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Behavioral Neuroscience > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Who coined the term “homeostasis”- A condition which may vary, but which is relatively constant

A

Walter B. Cannon

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2
Q

Convection

A

Type of heat transfer- circulation or movement of fluid or gas (eg wind, heating of water on a stove)

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3
Q

Radiation

A

Type of heat transfer- energy emitted by one source and absorbed by another (sunlight)

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4
Q

Evaporation

A

Type of heat transfer- conversion of liquid to gas (sweating, panting)

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5
Q

Conduction

A

Type of heat transfer- energy transfer along temperature gradient within or between bodies (bathing). Touching. Two things of different temps touch each other, temperatures start moving toward each other and meet in the middle

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6
Q

high surface area to volume ratio makes heat transfer within environment efficient and rapid when you have a high surface-to-volume ratio in your object. so want smaller object. 2:1 surface area to volume is preferable to 1:2 surface area to volume for communication outside of the cell

A

true

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7
Q

T or F Elephants consume much less O2 per kg than shrews

A

T. heat/energy produced by tiny things is lost pretty rapidly. elephants don’t lose a lot of energy to the environment, they are pretty well self contained

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8
Q

mammals and birds endotherms or ectotherms

A

endotherms.

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9
Q

animals whose temperatures are regulated by behavior AND internal metabolism (physiology). name some types of physiological thermoregulation

A

endotherms- shivering, piloerection (hair standing on end) panting, sweating, brown fat metabolism, seasonal hair growth/loss

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10
Q

T or F all animals display behavioral efforts to regulate temperature. Name some types of behavioral thermoregulation

A

T. ectotherms do this exclusively, no physiological regulation.
Behavioral thermoregulation-
Basking in reptiles
Posture, lowering or increasing surface area
Bathing in water
Urine washing (monkeys)
Huddling (rat pups)

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11
Q

cells in what area of the hypothalamus change firing rate with increases or decreases in temperature?

A

Preoptic area

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12
Q

physiological responses to cold

A

increased thyroid activity (metabolism)
metabolism of brown fat
constriction of cutaneous blood vessels
shivering of muscles

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13
Q

physiological responses to heat

A

increased respiration
perspiration
dilation of cutaneous blood vessels

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14
Q

Prominent thermoregulatory structure, place with the finest set zone

A

Hypothalamus. no single thermostat in nervous system, brainstem and spinal cord also thermoregulate

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15
Q

brown adipose tissue function

A

gets metabolized to generate heat around the body

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16
Q

who are the most significant evaporators? (best distance runners in animal kingdom) what caused this adaptation?

A

Humans! persistence running caused this adaptation

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17
Q

piloerection function

A

creates insulation by trapping air. vestigial in humans

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18
Q

countercurrent heat exchange in nasal veins and testicles. what is it and why does it exist?

A

Neural and testicular tissue is damaged at lower temperatures than other body tissues, want to avoid damage of hot blood in brain and balls. cold blood in nasal veins surrounds arterial blood on its way to the brain. similar in balls

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19
Q

Although there are significant metabolic costs of having the capability of thermoregulation, why do endotherms have an advantage over ectotherms?

A

expanded niche! endotherms can exist in a much larger range of environments

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20
Q

Number phases following infection: Body temperature increases. Set point increases, causing a cold feeling. Body temp decreases. When infection is neutralized, set point returns to original, feel hot

A

2,1,4,3

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21
Q

How do ectotherms fight off an infection if their temperature is not internally regulated?

A

Behavioral fever. Use behavior to change environmental temperature and generate fever (go under light in cage)

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22
Q

Huddling is an example of what form of thermal energy regulation/exchange

A

conduction. Also minimizing surface area exposed to outside cold temperature

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23
Q

What is the function of the brood patch in birds?

A

allows for direct conduction of heat. Mostly directed toward developing babies

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24
Q

How do some ectotherms survive subzero body temperatures?

A

Have an antifreeze protein in their blood. Fish blood protein used in ice cream to keep it smooth instead of crystallized

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25
Q

Approximate daily water intake often MATCHES, EXCEEDS, or IS LESS THAN daily water output

A

Matches

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26
Q

Baroreceptors in major blood vessels detect pressure drop from fluid loss, what kind of thirst is induced?

A

Hypovolemic thirst. extracellular fluid is being lost from some sort of abnormality (hemorrhage, diarrhea, vomiting, etc)

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27
Q

how do osmosensory neurons help in the regulation of water content

A

Stretch and shrink to send info about water content in body

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28
Q

Osmotic thirst function

A

Osmosensory neurons in the brain detect any increased osmolality of extracellular fluid, which draws water out of the intracellular compartment

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29
Q

What hormone causes blood vessels to contract, increasing BP and inhibiting urine production for Water conservation

A

Vasopressin, comes from hypothalamus through posterior pituitary

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30
Q

Why do Brattleboro rats and folks with diabetes insipidus have to drink a bunch of water all the time?

A

Unable to produce vasopressin, therefore unable to retain water

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31
Q

What does angiotensin come from, what does it combine with to form angiotensin II?

A

Angiotensinogen in liver. Combines with renin from kidneys

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32
Q

Function of angiotensin II? How is angiotensin II created?

A

Angiotensin reacts with renin from kidneys to form angiotensin II which causes vasopressin to be released, blood vessels to constrict, aldosterone to be released, and hypothalamus and pituitary to trigger drinking

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33
Q

Function of aldosterone?

A

Stimulates salt retention to increase drinking

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34
Q

T or F, osmotic thirst occurs when you have low levels of salt

A

F. High levels

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35
Q

T or F, hypovolemic thirst means that you have too much salt in your body

A

F. It means that you lost a bunch of water volume

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36
Q

In what area do both hypovolemic thirst and osmotic thirst first arrive in the thirst pathway?

A

Preoptic area

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37
Q

The preoptic area in the thirst pathway stimulates what two areas

A

Hypothalamic thirst network, causes drinking

Supraoptic nucleus, paraventricular nucleus cause water conservation

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38
Q

What do marine mammals have to excrete more of to stay alive

A

salt. Some marine birds have specialized salt excretion glands, marine mammals piss out a lot more salt

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39
Q

Insulin promotes conversion of what into what for short term energy storage

A

Glucose into glycogen. Energy stored in fat

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40
Q

Glucagon converts what into what for ready energy

A

Glycogen from fat into glucose

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41
Q

Name the phase of hunger: Evoked by sensory stimuli associated with food (eg smells). Insulin is released, salivation occurs, stomach contracts

A

Cephalic. Smell or think of good food, body prepares for the consumption of food and glucose

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42
Q

What phase of hunger is affected by classical conditioning

A

Cephalic

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43
Q

In what phase of hunger are gut hormones released, leading to further insulin release after the cephalic phase

A

digestive phase. Stimulated by stomach distention from food entering digestive tract

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44
Q

in what phase of hunger does glucose enter the bloodstream? this phase also has glucodetectors in the liver signal the pancreas to release insulin

A

Absorptive phase. the glucodetectors also initiate afferent signals through the vagus nerve to the nucleus of the solitary tract, relaying to the hypothalamus a signal that you have food in your body being absorbed

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45
Q

What does the removal of the ventromedial hypothalamus do?

A

Increases the set point for weight

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46
Q

What does the removal of the Lateral hypothalamus do?

A

Decreases the set point for weight

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47
Q

Four hormones that directly influence hypothalamus for appetite

A

Leptin, as fat cells increase, so does leptin release

Insulin, ghrelin, pyy3-36

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48
Q

The stomach produces what when you are hungry

A

Ghrelin

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49
Q

Leptin stimulates what and inhibits what? making you not eat

A

POMC/CART. inhibits NPY/AgRP neurons

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50
Q

What increases CART? What is CART?

A

Cocaine and amphetamine related transcript. Appetite suppressant. Leptin increases CART

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51
Q

Appetite suppressants

A

POMC/CART

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52
Q

Appetite stimulators

A

NPY/AgRP

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53
Q

AgRP

A

Agouti Related Peptide. Appetite stimulant, marijuana stimulates this

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54
Q

What decreases AgRP, making you not eat

A

Pyy3-36, insulin

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55
Q

Insulin inhibits what for appetite

A

AgRP neurons. Inhibition of agrp makes you not eat

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56
Q

pyy3-36 inhibits what for appetite

A

AgRP neurons. Inhibition of AgRp makes you not eat

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57
Q

Ghrelin stimulates what, increasing appetite

A

AgRP neurons

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58
Q

Gut floura function

A

Bacteria group in stomach can bypass brain signals by release of ghrelin to tell you that you are hungry

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59
Q

T or F you can change brain function to control set points in the body

A

T. Fat lady got the brain surgery

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60
Q

what would happen if you gave leptin to a mouse lacking db/db leptin receptors

A

NOTHING. some cases of human obesity involve db mutations

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61
Q

what would happen if you gave leptin to a mouse that could not produce leptin

A

it would get skinnier

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62
Q

Why does metabolism make it so hard to lose weight with just diet changes

A

Metabolism adjusts to caloric intake. Will lower with lower caloric intake

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63
Q

Why does liposuction tend to only be a temporary fix

A

You will gain the weight right back because your set point for weight is still at a higher level

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64
Q

No single structure is responsible for set point, positive or negative feedback T or F

A

T

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65
Q

Redundancy and interaction in a distributed system are key for homeostasis T or F

A

T

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66
Q

More powerful homeostatic control enables a wider niche (eg Endothermic regulation) T or F

A

T

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67
Q

The functions accomplished by homeostatic regulation are co-served by evolutionary niche adaptations T or F

A

T

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68
Q

in hypothalamus above optic chiasm. A major regulator of internal clock. Very active during light hours

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus SCN

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69
Q

T or F after removal from the brain, neurons in the suprachiasmatic nucleus cease following circadian cycle

A

F. Continues to match 24 hour cycle

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70
Q

If a rat with an SCN lesion received a functioning SCN from a donor rat, what would happen?

A

The rat would display the circadian rhythm of the donor rat. The host always adopts the donor cycle, even if the cycle were abnormal (20 hour free run instead of 24)

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71
Q

Entraining

A

Keep something on a schedule

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72
Q

What entrains the SCN via the retinohypothalamic tract (EVEN IN BLIND ORGANISMS)?

A

light. If no light cues are present, other cyclic events such as regular feeding time may entrain scn

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73
Q

Zeitgeber

A

“timegiver” external cues that happen at the same time every day to entrain circadian rhythm

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74
Q

Melanopsin containing ganglion cells are the beginning of what?

A

retinohypothalamic tract that entrains circadian rhythms of SCN

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75
Q

Retinohypothalamic tract fibers originate as _______ containing ganglion cells

A

melanopsin

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76
Q

T or F the SCN cannot be entrained by melanopsin-containing retinal ganglion cells in mutant mice lacking rods and cones

A

F. Can still entrain SCN w/o rods or cones

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77
Q

What NT sets off the 24 hr per and cry gene formation cycle in the SCN

A

Glutamate from melanopsin containing ganglion cells

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78
Q

Genes involved in negative feedback loop in SCN causing circadian rhythm

A

per and cry

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79
Q

T or F once the SCN is entrained, it will stick with that cycle possibly forever until something else disrupts it

A

T

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80
Q

T or F, the SCN is typically just in charge of sleep

A

F. Many targets. controls a bunch of circadian rhythms. Goes to dorsal medial thalamus and causes release of a bunch of hormones. Scn keeps a bunch of homeostatic processes on a circadian cycle

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81
Q

T or F. Determining the meaning behind sleep waves requires insight into their amplitudes

A

F. Frequencies are important to study, not amplitudes

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82
Q

Indication in EEG that the brain is acting synchroniously during sleep

A

delta wave during stage 3 and stage 4 sleep

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83
Q

T or F. Dreams only occur in REM sleep

A

F

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84
Q

What stage of sleep has alpha rhythms

A

Stage 1

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85
Q

What stage(s) of sleep has delta waves

A

3 and 4

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86
Q

What stage of sleep has sleep spindles and k complexes

A

stage 2

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87
Q

T or F as the night goes on, you have longer episodes of stage 4 sleep and shorter episodes of REM

A

F. the opposite

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88
Q

In what part of sleep do you tend to have one thought repeat itself over and over again

A

Non-rem

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89
Q

When does growth hormone secretion occur

A

Slow wave sleep

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90
Q

REM rebound

A

After sleep deprivation, you don’t make up for every lost hour, but you do have a bunch of rem sleep

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91
Q

What type of sleep do infants have way more than usual?

A

REM sleep 50% of the time. sleeping gets more consistent throughout development

92
Q

T or F learning and memory consolidation are not influenced by amt of sleep

A

F. Influenced heavily. less sleep, poorer performance on memory tasks

93
Q

When white noise bursts are presented in sync with SWS oscillations, what happens?

A

Increases SWS and memory performance

94
Q

When do night terrors occur?

A

SWS

95
Q

Tetris effect

A

if you played tetris earlier in the day, you are more likely to dream about tetris later that night

96
Q

Recording of brain patterns of rat doing a maze a bunch, then recordings of brain activity match those recordings during sleep. What might this be proof of?

A

dreaming in animals

97
Q

4 measurements to tell if someone is in rem sleep

A 
eye movement
EEG looks very similar to being awake
Lack of muscle tone
Inhibition of motor cortex through pons
wake them up and they remember their dreams pretty easily
98
Q

T or F invertebrates such as fruit flies and crayfish do not exhibit REM, only SWS

A

T

99
Q

What type of sleep don’t dolphins experience and why

A

REM, need to keep muscle tone in order to surface for breathing. Some birds also do not experience rem sleep because they need to stay alert to avoid predators

100
Q

Why is body size a major determinant for the amount of sleep a species gets?

A

the larger the animal, the less sleep it requires. Data suggest that one of the functions of sleep is to repair damage to brain cells. The higher metabolic rates of small animals lead to increased cellular injury and may, consequently, require more time for repair. Lions break this rule, specifically males. They don’t do much so they don’t stay awake

101
Q

Why do carnivores not really follow the body size-sleep rule?

A

not very strong relationship in carnivores, but is very strong in herbivores. Herbivores that are small can hide from predators and sleep more. Big ones have to stay awake to avoid being eaten. Sleep is riskier for herbivores. If you sleep a lot as an herbivore, your food doesn’t really go anywhere

102
Q

unihemispheric sleep characteristics and function

A

No REM. Present in all cetaceans (whales dolphins etc) and some birds lizards, species of seals and manatee. Right half of their brain will go into SWS for 50% of the sleeping time, left side for the other 50%. Need to maintain function in some of the brain so they can surface to breathe. Migratory birds that fly long periods do this so they can glide and rest

103
Q

Functions of sleep?

A

Energy conservation use less when youre asleep. Body temp lower, metabolic activity lower
Niche adaptation. All animals have an ideal time to feed, hunt, avoid predators, do whatever (you’re either diurnal or nocturnal). Sleep allows you to live within the ecological niche that you are best at
Body restoration. Helps to maintain immune system, growth hormone only released at this time. Clean waste out of brain
Learning & memory consolidation

104
Q

T or F the body and spinal cord do not seem to regulate sleep components

A

T

105
Q

Forebrain promotes SWS or REM & wakefulness

A

SWS

106
Q

Brainstem systems promote REM & wakefulness or SWS

A

REM and wakefulness

107
Q

Neurons active at the onset of sleep in basal forebrain release what to where

A

GABA to TMN in hypothalamus, allows brain to sleep

108
Q

Function of reticular formation in sleep/wakefulness

A

Arouses brain. If you lesion reticular formation you get permanent sleep.

109
Q

What two areas of the brain battle over sleep and wakefulness

A

Reticular formation (wakefulness) basal forebrain (sleep)

110
Q

Pons- specifically Locus Coeruleus- function in sleep

A

Locus Coeruleus sends projections to spinal cord that inhibit motor neurons promoting stillness during rem sleep. Also releases powerful inhibitory neurotransmitters gaba and glycine. Lesion pons -> no REM sleep

111
Q

Are things that knock you out (anesthesia) GABA agonists or antagonists?

A

Agonists. Anesthetics produces an EEG similar to SWS

112
Q

REM Behavior Disorder

A

Dreaming, but motor neurons were not inhibited. Different than sleepwalking. Here you just straight up act out dreams. lesion in Locus coeruleus. pons fails to inhibit motor neurons

113
Q

Sleep paralysis can be attributed to what?

A

An overactive pons. Typically occurs during transition from REM to waking. Assoc w/ hallucinations because youre still sort of in REM

114
Q

Not enough or no hypocretin neurons in hypothalamus means? Treatment?

A

Narcolepsy. Fall right into REM for like 30-50 min. Hypocretin usually keeps sleep at bay. Amphetamines during the day is normal treatment. amp you up as much as possible during the day

115
Q

What happens during cataplexy

A

Sudden loss of muscle tone.Entering into REM sleep paralysis state out of the blue. Like in the middle of great emotional distress or high arousal. Collapse but remain aware and conscious during the whole thing

116
Q

Total sleep deprivation in rats causes death within 10-20 days, in rats within 10 hours. What causes this?

A

Immune system suppression creates vulnerability to infection. Lose weight despite increased food intake

117
Q

When during sleep deprivation do hallucinations tend to appear?

A

Around 1 week

118
Q

Fatal familial insomnia 4 stages (7 to 18 months)

A

Increasing insomnia causing super anxiety

Hallucinations and panic attacks become very noticeable for about 5 months

Then Complete inability to sleep is followed by the rapid loss of weight, lasting for about 3 months

Then dementia- patient becomes unresponsive or mute. leads to death

119
Q

T or F sleep apnea can lead to memory issues

A

T. Lose air flow to brain can kill neurons. Hippocampus dies off first

120
Q

Possible cause of somnambulism (sleepwalking)

A

Activation of reticular formation but failure to discontinue SWS. Happens early in sleep

121
Q

Kleine-Levin syndrome

A

Sleeping beauty

122
Q

How to treat insomnia right now?

A

GABA Agonists like ambien are temporary. Best treatment is cognitive and behavioral therapy

123
Q

Treating psychopathology alleviates sleep disorder and viceversa

A

boobs

124
Q

People with depression REM more but also wake up more and do not achieve stage 3/4 very often

A

boobs

125
Q

Trephination

A

Drilling a hole through the head to release an unhealthy spirit from the brain

126
Q

Paralytic dementia diagnosis was actually what

A

old timey diagnosis in 1/4 of patients in mental hospitals. Sudden onset of delusions, grandiosity, poor judgment, impulsivity. Pupils did not constrict in response to light but did when focusing on objects. Was discovered that many patients sustained brain damage from syphilis

127
Q

why is syphilitic psychosis important for neuroscience

A

First disease to inspire researchers to study other forms of mental disorders in hopes of finding treatments

128
Q

Psychosurgery

A

uneducated use of surgical manipulation to treat severe mental illness. frontal lobotomy was at the head of this wave

129
Q

Walter Freeman –

A

American psychiatrist that performed and aggressively advocated the prefrontal lobotomy; he probably deserves much of the blame for its overuse

130
Q

Cingulotomy

A

1970s- lesion pathways to cingulate cortex; used to treat depression/anxiety

~1/3 of severely OCD patients benefitted from this procedure

131
Q

Capsulotomy

A

discrete lesions in anterior part of internal capsule (white matter projections underlying cortex)
Long lasting benefits in some cases of severe anxiety

132
Q

what is Deep Brain Stimulation DBS used to treat. in what portions of the brain

A

treatment of severe depression; involves stimulating ventral portion of medial prefrontal cortex with a surgically implanted electrode

-DBS has also been used to treat Tourette’s syndrome (i.e., heightened sensitivity to sensory stimuli that is accompanied by the urge to emit verbal tics); via stimulation of caudate nucleus
133
Q

Neurosurgeries are a last resort

A

boobs

134
Q

What do major depressive illness, reactive depression, anxiety disorders, and PTSD have in common?

A

Stress related mental illnesses. Substantial degree of comorbidity (overlap between these disorders)

135
Q

Extreme feelings of sadness and helplessness every day for weeks on end MDD

A 
Major depressive disorder
Core symptoms
Dysphoria: increased negative affect
Anhedonia: decreased positive affect
Additional symptoms
Weight/appetite loss/gain
Insomnia/hypersomnia
Psychomotor agitation/retardation
Fatigue
Worthlessness/guilt
Diminished ability to think/concentrate, indecisiveness
Suicidality
136
Q

Dysphoria

A

Increased negative affect MDD symptom

137
Q

Anhedonia

A

Decreased positive affect MDD symptom

138
Q

T or F the absence of happiness is a more reliable symptom than increased sadness in diagnosing depression

A

T

139
Q 
Treatment of depression: match the percentages of folks that respond to the corresponding treatments. 
50, 30, 50
Taking antidepressants
Undergoing therapy
Taking placebos
A

50% of people taking antidepressants get better
50% of people undergoing therapy get better
30% of people taking placebos get better

140
Q

What do Monoamine Oxidase inhibitors do and what do they treat

A

Treat depression by blocking the enzyme MAO which breaks down monoamine (Dopamine, Norepi, 5-HT) transmitters into active metabolites. Causes increased release of monoamine nts

141
Q

Monoamine hypothesis of depression

A

Depression is caused by low 5-HT and NE nt activity

142
Q

treatment of depression that Blocks transporter proteins that reabsorb 5-HT, NE, and DA back into presynaptic terminal
Effect is lingering increases in NT levels in synaptic cleft
Results in increased stimulation of postsynaptic neurons

A

Tricyclics.
Side effects:
Blocks histamine receptors: drowsiness
Blocks acetylcholine receptors: dry mouth, difficulty urinating (muscle problems), decreased sex drive
Blocks peripheral sodium channels: heart irregularities

143
Q

What drug blocks 5-HT reuptake? treatment of depression

A

SSRIs. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. The term “selective” derives from the fact that these drugs are more preferential to 5HT than other monoamine transporters (although not entirely exclusive)

Hence one gets the benefits from the tricyclic drugs minus a number of their side effects
However, milder side effects remain

144
Q

Bupropion. class of antidepressant and function

A

Atypical antidepressant. Inhibits reuptake of DA and NE but not 5-HT.

