120
Q

Magnetostriction materials

A
  • nickel
  • cobalt
  • iron
  • terium
  • dysprosium

associated alloys

121
Q

Nodal point

A

a point or region on a wave where there is no vibration

122
Q

Piezo materials

A
  • quartz
  • topaz
  • bone
  • man-made ceramics
  • polymers
123
Q

Sonic technology compressed air activates the tip at ________Hz?

A

2500-18000

124
Q

Sonic moves in what motion?

A

circular

all sides are active

125
Q

Frequency

A

a measure of the number of occurrences of a repeating event per unit time

126
Q

Power setting

A

the ability to increase or decrease the amplitude

127
Q

Amplitude

A

the magnitude of change in the oscillating variable

128
Q

Magnetostrictive Hz is

A

25-30

129
Q

Piezo Hz

A

30-42

90% is 30Hz

130
Q

Frequency kHz

A

25-42

131
Q

kHz =

A

1000 hertz or cps (cycles per second)

132
Q

Amplitude lower power =

A

shorter, less powerful strokes

133
Q

Amplitude higher power =

A

longer, more powerful strokes

134
Q

What does the lavage do for the handpiece?

A

cools it and adjustable flow rate

135
Q

Amount of lavage influences

A

cavitation and microstreaming

DEH1800 Hygiene II (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions