Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

If a student has special needs that would require help in evacuating the building that information should be given to the instructor at the beginning of the semester. That information should be given at the time of the need to evacuate so help can be provided.

A. The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

B. The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

C. Both statements are true.

D. Both statements are false.

A

C. Both statements are true.

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2
Q

According to the SPC Clinic Manual, special needs patients includes patients with:

A) medical, physical, emotional, or financial situations requiring modifications of care.

B) medical, physical, psychological or social situations requiring modifications of care.

C) medical, physical, and emotional situations requiring modifications of care.

D) medical, physical, and psychological situations requiring modifications of care

A

B) medical, physical, psychological or social situations requiring modifications of care.

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3
Q

Examples of special needs patients include, but are not limited to, people with _______ or developmental disabilities, complex ______ problems, and significant _____ limitations.

A

A: intellectual; medical; physical

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4
Q

Define: ASA III

A) Patients are able to walk up one flight of stairs or two level city blocks, but will have to stop after completion of the exercise because of distress.

B) Patients are able to walk up one flight of stairs or two level city blocks, but will have to stop enroute because of distress.

C) Distress is present even at rest. Patients pose significant risk since patients in this category have a severe medical problem.

D) Elective treatment is contraindicated

A

B) Patients are able to walk up one flight of stairs or two level city blocks, but will have to stop enroute because of distress.

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5
Q

Define: ASA II

A) mild systemic disease

B) Severe systemic disease

C) Severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life.

D) None of the above.

A

A) mild systemic disease

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6
Q

All of the following are examples of an ASA III disease EXCEPT

A) Obesity (30 < BMI < 40)

B) Active hepatitis

C) Alcohol abuse

D) Pacemaker

A

A) Obesity (30 < BMI < 40)

Explanation: Obesity (30 < BMI < 40) is ASA II. However, Morbid obesity (BMI greater than/equal to 40) is classified as ASA III

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7
Q

Choose the correct answer. A severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is classified as:

A) ASA III

B) ASA IV

C) ASA V

D) ASA VI

A

B) ASA IV

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8
Q

All of the following are categorized as ASA II (Mild systemic Disease) EXCEPT

A) Current smoker

B) Social alcohol drinker

C) Pregnancy

D) All are categorized as ASA II

A

D) All are categorized as ASA II

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9
Q

ASA V is defined as a patient that is morbund and is not expected to survive more than 24 hours with or without an operation. ASA V is classified as a patient with a terminal disease.

A) The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

B) The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

C) Both statements are true.

D) Both statements are false.

A

C) Both statements are true.

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10
Q

Healthy, non-smoking with minimal use of alcohol are defined as ASA I.

True

False

A

True

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11
Q

In the SPC Clinic Manual it states, “List all medications and record their indicators and side effects which are found on ______ or______.”

A

A: Lexi comp; orange book

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12
Q

_________ is a common condition where mild inflammation and redness of the _______ membrane occurs beneath a denture.

A

A: Denture stomatitis; oral mucosa

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13
Q

SPC protocol for cleaning denture appliances.

A) Inspect denture, bag denture with soap, ultrasonic bath, rinse denture, scrub denture, return to patient

B) rinse denture, bag denture with soap, ultrasonic bath, scrub denture, Inspect denture, return to patient

A

A) Inspect denture, bag denture with soap, ultrasonic bath, rinse denture, scrub denture, return to patient

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14
Q

The obturator should be removed during extraoral and treatment procedures. An obturator is a prosthesis designed to close a congenital or acquired opening, such as a cleft palate.

A) The first statement is true. The second statement is false.

B) The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

C) Both statements are true.

D) Both statements are false.

A

B) The first statement is false. The second statement is true.

Explanation: Depending on the size of the palatal defect, the obturator may need to stay in place in the mouth during parts of the intraoral and extraoral examination to prevent choking or inhalation of materials.

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15
Q

What degrees do you insert an instrument for assesment stroke?