145
Q

ECT and use

A

Electroconvulsive therapy first used to treat schizophrenia; similar to lobotomies, it made patients temporarily more docile and calm
Nowadays, ECT is only used to relieve depression, and is only done on severe cases where patient is suicidal

146
Q

Deep brain stimulation DBS

A

Involves implanting an electrode in the prefrontal cortex and giving mild stimulation. Only used in patients with intractable depression

147
Q

Causes of depression

A

dysfunction of the brain serotonergic system
Other possibilities (not mutually exclusive to 5HT):
-genetic component/ 5-HT
-stress
-low BDNF
-Hippocampal neurogenesis

148
Q

short form of 5-HT-TLPR (serotonin transporter-linked polymorphic region) gene is correlated with what mental illnesses

A

MDD, anxiety, PTSD

149
Q

People with high levels of circulating cortisol are prone to what mental illness. What brain structure is in charge of this

A

Depression. Hypothalamus

150
Q

Dexamethasone function

A

injection causes suppression of cortisol. In depressed patients, it only mildly blocks cortisol rather than turning off the cortisol circadian rhythm like normal

151
Q

BDNF and depression

A

antidepressant treatments prompt axons to release BDNF. aids in neuron growth, guidance, and synapse formation during cortical development, but is also important for plasticity and learning during adulthood
BDNF may therefore promote synaptic growth and/or maintenance in limbic and cortical structures

152
Q

T or F hippocampal volume volume is reduced in patients with MDD and may be related to low levels of neurogenesis

A

T

153
Q

prenatal and neonatal risk factors for SZ

A

Poor nutrition of mother during pregnancy
Premature birth
Low birth weight
Complications during delivery
Increased stress in mother early in pregnancy (famine, viral infection)
If the father has an old age at conception they are more likely to become schizophrenic
Season of birth effect: People born in winter are 5%-8% greater at risk

154
Q

Gene DISC1 causes what?

A

Ventricular enlargement, maybe increase in possibility of schizophrenia

155
Q

disorganization of the hippocampus and other pyramidal cells could potentially cause?

A

schizophrenia

156
Q

t or f people with depression show hyperfrontality and people with schizophrenia show hypofrontality

A

T.

157
Q

Dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia

A

Idea that too much Dopamine somewhere in the brain causes schizophrenia.DA by-products are increased in periphery in SZ
Drugs that block DA reduce positive symptoms (less hallucinations)
Drugs that increase DA, or DA precursors, increase pos. symptoms
Post-mortem studies show increases in DA receptors in frontal cortex
 Amphetamine psychosis looks like SZ, but can clear with drug removal

158
Q

Drugs that block DA receptors, discovered in 1950s

A

Neuroleptics, antipsychotics

159
Q

Drugs that block D2 receptors

A

Typical Antipsychotics

160
Q

Atypical antipsychotics.

A

Block D2 but have other effects less well understood (prob some 5-HT receptor antagonist

161
Q

Glutamate hypothesis of schizophrenia

A

Deficient activity at glutamate synapses in the frontal cortex accounting for SZ

162
Q

Where is it that genes seem to have an effect on schizophrenia?

A

Major histocompatibility complexrepresent a family of genes known to be involved in the immune response to infection

163
Q

C4 protein upregulation in SZ patients plays an important role in

A

Cortical synapse during development through interaction with microglia

164
Q

Stimulus-> response learning

A

Respondent, Classical, Pavlovian conditioning

165
Q

What type of learning/conditioning is specific to smooth muscles and glands/involuntary behaviors

A

Respondent, Classical, Pavlovian conditioning

166
Q

Response->stimulus learning. Learning an association by behavioral response leading to a stimulus. (Pecking at a certain area gets you food, other areas do not. Behavior triggers stimulus

A

Operant, instrumental, skinnerian

167
Q

What type of learning/conditioning is associated with skeletal muscles/voluntary action

A

Operant, instrumental, skinnerian

168
Q 
MATCH ACRONYM WITH EXAMPLE, SOME WILL BE USED TWICE:
Unconditioned Stimulus:  US
Unconditioned Response:  UR 
Conditioned Stimulus:  CS 
Conditioned Response:  CR

White lab coat
Food in mouth
salivation

Eye blink
Air puff
tone

A

White lab coat CS
Food in mouth US
salivation UR CR

Eye blink UR CR
Air puff US
tone CS

169
Q

Eye blink pathway

A

Trigeminal nerve-trigeminal nucleus-. CEREBELLAR CORTEX AND INTERPOSITUS NUCLEUS OF CEREBELLUM are important because both are getting information about the air puff and the tone. Conditional learning is occurring in the cerebellum through convergence of information. Interpositus nucleus creates eye blink in response to tone

170
Q

In eye blink conditioning convergence of information causes conditional learning where?

