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OPP 3 > Exam #3 > Flashcards

Exam #3 Flashcards

1
Q

Somatic dysfunction can occur anywhere in the body at

A

Sympathetics levels
Paraysmpathetic levels
Soma (not autonomic related)

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2
Q

Viscerosomatic reflexes occur at

A

Sympathetics levels

Parasympathetics levels

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3
Q

Facilitated segments ONLY occur at

A

Sympathetics

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4
Q

…. with respiratory assist is CONTRAINDICATED in a patient with Asthmatic Flare Up or COPD exacerbation

A

Thoracic Pump

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5
Q

Diaphragm neurological

A

neurological: phrenic nerve (C3, C4, C5)

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6
Q

Where the thoracoabdominal diaphragm attaches

A

lower ribs, thoraco-lumbar junction, T10-L3 are examples

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7
Q

splenic rupture pain referral

A

shoulder

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8
Q

Young males should not get recurrent urinary tract infections: must do

A

imaging studies of the uro-genital anatomy

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9
Q

Great for treating otitis media, fluid in the ear, Eustachian tube somatic dysfunction

A

Galbreath Technique

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10
Q

high-pitched ringing in the ear

A

Internal rotation of the temporal bone

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11
Q

perception of a low-pitched roar

A

External rotation of the temporal bone

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12
Q

A parallelogram-shaped head in an infant is associated with

A

lateral strain cranial pattern

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13
Q

what can cause a positive psoas test

A

renal lithiasis

appendicitis

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14
Q

inflamed lymph nodes, this may make the muscle they are touching to become hypertonic such as sternocleidomastoid causing

A

torticollis

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15
Q

If someone has a nocturnal cough at night it could be bc

A

asthma (pulmonary issue) or reflux (GI issue)

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16
Q

…would think more pulmonary issue and maybe albuterol might be answer choice

A

T2

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17
Q

…would think this is more GI and maybe omeprazole might be answer choice

A

T8

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18
Q

could be either pulmonary or GI and you would need more information to get correct answer

A

T5

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19
Q

Treating a facilitated segment would help avoid excessive neurologic impulse through the

A

viscerosomatic reflex arc

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20
Q

Later stages of chronic facilitation is associated with loss of

A

inhibitory neurons

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21
Q

RVU means

A

relative value unit

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22
Q

Lumbar spine will side-bend towards the …. and rotate towards the…

A

side-bend towards the long leg side and rotate towards the short leg side

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23
Q

Most commonly used form of contraction in muscle energy is

A

isometric contraction

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24
Q

Take a history prior to

A

physical examination

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25
Q

Isometric contraction used in muscle energy tenses the … causing a reflex inhibition of the muscle allowing an increase in muscle length

A

Golgi Tendon organs

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26
Q

A heel lift for a leg length difference may help prevent

A

osteoarthritis

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27
Q

Orientation of Superior Facets

A

cervical: BUM
thoracic: BUL
lumbar: BM

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28
Q

Orientation of Inferior Facet

A

cervical: AIL
thoracic: AIM
lumbar: AL

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29
Q

flexion and extension are on a … plane

A

sagital

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30
Q

OA is
AA is
C2-C7 are

A

Type I like
rotation only
Type II like

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31
Q

Rule’s of three

A

T1-3: spinous processes project posteriorly therefore the tip of the spinous process is in the same plane as the transverse process of that vertebra

T4-6: spinous processes project slightly downward, therefore the tip of the spinous process lies in a plane halfway between that vertebra’s transverse processes and the transverse processes of the vertebra below it

T7-9: spinous processes project moderately downward, therefore the tip of the spinous process is in a plane with the transverse process below it

T10 follows rules of T7-9
T11 follows rules of T4-6
T12 follows rules of T1-3

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32
Q

Indirect Technique

A

Dysfunction is taken into position of injury
Uses inherent forces
Uses a compressive, tractional, or torsional component

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33
Q

Direct Technique

A

Uses external forces

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34
Q

Postisometric Relaxation

A

Patient is Instructed to GENTLY Push AWAY From the Barrier

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35
Q

Reciprocal Inhibition

A

Patient is Instructed to GENTLY Push TOWARD the Barrier

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36
Q

pancreatitis and vomiting or myocardial infarction and vomiting

A

viscerovisceral reflex

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37
Q

post ganglionic sympathetic fibers lead to tissue texture changes

A

hypertonicity, moisture, erythema

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38
Q

KNOW sympathetics and parasympathetics
Ganglions
CN foramens

A

…

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39
Q

Sympathetic Supply to Upper Extremity Vasculature

A

T2-T8

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40
Q

Sympathetic Supply to Lower Extremity Vasculature

A

T11 to L2 levels

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41
Q

Thoracic inlet/outlet components

A

Supraclavicular space

1st rib

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42
Q

adrenal glands
anterior
posterior

A

Anterior: 1” lateral and 2” superior to umbilicus ipsilaterally
Posterior: intertransverse spaces of T11 and T12 ipsilaterally midway between spinous and transverse processes

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43
Q

kidney
anterior
posterior

A

Anterior: 1” Lateral and 1” Superior to Umbilicus Ipsilaterally
Posterior: Intertransverse Spaces Midway Between Spines and Transverse Tips of T12-L1

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44
Q

urinary bladder
anterior
posterior

A

Anterior: Umbilical Area (Periumbilical)
Posterior: Intertransverse Spaces Midway Between Spines and Transverse Tips of L1-L2

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45
Q

urethra
anterior
posterior

A

Anterior: Along superior margin of the pubic ramus about 2 cm lateral to the symphysis
Posterior: L3 transverse processes

46
Q

Treatment examples include:

A

Anterior cervical fascia release
Thoracic inlet myofascial release
Pectoral Traction

47
Q

heart sympathetics

A

T1-6 with synapses in upper thoracic and cervical chain ganglia

48
Q

Right- sinoatrial (SA) node and right deep cardiac plexus– predisposes to

A

supraventricular tachyarrhythmias. Sinus tach, A-fib, A-flutter, PACs

49
Q

Left-atrioventricular (AV) node and left deep cardiac plexus- predisposes to

A

ectopic PVCs and V fib and V tach

50
Q

Right vagus-via SA node and hyperactivity predisposes to sinus

A

bradyarrhythmias

51
Q

Left vagus- via AV node where hyperactivity predisposes to

A

AV blocks

52
Q

Vagus nerves have fibers course to them from the

A

C-1 & C-2 nerve roots

53
Q

Sinus Bradyarrhythmia will cause

A

OA, AA (C1), C2 will rotate towards the right

54
Q

1st, 2nd, 3rd degree AV Blocks will cause

A

OA, AA (C1), C2 will rotate towards the left (Left side is AV node)

55
Q

Sinus Tachyarrhythmia, Atrial Fibrillation, Atrial Flutter, Premature Atrial Contractions (PAC) cause

A

Upper thoracic spine (T1-T5) will rotate towards the right (Right side is SA node)

56
Q

V-fib, V-Tach, Premature Ventricular Contractions (PVC) cause

A

Upper thoracic spine (T1-T5) will rotate towards the left (Left side is AV node)

57
Q

occipitomastoid suture is made up of

A

temporal bone

occiput

58
Q

atrial flutter Thoracic vertebrae should be rotated to the

A

right

59
Q

Dry mouth can be caused by (cranial nerve and foramen)

A

Can be caused by Cranial Nerve VII - stylomastoid foramen

Can be caused by Cranial Nerve IX - jugular foramen

60
Q

what treatment position is used for AT1-6

A

flexed

61
Q

ant cervical tender point 7
location
position

A

location: On the clavicular (lateral) attachment of the SCM
position: F STRA

62
Q

Sternocleidomastoid muscle (SCM) refers pain

A

lateral and behind the eye

63
Q

Splenius Capitus muscle refers pain to the

A

vertex of the head

64
Q

CNI

A

Anosmia

Cribiform plate through ethmoid bone

65
Q

CNV

A

Trigeminal Neuralgia/Tic Douloureux

May complain of sudden, severe facial, ear, and/or jaw pain

66
Q

CNVII

A

Exits stylomastoid foramen

Bell’s Palsy

67
Q

CNVIII

A

Labyrinthitis, Tinnitus, Vertigo ** Temporal bone is associated with tinnitus, labyrnthitis, vertigo

68
Q

CNX

A

Exits jugular foramen (formed by occipitomastoid suture)