A

0-40 degrees

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16
Q

Assessment stroke angulation

A

50-70 degrees

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17
Q

Assessment stroke lateral pressure

A

contact with the surface of the tooth, without pressure application

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18
Q

Assessment stroke character

A

fluid stroke; medium length

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19
Q

Assessment stroke direction

A

vertical, oblique, horizontal

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20
Q

Assessment stroke number of strokes

A

abundant, must cover the whole root surface

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21
Q

Calculus removal/scaling stroke purpose

A

calculus removal

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22
Q

Calculus removal/scaling stroke instrument

A

sickle scalers, curetes, files

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23
Q

Calculus removal/scaling stroke angulation

A

70-80 degrees

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24
Q

Calculus removal/scaling stroke lateral pressure

A

moderate or firm

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25
Calculus removal/scaling stroke character
powerful but short strokes
26
Calculus removal/scaling stroke number of strokes
limited; applied only to the necessary area
27
Root planning stroke purpose
removal of residual calculus, biofilm
28
Root planning stroke instrument
curets
29
Root planning stroke angulation
60-70 degrees
30
Root planning lateral pressure
light or moderate
31
Root planning stroke character
light strokes of medium length
32
Root planning stroke number of strokes
abundant, must cover the whole root surface
33
When scaling the angle of the universal curets should be positioned what degree angle to the terminal shank?
90 degree
34
Moving the hoe in the indirect and horizontal manner can cause injury to the
epithelium tissue of the oral cavity.
35
When sharpening Gracey Curets you should hold the sharpening stone\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the floor.
perpendicular
36
The Gracey curet has only _______ cutting edge?
one
37
When sharpening Gracey Curets adjust the angle of the stone to more obtuse at about _____ to _____ degrees.
10;20 The angle of the blade's face towards the sharpening stone may be 100 to 110 degrees
38
To maintain the exceptional curvature of the Gracey curet, track the instrument's
contour while sharpening
39
To sharpen the curet blade's face, apply a cone-shaped sharpening stone toward the
curet blade's face in a slight back-and-forth stroke manner.
40
How many strokes should you perform while sharpening the face of the blade?
4 to 6 strokes
41
To estimate the sharpness of the utilized appliance use the
acrylic stick test
42
To protect the curet's toe from getting a cuspate look sharpen the curet's blade completely from
its shank end to its toe. Sharpen all around the toe to maintain its sharp form
43
After finishing the first blade of the universal curet, move to the ________ end and sharpen it using the same principles.
opposite
44
A sharp curet has a fine line at the cutting edge that will not reflect light. T/F
True
45
A dull cutting edge is like a small surface and reflects light as shown. T/F
True
46
Over time, the steam autoclave may dry out an Arkansas stone and lead to chipping or breakage. T/F
True
47
Dry Stone Advantage
The problems related to maintaining a sterile stone and preventing contamination when oil, tap water, or a lubricant is applied are eliminated.
48
A dry stone :sharpens the cutting edge without
nicks in the blade; nicks can be created from particles of metal suspended in a lubricant.
49
A dry stone allows the stone to be completely sterilized without the problem of interference by the
oil left in and on the stone.
50
Water on Stone is used not only for lubrication of ceramic stone, but they may also be used
dry
51
Oil lubrication is recommended with certain quarried stones such as the
Arkansas stone to prevent drying out.
52
Instruments are autoclaved before sharpening, and the stone and instruments are sterilized again after nonsterile
lubricant is used.
53
The lubricant can facilitate the movement of the instrument blade over the stone to prevent
scratching of the stone.
54
Benefits of lubricating a sharpening stone
- Suspend the metallic particles removed during sharpening. - Help to prevent clogging of the pores of the stone (glazing) .
55
The objectives during sharpening are twofold:
▶▶ To produce a sharp cutting edge. ▶▶ To preserve the original shape of the instrument.
56
Instrument shape is also known as
contour
57
The contour of a curet toe is
a smooth, continuous curvature with no points or flat edges.
58
When instruments become grossly dulled, recontouring
wastes the instrument.
59
Restoring original contour to a grossly dull instrument often leaves a blade that is
not functional and therefore useless.
60
Tests for Instrument Sharpness
- Visual or Glare Test - Plastic test stick
61
A solid, consistent bevel results from:
* Instrument and stone positioned at the correct angle. * Movement occurring in a single plane.
62
Irregular bevel is revealed by:
• Breaks in the fine line of the blade edge. • Varying facets indicating the improper stone placement/movement.
63
Newly sharpened instruments are finished by carefully inspecting the edges for a clean consistent bevel with no particles or "wire edge" remaining. T/F
True
64
How is the wire edge produced during sharpening?
- metal particles removed during grinding remain attached to the edge of the instrument and create the wire edge
65
By sharpening into, toward, or against the cutting edge, the production of a wire edge is minimized. T/F
True
66
A two-step sharpening procedure is used for
Universal Curets
67
A three-step sharpening procedure is used.
Area specific Curets
68
Diamond-coated files are not sharpened. T/F
True
69
