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Behavioral Neuroscience > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

steady internal balance or equilibrium

A

homeostasis

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2
Q

activates and directs behavior toward a goal

A

motivation

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3
Q

how does homeostasis relate to motivated behavior

A

drive states appear in response to physiological needs, disappear when needs are met

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4
Q

drive =

A

internal state of tension

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5
Q

homeothermic animals

A

cold blooded

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6
Q

temperature regulation: homeothermic animals

A

cannot regulate body temperature internally, adjust behaviorally
(amphibians, reptiles, fish)

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7
Q

endothermic animals

A

warm blooded

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8
Q

temperature regulation: endothermic animals

A

use internal metabolic activity to maintain nearly constant body temperature (mammals and birds)

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9
Q

heat loss influenced by

A

surface-to-volume ratio

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10
Q

small animals have higher ratio –>

A

more heat loss

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11
Q

endothermic responses to lower temperatures

A
  • shiver; blood vessels constrict

- thyroid hormone increases to boost metabolic rate (social huddling)

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12
Q

endothermic responses to higher temperatures

A
  • perspiration, licking, panting

- blood vessels dilate near skin surface

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13
Q

brain mechanisms for temperature:

structural hierarchy

A

from thermoreceptors, to spinal cord, through the brainstem, to the hypothalamus

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14
Q

Preoptic area (POA) of anterior hypothalamus

A

detects and responds to warmer temperatures

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15
Q

Posterior hypothalamus

A

detects and responds to cooler temperatures

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16
Q

preoptic area of the hypothalamus contains

A

warm sensitive (30%), cold sensitive (5%) and other neurons unrelated to temperature (65%)

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17
Q

detects and responds to high temperatures

A

preoptic area of the hypothalamus

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18
Q

coordinates input from thermoreceptors w behavioral responses to dissipate heat (e.g. panting, sweating)

A

preoptic area of the hypothalamus

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19
Q

deviations in human core temperature

A
  • hot flashes in menopause
  • fevers
  • hypothermia
  • hyperthermia
  • heat stroke
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20
Q
  • too much heat
  • too warm can’t cool down
  • failure of compensatory mechanisms
  • drugs (amphetamines, cocaine, ecstasy, and some antidepressants -serotonin syndrome-)
A

hyperthermia

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21
Q
  • strenuous activity or heavy clothing in hot environments
  • effects elderly, soldiers in desert environment, and athletes
  • when stop sweating = red flag
A

heat stroke

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22
Q

-low core temperature. below 95; fatal below 87.8 degrees Fahrenheit

A

hypothermia

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23
Q

controlled increases in the core temperature set point during an illness

A

how fevers work

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24
Q

adaptive response. body’s way of identifying and fighting off illness

A

fever

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25
Q

reduces activity of warm cells. and therefore increases activity of cold cells. thermal set point is raised.

A

PGE2

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26
Q

_______ reset the temperature set point

A

pyrogens

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27
Q

in response to reduced inhibition from the warm-sensitive neurons, cold-sensitive cells increases their output, which results in

A

a higher temperature set point

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28
Q

thirst: regulating the body’s fluid levels

A

-maintaining appropriate fluid levels is essential to survival

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29
Q

_________ are molecules that have been dissolved in a fluid

A

solutes

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30
Q

a __________ is the fluid that contains the solutes

A

solution

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31
Q

a _______________ is when solutes break into ions when dissolved (Na+, K+, Ca++, Cl-, etc.)

A

electrolyte

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32
Q

water + electrolytes =

A

hydration

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33
Q

body is _____% water

A

70%

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34
Q

fluids of the body: intracellular fluid

A

67%

higher concentrations of K+

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35
Q

fluids of the body: extracellular fluid

A

33%

higher concentrations of Na+ and Cl-

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36
Q

fluids of the body: extracellular fluid –>

blood supply

A

7%

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37
Q

fluids of the body: extracellular fluid –> cerebrospinal fluid

A

<1%

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38
Q

fluids of the body: extracellular fluid –> interstitial fluid

A

26%

surrounds cells

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39
Q

osmosis

A

diffusion of water

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40
Q

________ solutions have equal concentrations of solutes [Goal]

A

isotonic

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41
Q

_________ solutions have a lower concentration of solutes

cell might swell

A

hypotonic

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42
Q

_________ solutions have a higher concentration of solutes

cell might shrink. water is going to leave the cell

A

hypertonic

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43
Q

osmosis causes water to

A

move into/out of cells

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44
Q

types of thirst:

  • consumption of liquids while eating
  • facilitates chewing and digestion
A

prandial thirst

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45
Q

types of thirst:

  • response to low fluid level in body’s cells due to diffusion
  • excessively high salt or sugar intake
A

osmotic thirst

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46
Q

types of thirst:

  • response to low blood volume bc of a loss of extracellular water
  • sweating, vomiting, diarrhea, blood loss
A

hypovolemic thirst

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47
Q

Osmotic thirst mechanisms

A

deficit detected by OVLT

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48
Q

OVLT

A
  • near 3rd ventricle, weak BBB
  • many osmoreceptors
  • lesion reduces drinking in response tp salty solution
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49
Q