Can cause Nausea/Vomiting

69
Q

CNXI

A

Exits jugular foramen (formed by occipitomastoid suture)

Can cause Torticollis

70
Q

CNXII

A

Hypoglossal canal

Can cause nursing/latching problems in infants

71
Q

Complaints associated with CN X Impingement

A

Colic – CN X
GERD – CN X
Vomiting – CN X
Asthma – CN X

72
Q

Complaints associated with CN XII Impingement

A

Difficulty nursing/latching

73
Q

Complaints associated with CN VIII Impingement

A

Otitis Media

74
Q

Pump-Handle motion

A

1-5

75
Q

Bucket-Handle motion

A

6-10

76
Q

Caliper motion

A

11-12

77
Q

Exhaled ribs are prominent

A

post

78
Q

Inhaled ribs are prominent

A

ant

79
Q

Anterior Rib Counterstrain Points are associated with

A

Exh

80
Q

Posterior Rib Counterstrain Points are associated with

A

Inh

81
Q

Rib HVLA 2-10

A

Place thenar eminence (fulcrum) on posterior aspect of rib angle

82
Q

goal measure of heal lift

A

4MM

83
Q

Standing Flexion Test positive side

A

PSIS moves more cephalad at the end range of motion

84
Q

“Gold Standard” Test for iliosacral SD

A

Standing Flexion Test

85
Q

Anterior Innominate Rotation muscles used

A

biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus

86
Q

Posterior Innominate Rotation muscles

A

vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, vastus intermedius, and the rectus femoris

87
Q

An inferior pubic shear is treated like an Anterior Innominate rotation with the addition of

A

ABduction

88
Q

A superior pubic shear is treated like a Posterior Innominate rotation with the addition of

A

ABduction

89
Q

Sacral Torsion Rules

A

L5 Side-bends Towards the Oblique Axis

L5 Rotates Opposite of Sacral Rotation

90
Q

Unilateral Sacral Flexion: ME

A

Ask patient to inhale and hold breath, while you push anterior and superior on the ILA

91
Q

Unilateral Sacral Extension: ME

A

Ask the patient to exhale and hold breath, while you push anterior and caudad on the superior sulcus

92
Q

right psoas tightness

A

sideband to right

strains left piriformis

93
Q

Bragard Test

A

Herniated Lumbar Disc (L1-L5, S1)

94
Q

Thomas Test

A

Hip Flexion Contracture (Psoas Muscle Hypertonicity)

95
Q

Babinski Reflex

A

Upper Motor Neuron Pathology

96
Q

Hoover Test

A

Malingerer

97
Q

Sympathetic Innervation

ovaries/testes

A

T10-T11

98
Q

Sympathetic Innervation

fallopian tuve/vagina

A

T11-12

99
Q

Sympathetic Innervation

uterus/cervix

A

T10-L2

100
Q

Parasympathetic Innervation to Uterus, cervix, vagina, clitoris, walls of the urethra

A

S2-S4

101
Q

Direct MFR (Myofascial release) of pelvic diaphragm form

A

With thumbs medial to the tuberosities gently apply cephalad pressure while maintaining contact with tuberosities at all times

102
Q

Direct MFR (Myofascial release) of pelvic diaphragm is good for

A

Great for lymphatics/addressing hypertonic pelvic floor musculature

103
Q

Absolute contraindications to OMT during pregnancy

A

Abruptio placenta
Ectopic pregnancy
Placenta previa
Undiagnosed vaginal bleeding

104
Q

Occipital Condylar Compression

A

The “most important” or most clinically significant somatic dysfunction which should be addressed in all newborns is occipital condylar compression.

105
Q

….is useful in treating condylar compression.

A

OA decompression

106
Q

…. plays a role in erectile dysfunction

A

S2 – 4

107
Q

Decreased Ureteral Peristalsis may cause

A

Ureteral Spasm (Ureterospasm)

108
Q

…is the maximum number of regions you can treat with OMT in a single encounter

A

9-10

109
Q

Pump-handle ribs position

A

flex head and neck

110
Q

Bucket-handle ribs position

A

Flex the patient’s head and neck and side-bend the patient toward dysfunctional rib

111
Q

… muscles attach to rib 1

A

Anterior and middle scalene

112
Q

Ejaculation symp level

A

T12 – L2

OPP 3 (3 decks)

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