A

Cerebellum. Cerebellar cortex and interpositus nucleus do the learning by receiving info about tone and air puff, interpositus nucleus creates eye blink in response to tone

171
Q

Importance of cerebellar cortex and interpositus nucleus of cerebellum in eyeblink conditioning

A

. CEREBELLAR CORTEX AND INTERPOSITUS NUCLEUS OF CEREBELLUM are important because both are getting information about the air puff and the tone. Conditional learning is occurring in the cerebellum through convergence of information. Interpositus nucleus creates eye blink in response to tone

172
Q

What happens if the interpositus nucleus is lesioned

A

Only exhibit unconditioned response. no conditional learning occurs because the conditional pathway is severed. Reflex pathway remains

173
Q

How is trace eye blink conditioning different from delay eye blink conditioning?

A

In trace, the conditioned stimulus occurs separately before the unconditioned stimulus occurs. This is more complicated learning because you need to store the information for longer, so we recruit our hippocampi to document the stimulus in order to remember the relationship

174
Q

What would happen during trace eye blink conditioning if the hippocampus were lesioned?

A

only unconditioned response will occur

175
Q

T or F in operant conditioning, consequences result after behaviors

A

T

176
Q

What did thorndikes cat puzzle boxes illustrate?

A

Learning was occurring every trial, cats were learning to escape faster. If something works, were gonna keep doing it. If something doesn’t work, were not gonna keep doing it

177
Q

Law of Effect (Learning)

A

Variability of potential actions, some more successful than others

Only successful actions are retained in behavioral repertoire

Over time, behaviors become more successful and often more complex

178
Q

T or F natural selection of successful behaviors (in learning) does not occur

A

F. In relation to the law of effect, successful organisms are naturally selected, successful synapses and neurons are naturally selected, and successful behaviors are naturally selected

179
Q

Behavior is a function of its consequences

A

A behavior is modified by the consequences of the behavior

180
Q

A rabbit is presented two tones. After one tone, it is always shocked on the bottom of its feet five seconds later. It runs to avoid the shock. Eventually, rabbit will run less than five seconds after the tone to avoid the shock. When a different tone is played, the rabbit does nothing. What is this an example of

A

Discriminative avoidance learning.

181
Q

What brain structures are involved in discriminative avoidance learning (operant) and not classical conditioning

A

Thalamus and cingulate

182
Q

What type of learning do you need the cerebellum for?

A

Classical conditioning

183
Q

What type of learning do you need the thalamus for?

A

Operant conditioning

184
Q

Playing a tone preceding the giving of water to a rat, inducing learning of the rat to approach the water source after every time the tone plays expecting water. The rat does not respond to other tones, because they don’t do anything. What is this an example of

A

Discriminative appetitive learning

185
Q

What brain pathway do we directly stimulate in rats to reinforce behavior

A

VTA/nucleus accumbens

186
Q

These are Important for short term memory. Monkey has to remember where the food was in order to get the food. During cue period, frontal cortex is not doing much. During delay period, monkey is actively trying to remember, dorsolateral prefrontal cortex is going nuts trying to remember. they correspond to the memory period of the task. If this area is lesioned, they will just start guessing randomly where the food is. Untrained monkey won’t have this kind of activity. Doesn’t know it has to remember to get the food. Six different types of these important for each part of memory process

A

memory cells

187
Q

Placed in a room, have to use spatial cues within the room to determine which hall the food is in. . What brain lesion would make this not work

A

hippocampus

188
Q

Train rat to go to right. Door on right will always be correct response no matter where they are placed in the maze. Not a spatial memory, it is learning a habit/routine. Lesion of what would stop this

A

caudate nucleus. important for learning a routine

189
Q

Object recognition memory is regulated by what?

A

extrastriate visual cortex

190
Q

Type of long term memory- Can verbally tell somebody memory

A

Declarative

191
Q

Type of long term memory- Procedural. Skill someone would have to practice. Cant just tell and the person will learn it.

A

Nondeclarative

192
Q

Type of long term memory- memories of moments. Is this a branch of declarative or nondeclarative memory

A

Episodic, declarative

193
Q

Type of long term memory- Facts. mostly in temporal lobe. theres a specific location in there for remembering names. Is this a branch of declarative or non-declarative memory

A

Semantic. Declarative

194
Q

Type of long term memory- Motor/muscle memory. Is this a branch of declarative or non-declarative memory

A

Skill learning- nondeclarative

195
Q

Type of long term memory- Exposure to a stimulus causes you to behave and think in relation to that stimulus. Think medically when you are in a doctors office. Is this a branch of declarative or non-declarative memory?