Osmotic thirst mechanisms: OVLT communicates deficit to

A

median preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus

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50
Q

median preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus —>

A

zona incerta –> drinking initiated

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51
Q

hypovolemic thirst mechanisms

A

reduced blood pressure detected by veins near atrium of heart

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52
Q

hypovolemic thirst mechanisms: Path 1:

A

atrium of heart –> vagus nerve –> nucleus of the solitary (NTS) in medulla –> median preoptic area of hypothalamus –> zona incerta –> drinking initiated

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53
Q

hypovolemic thirst mechanisms: Path 2:

A

kidneys –> release hormone renin –> increase production of angeiotensin II to conserve fluid –> circulation of angiotensin II crosses BBB at sub-fornical organ (SFO) –> median preoptic nucleus and zona incerta initiate drinking

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54
Q

roles of the kidneys

A
  • excrete excess water and sodium
  • filter blood of impurities using nephrons
  • send impurities to bladder for excretion
  • return filtered blood to circulation
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55
Q

daily fluid loss and intake in humans

A

input = output
consume certain amount of fluid and excrete certain amount of fluid
balance

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56
Q

angiotensin II

A

tighten/constrict blood pressure

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57
Q

decrease urine production

A

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) aka vasopressin

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58
Q

antidiuretic hormone

A
  • save the fluid

- thought to be found in cigarettes

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59
Q

aldosterone

A

save the sodium

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60
Q

adrenal glands secrete

A

aldosterone

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61
Q

kidneys secrete renin, which leads to increased

A

angiotensin II production

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62
Q

the sensation of thirst

A

occurs as a result of osmotic (drops in the intracellular fluid volume) and hypovolemic (drops in blood volume) thirst

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63
Q

detecting osmotic thirst

A
  • osmoreceptors

- OVLT

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64
Q

detecting hypovolemic thirst

A
  • baroreceptors measure blood pressure

- receptors in the heart and kidneys

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65
Q

hormones and thirst: antidiuretic hormone or vasopressin

A
  • promotes retention of fluid
  • signals kidneys to reduce urine production and stimulate the release if renin, which converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin II
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66
Q

stimulation of _________ ________ stimulates drinking

A

zona incerta

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67
Q

initiation of drinking

A

begins when angiotensin II acts on subfornical organ (SFO). nucleus of the solitary tract gets input from baro- and osmoreceptors. NST and SFO communicates w/ median preoptic nucleus

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68
Q

a dangerous condition in which sodium levels drop to 10% or more below normal

A

hyponatremia

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69
Q

hyponatremia

A
  • extreme endurance activities
  • low extracellular fluid and low sodium
  • ADH continuously produced = water retention and further reduction in sodium concentration
  • causes hypovolemic thirst (excessive water consumption), cells swell, further exaggerating hyponatremia
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70
Q

symptoms of severe hyponatremia

A
  • nausea and vomiting
  • headache
  • lethargy
  • seizures
  • pulmonary edema
  • obtundation
  • coma
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71
Q

symptoms of mild hyponatremia

A
  • fatigue
  • nausea
  • dizziness
  • gait disturbances
  • forgetfulness
  • muscle cramps
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72
Q

do sports drinks prevent hyponatremia?

A

no. better than water, but do not completely prevent

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73
Q

need for energy is constant, feeding is …

A

intermittent

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74
Q

signals that encourage food consumption

A

hunger/appetite

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75
Q

signals that end food consumption

A

satiety

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76
Q

why do we eat?

A
  • energy and specific nutrients needed by our bodies
  • pleasure
  • complex cultural and psychological factors
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77
Q

herbivores

A

plant eaters

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78
Q

carnivores

A

meat eaters

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79
Q

omnivores

A

obtain nutrients from both plants and animals

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80
Q

food preferences

A

learned in utero

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81
Q

factors in selecting food

A
  • taste
  • sensory-specific satiety
  • learned taste aversion
  • learned taste preference
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82
Q

association with illness or poor nutrient

A

learned taste aversion

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83
Q

preference for flavor of food that contains necessary nutrient

A

learned taste preference

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84
Q

signals that start a meal

A
  • stomach contractions
  • low available glucose
  • low lipids
  • high levels of peptides ghrelin and orexins
  • activity in lateral hypothalamus
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85
Q

low lipids:

leptin released by

A

adipose cells

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86
Q

low lipids:

sensed by

A

arcuate nucleus of the hypothalamus

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87
Q

low available glucose:

A

liver receptors –> nucleus of solitary tract (brainstem)

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88
Q

a peptide synthesized in the pancreas and stomach that is released during fasting and stimulates eating behavior

A

ghrelin

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89
Q

a peptide produced in the lateral hypothalamus that stimulates hunger

A

orexin (aka hypocretin)

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90
Q

central pathways of hunger

A

glucose deficit sensed by liver –> vagus nerve –> NST in medulla –> arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus –> release of neuropeptide Y and agouti related protein in bloodstream –> increased eating and reduce metabolism

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91
Q

the process of digestion

A

foods are broken down into usable chemicals by the digestive tract

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92
Q

carbohydrates break down into

A

glucose

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93
Q

proteins break down into

A

amino acids

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94
Q

lipid/fat breaks down into

A

fatty acids and glycerol

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95
Q

lipid fat digestion

A
  • used for immediate energy
  • stored by adipose tissue (fat cells)
  • cause release of hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) which is a satiety signal
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96
Q

protein digestion

A
  • proteins are broken down into amino acids

- used by muscles and other tissues for growth and protein synthesis

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97
Q

glucose digestion (steps)