Two or three passes with the tanged file are usually sufficient to bring each edge back to sharpness. T/F
True
70
When sharpening the Hoe scaler rounded corners help to prevent
laceration of soft tissue or grooving of tooth surface.
71
When sharpening a hoe scaler the hoe needs to be adapted to the surface of a stationary flat stone at the original bevel of _____ degrees?
45
72
To round the sharp corners of the hoe scaler, a flat stone is rubbed over the instrument with a gentle
rolling motion. The sharp corners of a chisel are rounded in the same way.
73
Use ammonia, gasoline, or kerosene when stone becomes
discolored
74
If the stone becomes "glazed" by metal particles ground into the surface, rub the stone over
emery paper placed on a flat, solid surface.
75
Care of the Tanged File
- Corrodes easily, wipe it with isopropyl alcohol soaked gauze - Manufacturer's directions
76
INSTRUMENT SHARPENING:
The process of grinding away metal between two surfaces to remove a rounded junction- without changing the original shape of the instrument
77
CUTTING EDGE:
A line where two surfaces meet at an angle- has length but no thickness when sharp
78
HONING:
Also means sharpening, but is often used to refer to the removal of the wire edge that is raised onto the face of the blade during sharpening
79
BEVEL:
The inclination one line makes with another when they are not at right angles
80
What are the four factors that determine the level of an instrument sharpness?
- patient load - frequency of use - degree of patient difficulty - procedure to be used with instrument
81
When should you sharpen?
- before - during - after
82
The edge of high quality steel is not effected by autoclaving. T/F
True
83
Ruby stone and composition stone lubricant
water
84
Arkansas stone lubricant:
oil
85
India stone lubricant
oil
86
Carborundum stone lubricant
water
87
Ceramic stone lubricant
water or dry
88
Ceramic stones are composed of
high alumina ceramica man made saphires
89
Ceramic stones are fired in
kilns at 3,000 degrees
90
Ceramic stones with sharpen any metal. T/F
true it is harder than metal
91
Will ceramic stones break?
Yes, but will not wear out
92
Always begin sharpening at the
heel 1/3
93
Finish sharpening by using the conical stone across the face of the blade to do what?
remove the wire edge that may have formed
94
When sharpening the sickle scaler hold the terminal shank at
12 o'clock and the stone or card at 3 minutes after
95
When sharpening for a universal curette how is the instrument held?
toe pointed toward you; terminal shank at 12 o'clock; stone or card at 3 minutes past
96
Armamentarium
All instruments needed for a procedure
97
In the SPC clinic, the instrument is sharpened prior to
seeing a patient; in private practice, instruments may be sharpened during the appointment.
98
Triple Bend gross removal of
moderate to heavy tenacious calculus and stain
99
Triple Bend adaption is from the
incisal/occlusal edge
100
Triple bend is mostly for sub or supra?
supragingival use because of the broader working end
101
Double bend #100 use
supra and sub
102
Double bend #100 is used for
moderate to heavy calculus and stain
103
Single bend #10 (thinsert) power is
low to medium
104
Single bend #10 (thinsert) removal is
light to moderate calculus, stain, and biofilm
105
Single bend #10 (thinsert) can be supra or sub?
Both
106
Piezo 1S (blue) is similar to the _________ ultrasonic?
1000
107
Piezo 1S (blue) removes
heavy to moderate mainly supra gingival
108
Piezo 1S (blue) is great for
interproximals
109
Piezo 10Z (blue) similar to 100 ultrasonic is good for what kind of calculus?
moderate no deeper than 3-4mm and biofilm removal
110
Piezo H3 (green) perio tip is similar to the ultrasonic thinsert and is designed for use on
anterior to premolar teeth but can be used on facial, lingual, and some mesial surfaces
111
Piezo H3 (green) perio tip is good for sub-gingival pocket
debridement
112
Implant (softip) is good for what kind of calculus removal?
light to moderate plaque & calculs removal without damage to the implant, added benefit of lavage
113
Beavertail (#3) is used mostly on lower anteriors and is good for what kind of calculus removal?
heavy supragingival calculus and stain
114
Right and left slim line insert is good for
right and left furcation and posterior interproximal light to moderate calculus removal
115
Diamond coat insert is used in
surgical settings for removal of tenacious calculus
116
Subgingival technique "vertical adaption" position like a
probe enables access of active area to depth of pocket
117
Subgingival technique "vertical adaption" what kind of strokes?
mostly horizontal strokes on buccal/lingual surfaces oblique stroke on interproximal surfaces
118
Contact area/supragingival technique "oblique adaption" position like a
hand instrument predominatly oblique
119
Contact area/supragingival technique "oblique adaption" you should do what kind of stokes?
vertical thru the contact area
120
Magnetostriction materials
- nickel - cobalt - iron - terium - dysprosium associated alloys
121
Nodal point
a point or region on a wave where there is no vibration
122
Piezo materials
- quartz - topaz - bone - man-made ceramics - polymers
123
Sonic technology compressed air activates the tip at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_Hz?
2500-18000
124
Sonic moves in what motion?
circular all sides are active
125
Frequency
a measure of the number of occurrences of a repeating event per unit time
126
Power setting
the ability to increase or decrease the amplitude
127
Amplitude
the magnitude of change in the oscillating variable
128
Magnetostrictive Hz is
25-30
129
Piezo Hz
30-42 90% is 30Hz
130
Frequency kHz
25-42
131
kHz =
1000 hertz or cps (cycles per second)
132
Amplitude lower power =
shorter, less powerful strokes
133
Amplitude higher power =
longer, more powerful strokes
134
What does the lavage do for the handpiece?
cools it and adjustable flow rate
135
Amount of lavage influences
cavitation and microstreaming