A

Priming (perceptual and conceptual). nondeclarative

196
Q

Type of long term memory- Stimulus and behavioral learning. Is this a branch of declarative or non-declarative memory

A

Conditioning (simple and complex) nondeclarative

197
Q

What part of the brain is episodic memory stored

A

cortex, perhaps especially in right frontal and temporal regions

198
Q

What part of the brain is semantic memory stored

A

Cortex, perhaps especially in temporal lobes

199
Q

What part of the brain is skill learning memory stored

A

basal ganglia, motor cortex, cerebellum

200
Q

What part of the brain is affected by perceptual priming memory

A

reduces activity in bilateral occipito-temporal cortex

201
Q

What part of the brain is affected by conceptual priming memory

A

Reduces activity in left frontal cortex

202
Q

What part of the brain is simple conditioning memory stored in

A

cerebellar circuit

203
Q

What part of the brain is complex conditioning memory stored in

A

hippocampus and cortex

204
Q

Removal of what brain area/structure would cause inability to form new declarative memories (anterograde amnesia)

A

medial temporal lobe including hippocampus

205
Q

T or F- In Alzheimer’s, the cortex is just deteriorating first. Entire brain eventually deteriorates, causing motor issues later

A

T. memory is just the first to go. Retrograde and anterograde amnesia

206
Q

How come monkeys with hippocampal lesions can still perform memory tasks?

A

May be relying on familiarity-based recognition strategies, which are supported by parahippocampal and rhinal cortices

207
Q

How does flashbulb memory work? what is it?

A

If learning experience is emotional, it activates the basolateral amygdala and/or sympathetic nervous system Emotional experiences initiate hormone release from adrenal gland and norepinephrine release from amygdala which strengthen memory representations in other brain areas
9/11

208
Q

T or F Cajal predicted that changes in levels of memory and learning occur at the level of the synapse

A

T

209
Q

in what type of habituation is there no synaptic change

A

short term habituation. only less neurotransmitter from sensory neurons to motor neurons

210
Q

In what type of habituation is there synaptic change

A

long term habituation- synapses are not as effective so they are lessened

211
Q

Increase in synapse formation and activity in order to maximize focus on an important stimulus

A

long-term sensitization

212
Q

A physiological change in response to stimulation, high rate of stimulation causes increase in postsynaptic potential for at least an hour

A

Long term potentiation

213
Q

learn about ampa and nmda

A

boobs

214
Q

What kind of attn is this- Focus coincides with sensory orientation, e.g., head orientation or saccade. Voluntary motor action. Overtly observable to someone who is watching

A

Overt attention

215
Q

What kind of attn. is this- Focus directed independently of sensory orientation. (without any motor actions) (in class example, switch attn to one side of periphery and other

A

Covert attention

216
Q

What attention type is reflexive

A

Exogenous attention. Something in environment that steals your attention. (siren goes off and you turn toward it. Unexpected stimulus in same place that target you are supposed to identify will be gives you faster reaction time in identifying the target (valid). If it pops up somewhere else, it will take you longer to locate the target and identify

217
Q

What attention type is intentional/voluntary

A

Endogenous attention. Stimulus tells you to look somewhere so you voluntary choose to look there. Top down processing

218
Q

Is exogenous or endogenous attention faster

A

Exogenous. Endogenous is consciously controlled, so slower.

219
Q

Brain area- Neural activity associated with covert attention
TMS disrupts covert attention shifts. Also affects
Endogenous (voluntary) attention
IPS/SPL

A

Intraparietal sulcus, Superior parietal lobule

220
Q

Brain area- Neural activity associated with overt attention (saccades)
lesion patients have difficulty ignoring distracters Also affects
Endogenous (voluntary) attention
Cant choose where they want to look, just look everywhere

FEF

A

Frontal eye field

221
Q 
May be involved in detecting targets based on novelty (new or unexpected)
Affects exogenous (involuntary) attention

VFC

A

Ventral frontal cortex

222
Q

Neural activity associated with unexpected target onset
lesion patients have difficulty orienting toward unexpected targets
Affects exogenous (involuntary) attention

TPJ

A

Temporoparietal junction

223
Q

Brain area where sensory information can be integrated to make a decision

A

prefrontal cortex

224
Q

Lesion to dorsolateral frontal cortex causes

A

diminished judgment, planning, insight, and temporal organization. cognitive impersistence, motor programming deficits (like aphasia and apraxia), diminished self care

225
Q

Orbitofrontal lesion to frontal cortex causes

A

Stimulus driven behavior, emotional liability, distractibility, no social insight- get really dirty and sexual on everyone. No social inhibition

226
Q

Mediofrontal lesion to frontal cortex causes

A

apathy. don’t care to do anything. just sit and pee your pants

Behavioral Neuroscience (3 decks)

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