A
  • glucose
  • insulin
  • glycogen
  • glucagon
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98
Q
  • a type of simple sugar found in foods

- immediate energy use

A

glucose

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99
Q
  • a pancreatic hormone that assists in moving glucose from the blood supply into body cells
  • helps store glucose as glycogen
A

insulin

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100
Q
  • a complex carbohydrate used to store energy in the liver

- long-term energy storage

A

glycogen

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101
Q
  • a pancreatic hormone that converts glycogen into glucose

- long-term storage into immediate energy use

A

glucagon

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102
Q
  • disorder of insulin production

- diagnosed in childhood or early adulthood

A

type 1 diabetes mellitus

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103
Q
  • disorder of insulin recognition by cells (body stops responding to insulin)
  • adult onset
  • obesity is a major risk factor
A

type 2 diabetes mellitus

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104
Q

assessing satiety

A

stomach fullness, intestines, CCK

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105
Q

brain mechanisms for satiety

A
  • ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH)
  • paraventricular nucleus (PVN)
  • nucleus of the solitary tract (NST)
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106
Q

neurochemicals and satiety

A
  • leptin found in blood supply when body fat levels high

- high leptin levels stimulate alphaMSH and CART to inhibit feeding

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107
Q

major hypothalamic nuclei involved in hunger

A
  • lateral hypothalamus
  • paraventricular nucleus
  • arcuate nucleus
  • ventromedial hypothalamus
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108
Q

participates in hunger (hunger center)

A

lateral hypothalamus

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109
Q

involved in the regulation of hunger, metabolic processes (body temp, fat storage, cell energy use)

A

paraventricular nucleus

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110
Q

involved in initiating feeding behaviors

A

arcuate nucleus

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111
Q

participates in satiety

A

ventromedial hypothalamus

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112
Q
  • stimulate: stops eating (satiety)

- lesion: cannot stop eating, obesity/higher set point, picky eating habits

A

ventromedial hypothalamus

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113
Q
  • stimulate: produces immediate eating behavior

- lesion: stops eating, starvation unless force fed

A

lateral hypothalamus

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114
Q

before eating _______ ghrelin, low leptin

A

high

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115
Q

after eating _________ leptin, low ghrelin

A

high

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116
Q

hormone made by adipose cells. chemical to stop eating

A

leptin

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117
Q

contributions to obesity

A
  • stress and high fat diet increase release of NPY and appetite
  • genetics and set points (how well thyroid is functioning)
  • type of bacteria in gut
  • internal vs external food cues
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118
Q

the French paradox: low heart disease, low obesity despite very fatty diet. why>

A
  • cultural differences (exercise, portion sizes)
  • genetic differences
  • wine
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119
Q

treating obesity

A
  • lifestyle changes
  • weight loss diets reduce calories consumed
  • medications
  • surgical interventions
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120
Q
  • very low body weight

- distorted body image

A

anorexia nervosa

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121
Q

cyclical pattern of binge eating and purging

A

bulimia nervosa

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122
Q

binge-eating without compensatory purging

A

binge-eating disorder

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123
Q

causes for disordered eating

A
  • media / social perspectives on beauty
  • genetic factors may influence personality traits that many increase vulnerability to eating disorders
  • once established, biological factors help to maintain the eating disorder
  • addictive processes
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124
Q

treatments for disordered eating:

no medication effective in alleviating

A

anorexia

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125
Q

treatments for disordered eating:

A
  • emergency hospitalization
  • antidepressants
  • cognitive behavioral therapy
  • nutritional counseling
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126
Q

biological characteristics of being male or female

A

sex

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127
Q

learned/sociocultural characteristics of being masculine or feminine

A

gender

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128
Q

humans have ___ chromosomes. ___ pair = sex chromosomes.

A

46

23rd

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129
Q

genetic sex determined at

A

fertilization

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130
Q

XX

A

female

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131
Q

XY

A

male

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132
Q

sex determination depends on

A

whether the sperm that fertilizes the egg carries an X or Y sex chromosome

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133
Q

sex monosomies:

A 
45Xo (turner syndrome)
or 45Yo (v rare)
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134
Q

sex polysomies

A

47XXX, 47XXY (Klinefelter Syndrome), 47XYY (“suprmale”)

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135
Q

less chromosomes than typical =

A

monosomies

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136
Q
  • phenotypic female
  • abnormal growth patters, short stature, lack prominent female secondary sex characteristics
  • sterile
  • may have slight mental retardation
  • webbing of skin of the neck
A

turner syndrome (45Xo)

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137
Q
  • phenotypic male
  • hypogonadism (small testes), infertile
  • tall stature, sine female secondary sex characteristics such as wide hips and breast growth
  • often requires testosterone treatment at puberty for masculine traits
A

Klinefelter Syndrome (47 XXY)

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138
Q
  • genetic and phenotypic male
  • normal sexual development. MAY very have slightly reduced fertility
  • may have increased risk for acne, learning disabilities
  • minor risk factor for impulsive, antisocial, and criminal misbehavior
A

“Supermale” 47XYY

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139
Q

internal sex organs

A

gonads

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140
Q

female gonads (internal sex organs)

A

ovaries

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141
Q

male gonads (internal sex organs)

A

testes

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142
Q

functions of gonads

A
  1. to produce eggs or sperm (gametes)

2. to secrete hormones

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143
Q

gametes =

A

reproductive cells

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144
Q

differentiation of male gonads

A

SRY gene –> testis-determining factor protein –> primordial gonads develop into testes

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145
Q

without SRY –>

A

gonads become ovaries

146
Q

male or female is default?

A

female

147
Q

differentiation of the internal organs:

wolffian system

A

develops into seminal vesicles, vas deferens, prostate

148
Q

differentiation of the internal organs:

mullerian system

A

develops into uterus, upper vagina, and fallopian tubes

149
Q

all embryos have precursors to ______ and ______ internal organs

A

male and female

150
Q

differentiation of the internal organs:

during 3rd month, male’s testes (via SRY gene) secrete these 2 hormones

A
  • testosterone

- anti-mullerian hormone

151
Q

testosterone (a type of androgen) –>

A

masculinizing effect –> promotes development of wolffian system

152
Q

anti-mullerian hormone –>

A

defeminizing effect –> prevents mullerian system from developing

153
Q

ovaries not active during fetal development. true or false?

A

true

154
Q

mullerian system develops in absence of

A

“male” hormones

155
Q

type of steroid hormone that develops and maintains typically masculine characteristics or sexual interest

A

androgen

156
Q

androgens are present in

A

both males and females (found earlier and in higher quantities in males)

157
Q

most well known androgen

A

testosterone

158
Q

androgens = precursor for

A

estrogen

159
Q
  • genetic males (XY), but phenotypic females w/ female gender identities
  • no viable reproductive system. infertile
  • abnormal androgen receptors disrupt normal development of wolffian system, though testosterone and anti-mullerian hormone are released in normal manner
  • anti-mullerian hormone prevents development of (female) mullerian system
A

androgen insensitivity syndrome 46XY

160
Q

development of external genitalia: females

A
  • labia, clitoris, and outer vagina

- no hormonal activity required for development

161
Q

development of external genitalia: males

A
  • scrotum and testes

- 5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone needed for development of male genitalia; loss results in ambiguous external genitalia

162
Q

responsible for masculinization of male genitalia

A

5-alpha-dihydrotestosterone

163
Q

adrenal glands release elevated levels of androgens

A

congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH)

164
Q

congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) in males

A

few observable effects

165
Q

congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) in females

A

exposed to excessive androgen; born w ambiguous external genitalia

166
Q

children begin to prefer sex-typed toys between ages of __ and __ months

A

12 and 18 months

167
Q

indirect markers/correlates of prenatal androgen exposure

A
  • length of fingers
  • optoacoustic emissions (projections of sound)
  • birth order
168
Q

indirect markers have been correlated with

A

sexual orientation (correlation does not = causation tho)

169
Q

Relationships between Prenatal Hormones and Finger Digit Ratios:

A

-androgen and estrogen receptors are present on both digits 2 and 4, but more on digit 4

170
Q

Otoacoustic emissions differ between sexes

A
  • females produce a higher number of spontaneous optoacoustic emissions (SOAEs) than males
  • females produce louder click-evoked OAEs than males
  • OAEs presumably indicate influence of prenatal testosterone levels
171
Q

hormones and sexual developments: organizational effects

A
  • hormonal effects on the differentiation and development of sex organs, brain, and behavior in early development
  • long-term, irreversible
  • associated w critical or sensitive period
172
Q

hormones and sexual developments: activational effects

A
  • effect of a hormone that occurs in the fully developed organism, beginning at time of puberty
  • short-term, reversible (happening throughout life span)
173
Q

sexual development at puberty

A

-sexual maturation and the development of secondary sex characteristics

174
Q

sexual development at puberty process

A

hypothalamus releases GnRH to pituitary gland –> pituitary gland releases gonadotropins: LH and FSH –> secretion of sex hormones from the gonads

175
Q

secondary sex characteristics: in males, testosterone stimulates

A
  • muscular development
  • maturation of external genitalia
  • facial and body hair
  • enlargement of larynx (deeper voice)
  • hairline on the head (baldness)
176
Q

secondary sex characteristics: in females, estradiol stimulates

A
  • breast growth
  • maturation of external genitalia and uterus
  • changes in deposition of body fat
  • menstrual cycle
177
Q

human menstrual cycle

A
  • pituitary increases FSH
  • follicles develop - ovum
  • estrogen stimulates LH release
  • LH initiates ovulation
  • estradiol - uterine wall thickening
  • hormonal decrease
  • menstruation
178
Q

physical and psychological symptoms immediately prior to the onset of menstruation

A

premenstrual syndrome (PMS)

179
Q

premenstrual mood changes are unusually severe, affecting daily

A

premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)

180
Q

new mothers experience feelings of depression due to rapidly changing hormonal environment

A

postpartum depression (and anxiety and psychosis)

181
Q

all sex hormones come from _____________

A

cholesterol

182
Q

sex hormone synthesis steps

A
  1. cholesterol –> progesterone
  2. progesterone –> testosterone (androgen)
  3. aromatization necessary to form estradiol
  4. estradiol –> estrogens
183
Q

males and females BOTH produce androgens and estrogens just in varying amounts. True or false?

A

true

184
Q

sex differences are mediated by:

A
  • continued expression of genes on X and Y chromosomes
  • hormone effects
  • epigenetics
  • societal and cultural influences
185
Q

in the presence of _________ and ___________, and in the absence of androgens, the brain develops in the female pattern

A

estradiol and progesterone

186
Q

In males, ____________ promotes male-typical behavior, while __________ suppresses female-typical behavior

A

testosterone and estradiol

187
Q

______________ masculinizes the brains of many animals

A

aromatization

188
Q

___________ is transformed into estradiol producing masculinization

A

testosterone

189
Q

alpha fetoprotein binds _________ and prevents maternal estradiol from masculinizing the female brain

A

estrogen

190
Q

____________ play a greater role in the masculinization of the human brain

A

androgens

191
Q

Sex differences in the brain:

sexually dimorphic structures

A
  • sexually dimorphic nucleus of the preoptic area (rat)

- interstitial nuclei of the anterior hypothalamus (human)

192
Q

hormonal effects on cognitive behavior:

women > men at

A

-verbal tasks

related to higher levels of estrogen

193
Q

hormonal effects on cognitive behavior:

men > women at

A

-spatial tasks

related to higher levels of androgens

194
Q

person’s self concept as male or female

A

gender identity

195
Q

an individual’s gender identity is inconsistent w his or her biological sex

A

transsexuality

196
Q

brain structure and sexual orientation

A

INAH-3 smaller among women and homosexual men than among heterosexual men

197
Q

activational effects of human sex hormones:

women

A
  • ovarian hormones do not control women’s sex drive, but may influence sexual interest
  • testosterone activates sexual behavior
  • estrogen enhances sex drive during peak fertile days, while progesterone dulls sex drive
198
Q

activational effects of human sex hormones:

men

A

-testosterone activates sexual behavior

199
Q

testosterone regulates sex drive in

A

both men and women

200
Q

testosterone is _______in older men, those in long term relationships, and following birth of baby

A

lower

201
Q

testosterone increases in anticipation of competition, further increase in winners. true or false?

A

true

202
Q

sex hormones and female behavior:

sexual interest

A
  • highest interest around ovulation
  • testosterone has greatest impact on women’s sexuality
  • preferences for masculinity vary based on fertility cycle, contraception
203
Q

Attraction: the importance of symmetry

A

-degree of similarity of one side of face or body to the other

204
Q

Attraction: the beauty of fertility and a good immune system

A
  • preference for younger features on female
  • preference for masculine men for casual sexual encounter, less masculine men for long term partner
  • smell preference for an immune system different from our own
205
Q

true or false: males habituate more to sexually arousing stimuli than females

A

true

206
Q

the propensity of an animal that appears sexually satiated to resume sexual activity when provided w/ a novel partner

A

Coolidge Effect

207
Q

only ~5% of all mammals are monogamous. true or false?

A

true

208
Q
  • neurohormone secreted during child birth, lactation; promotes pair-bonding
  • expressed more by females
  • released during orgasm by both sexes
A

oxytocin

209
Q
  • neurohormone important for social behavior, sexual motivation, and pair-bonding
  • expressed more by males
A

vasopressin

210
Q

behaviors that occur at regular intervals in response to internal, biological clocks

A

biological rhythms

211
Q

true or false: multiple rhythms can be expressed within a single system

A

true

212
Q

any rhythmic change that continues at close to a 24 hour cycle in the absence of 24 hour cues

  • body temp
  • cortisol secretion
  • activity levels
  • sleep and wakefulness
A

circadian rhythm

213
Q

body temp lowest at ______ highest at ________

A

night

midday

214
Q

when is cortisol secretion highest release?

A

early morning

215
Q

active during the day (light period)

A

diurnal

216
Q

active during the night (dark period)

A

nocturnal

217
Q

immune function most suppressed in AM or PM?

A

AM

218
Q

immune function most suppressed in AM

A

lowest sympathetic nervous system activity; highest cortisol

219
Q

time of immune function peak

A

PM

220
Q

time of immune function peak in PM

A

healthy individuals have peak physical performance

221
Q

environmental cues for activity

A

entrainment

zeitgeber

222
Q

the process of resetting the biological clock

A

entrainment

223
Q

(‘time giver’)

external cue that synchronizes or helps entrain (determine or modify) an organism’s internal clock

A

zeitgeber

224
Q

neural basis of the biological clock (steps)

A

retinohypothalamic pathway –> suprachaismic nucleus (SCN) of hypothalamus –> pineal gland

225
Q
  • non-image receptor cells use melanopsin

- carries light info

A

Retinohypothalamic Pathway

226
Q

internal pacemaker

A

SCN

227
Q

releases melatonin in dark

A

pineal gland

228
Q

In mammals, light information goes from the eye to the SCN via the retinohypothalamic pathway
true or false?

A

true

229
Q

Amphibians and birds have translucent skulls & photoreceptors in the brain and pineal gland
true or false?

A

true

230
Q

The Retinohypothalamic Pathway

A
  • the RHT consists of retinal ganglion cells that project to the SCN
  • these non-image forming (NIF) ganglion cells do not rely on rods and cones
  • most of these retinal ganglion cells contain the photopigment melanopsin (blue light)
231
Q

oscillations of protein production and degradation =

A

“ticking” of internal clock

232
Q

_______ may trigger protein fluctuations

A

light

233
Q

circadian rhythm involves a ____________ _______ in which proteins are made, combined, and inhibited in predictable patterns

A

feedback loop

234
Q

per =

A

period

235
Q

tim =

A

timeless

236
Q

clock =

A

circadian locomotor output cycles kaput

237
Q

clock promotes production of

A

per and tim proteins

238
Q

per and tim inhibit

A

clock protein

239
Q

low per and tim =

A

increased clock activity, which triggers production of per and tim

240
Q

high per and tim =

A

inhibited clock activity, which decreases production of per and tim

241
Q

no environmental cues (e.g., light)

approx. 25 hour rhythm; sleep onset slightly later each day

A

free running

242
Q
  • Mammalian master biological clock, pacemaker of circadian rhythms
  • Located above the optic chiasm in hypothalamus
  • ALWAYS more active during light period
  • Rhythmic in the absence of inputs/outputs (intrinsic rhythmicity)
A

suprachiasmic nucleus of the hypothalamus

243
Q

two separate groups of circadian neurons in SCN

A
  • M cells

- E cells

244
Q

control morning activity and need light for entrainment

A

M-cells

245
Q

control evening activity and need darkness for entrainment

A

E-cells

246
Q

is the hormone of darkness; released by pineal gland

as per and tim drop, this increases

A

melatonin

247
Q

temperature and alertness are positively correlated. true or false?

A

true

248
Q

is released during stage 3 and 4 deep sleep by pituitary gland

A

growth hormone

249
Q

release is highest in morning and drops during the day

A

cortisol

250
Q

important for energy. also a stress hormone

A

cortisol

251
Q

_______ is the hormonal signal that entrains physiological systems to the “correct” circadian rhythm

A

melatonin

252
Q

disruption of circadian rhythms, and melatonin signaling, by unnatural zeitgebers can lead to sleep disorders. true or false?

A

true

253
Q
  • fatigue, irritability, and sleepiness - result from a conflict between internal clock and external zeitgebers
  • adjustment easier when traveling east to west - go to bed later but can also sleep in later
A

jet lag

254
Q

travel easier going from

A

east to west

255
Q

shift in activity in response to a synchronizing stimulus (e.g., light/dark)

A

phase shift

256
Q

_______ ________ is a phase-advance, analogous to eastward travel (lose an hour of sleep)

A

spring forward

257
Q

______ ______ is a phase delay, analogous to westward travel

A

fall back

258
Q

circadian disruption: light at night linked to

A
  • increased cancer risk

- obesity in animal models

259
Q
  • An endogenous circannual clock, separate from the SCN but location unknown, runs at approximately 365 days
  • Melatonin signal entrains circannual clock
  • Humans: equatorial animals thus circadian rhythms generally dominate over circannual rhythms
A

seasonal rhythms

260
Q

a type of depression that results from insufficient amounts of daylight during winter months

A

SAD

261
Q

neurochemical causes of SAD

A
  • overproduction of melatonin

- lower levels of serotonin, excessive reuptake

262
Q

SAD treatments

A
  • phototherapy

- antidepressants (SSRI)

263
Q

advantages and functions of sleep (3)

A
  • keeps us safe
  • restores our bodies
  • memories are consolidated during sleep
264
Q

how sleep keeps us safe

A

predation risk correlates w sleep patterns

265
Q

how sleep restores our bodies

A
  • growth hormone (GH)
  • repair of free radical-induced damage
  • reduced energy expenditure
266
Q

how memories are consolidated during sleep

A
  • learning during waking strengthens connections

- memory processes reorganized during sleep

267
Q

scientific research methods to study sleep (3)

A
  • EEG
  • EMG
  • EOG
268
Q

electrodes on scalp to record gross activity of brain. synchronized and desynchronized activity.

A

electroencephalogram (EEG)

269
Q

electrodes on muscles to record movement

A

electromyogram (EMG)

270
Q

electrodes on eyelids to detect eye movements

A

electooculogram (EOG)

271
Q

both waking and sleep are active processes and involve …

A

reciprocal circuits of excitation and inhibition

272
Q
  • independent action of many neurons
  • correlated w alertness
  • higher EEG frequencies (beta, gamma)
  • more awake/alert. dominant frequency.
A

desynchronous brain activity

273
Q
  • neurons are firing more in unison
  • characterizes deep stages of sleep
  • lower EEG frequencies (delta, theta)
A

synchronous brain activity

274
Q

brain waves from fastest to slowest

A
  • gamma
  • beta
  • alpha
  • theta
  • delta
275
Q

delta

A

1-4 Hz

deep sleep

276
Q

theta

A

4-8 Hz

creative inspiration, learning/memory, sleep

277
Q

alpha

A

8-12 Hz

relaxed wakefulness. little attention or concentration. (bored or daydreaming)

278
Q

beta

A

13-30 Hz

alert wakefulness. active thinking and attention (would have this during an exam for example)

279
Q

gamma

A

30-100+ Hz

alert wakefulness. sensory processing.

280
Q

the EEG during wakefulness

A
  • alternation between beta (awake, alert) and alpha (awake, relaxed)
  • ultradian cycles ~90 mins
  • high frequency gamma band activity during sensory input
281
Q
  • similar to awake EEG, increasing theta
  • heart rate and muscle tension decrease
  • hypnic myolclonia (jerk)
A

stage 1 of sleep

282
Q
  • sleep spindles. onset of stage
  • k-complexes
  • roughly 40-60% of sleep is in this stage
  • fairly light sleep
A

stage 2 of sleep

283
Q

Stage 2 EEG: K Complexes and Sleep Spindles

both are generated by _________ and may reflect brain’s attempts to monitor external environment while maintaining sleep

A

thalamus

284
Q

hypothesized functions of K-complexes and sleep spindles

A
  • suppressing cortical arousal to non-dangerous external stimuli
  • aiding in sleep based memory-consolidation
285
Q
  • appearance of delta waves: large, v slow waves
  • parasympathetic ANS becomes more active (slower breathing)
  • growth hormone released
A

stage 3 of sleep

286
Q
  • delta waves are present about half the time
  • deepest level of sleep
  • growth hormone released
A

stage 4 of sleep

287
Q

slow wave sleep. deep stages. need these stages to really feel rested

A

stages 3 and 4

288
Q
  • active EEG w small amplitude, high-frequency waves (beta), like an awake person
  • muscles are relaxed (inactivated)
  • sympathetic ANS (breathing and heart rate faster)
  • genital engorgement
  • paradoxical sleep
A

REM sleep

289
Q

brain activity, but paralyzed from neck down during REM sleep

A

paradoxical sleep

290
Q

a typical night of sleep

A
  • avg adult sleep time ranges from 7-8 hrs
  • 45-50% total is stage 2 sleep, 20% is REM sleep
  • cycles last 90-110 mins, but cycles early in the night have more stage 3 and 4 SWS, and later cycles have more REM sleep
291
Q

how much sleep to newborns need?

A

about 16 hours

292
Q

how much sleep do avg adults need?

A

about 7-10 hours

293
Q

how much sleep does avg college student need?

A

about 9 hours, but gets about 6

294
Q

sleep deprivation can be either

A

acute or chronic

295
Q

minimal sleep deprivation leads to

A

irritability, poor concentration

296
Q

moderate sleep deprivation leads to

A

depression, difficulty learning

297
Q

severe sleep deprivation leads to

A

brief visual hallucinations, adverse health outcomes

298
Q

the control of wakefulness:

reticular formation

A
  • helps maintain desynchronized activity in cerebral cortex

- when inactive, cortical neuronal activity becomes synchronized

299
Q

the control of wakefulness:

locus coeruleus and anterior raphe nuclei

A
  • releases norepinephrine (LC) and serotonin (ARN)
  • both areas have diverse and rich projections to many brain areas
  • most active in alert states; silent during REM
300
Q

activity in the default mode network (DMN) when

A

task negative (unfocused), daydreaming, mind wandering

301
Q

Initiation and control of NREM sleep

A
  • preoptic area of hypothalamus

- LC and RN

302
Q

Initiation and control of NREM sleep: preoptic area of hypothalamus

A
  • stimulation inhibits wakefulness circuits (=more sleepy)

- NREM-on cells

303
Q

Initiation and control of NREM sleep: LC and RN

A

-norepinephrine and serotonin release decreases, preparing brain for REM sleep

304
Q

REM-on area

A
  • reticular formation in rostral pons

- responsible for rapid eye movement and muscle paralysis

305
Q

REM-off areas

A
  • LC and RN
  • decrease activity before REM sleep and did-inhibits the pons
  • after about 30mins of REM, the LC and RN reactivate, inhibiting pons leading to wakefulness or more NREM sleep
306
Q

biochemistry of wakefulness and sleep: acetylcholine and glutamate

A

high during wakefulness and REM

307
Q

biochemistry of wakefulness and sleep: histamine

A
  • high during wakefulness, low during sleep

- lower during REM and NREM

308
Q

biochemistry of wakefulness and sleep: norepinephrine and serotonin

A
  • high during wakefulness
  • lower during NREM
  • no activity during REM
309
Q

biochemistry of wakefulness and sleep: adenosine

A
  • builds up during wakefulness
  • gradually drops during sleep
  • caffeine blocks adenosine receptors
310
Q

biochemistry of wakefulness and sleep: melatonin

A
  • onset of dark cycle

- surge before “opening of sleep gate”

311
Q

dreaming behavior occurs during which types of sleep?

A

both REM and NREM

312
Q

dreams in REM sleep

A
  • dreams are length, complicated, vivid, and storylike
  • only seen in birds and mammals
  • brain development
  • REM rebound
313
Q

NREM dreams

A

(usually stage 3 or 4) are short episodes characterized by logical single images and a relative lack of emotion

314
Q

possible functions of dreams:

evolutionary model

A

stimulating threatening events so we can cope w them in real life

315
Q

possible functions of dreams:

neural network model

A

activation synthesis

316
Q

possible functions of dreams:

memory model

A

reorganizing and consolidating memories, integrating new experiences with established memories

317
Q

______ _________ is correlated w better learning and long-term memory retention

A

REM sleep

318
Q

REM deprivation leads to irritability, poor concentration and learning. true or false?

A

true

319
Q

REM rebound suggests REM sleep plays a critical role in normal adult brain. true or false?

A

true

320
Q

abnormality in the amount, quality or timing of sleep

  • insomnia
  • narcolepsy
  • hypersomnia
A

dyssomnias

321
Q

abnormal behavior or physiology during sleep

  • nightmares/night terrors
  • sleep terror
  • somnambulism (sleepwalking)
  • RLS
A

parasomnias

322
Q

-trouble falling asleep

A

onset insomnia

323
Q

many awakenings during the night, with difficulty going back to sleep

A

maintenance insomnia

324
Q

sleep state misperception

A

pseudo-insomnia

325
Q

during the day people w insomnia may be:

A
  • drowsy
  • anxious and irritable
  • forgetful, with difficulty concentrating
326
Q

disorder characterized by the rapid and often unexpected onset of REM sleep (no SWS)

  • often has emotional trigger
  • microsleeps
  • cataplexy (sudden muscular paralysis) and atonia (loss of muscle strength)
  • genetic component
  • no known cure, SSRIs help some
A

narcolepsy

327
Q

___________ normally promotes wakefulness and inhibits REM sleep

A

hypocretin

328
Q

interfering w/ hypocretin signaling leads to __________

A

narcolepsy

329
Q

humans w narcolepsy have lost ___% of their hypothalamic hypocretin neurons

A

90%

330
Q

disorder characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness

  • lack of or interrupted sleep at night
  • nap frequently (and inappropriately)
  • anxiety, irritation, restlessness, slower thinking, memory difficulty
  • comorbid w many psychological disorders
A

hypersomnia

331
Q

breathing-related sleep disorders (4)

A
  • hypopnea
  • apnea
  • obstructive sleep apnea hypopnea
  • sudden infant death syndrome
332
Q

shallow breathing or a very low rate of breathing

A

hypopnea

333
Q

breathing stops more completely

A

apnea

334
Q

often occurs in obese individuals who snore

A

obstructive sleep apnea hypopnea

335
Q

urge to move our legs or other body parts, often while attempting to sleep
-dopamine irregularities

A

restless leg syndrome

336
Q
  • “sleepwalking”
  • occurs during deepest stages of Slow Wave Sleep
  • CAN wake people up without hurting them
A

somnambulism

337
Q

More than 50% of adults in last year
Increases w age
#2 health complaint
2x more common in females

A

Insomnia stats

338
Q

change in an organism’s behavior or thought as a result of experience. Not reflexes or instincts.

A

learning

339
Q

change in magnitude of response to environmental events.

  • habituation
  • sensitization
A

non-associative learning

340
Q

connection between two elements or events

  • classical conditioning
  • operant conditioning
A

associative learning

341
Q

decrease in strength or occurrence of behavioral response after repeated exposure to stimulus
-not to be confused w sensory adaptation

A

habituation

342
Q

experience of one (startling) stimulus heightens the behavioral response to subsequent stimuli
-becoming more sensitive to something

A

sensitization

343
Q

purpose of habituation

A

to allow the organism to ignore old or non-important cues and focus on learning new or important info

344
Q

purpose of sensitization

A

to allow the organism to focus on dangerous, irritating, or annoying stimuli

345
Q

a type of enzyme that catalyzes the transfer of phosphate groups from high-energy, phosphate-donating molecules to specific substrates

  • “phosphorylation”
  • Ex: ATP –> ADP
  • usually results in functional change of target protein
A

kinase

346
Q

the cAMP-PKA-MAPK-CREB Pathway leads to …

A

long-term changes in behavior

347
Q
  • the conditioned stimulus overlaps the unconditioned stimulus
  • no stimulus-free interval
A

delay (classical) conditioning

348
Q
  • the conditioned stimulus and unconditioned stimulus do not overlap
  • a stimulus-free interval occurs
  • requires the participation of forebrain areas
  • requires conscious, declarative processes
A

trace (classical) conditioning

349
Q
  • large, 2D
  • receive inputs from climbing fibers and parallel fibers
  • form inhibitory synapses on output cells in deep cerebellar nuclei
A

purkinje cells

350
Q

reduced activity in purkinje cells is

A

long-term depression (LTD)

351
Q

___________ will occur when the parallel fibers and climbing fibers activate the inhibitory purkinje cells at the same time

A

learning

352
Q

projects to facial and abducencs nuclei controlling for reflexive eye blink

A

red nucleus

353
Q

important for learning eyeblink conditioning

key area for association

A

lateral interpositus nucleus

354
Q

a conscious feeling of being afraid

A

fear

355
Q

the unconscious mobilization of defensive behaviors

A

threat

356
Q

__________ plays an important role in the classical conditioning of emotional responses

A

amygdala

357
Q

consequences of a behavior shape future performance

A

operant conditioning

358
Q

increases likelihood of behavior

A

reinforcement

359
Q

adding something desirable to increase likelihood of behavior

A

positive reinforcement

360
Q

removing something undesirable to increase likelihood of behavior

A

negative reinforcement

361
Q

decreases likelihood of behavior

A

punishment

Behavioral Neuroscience (4 decks)

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