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exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

how is Vibrio cholera transmitted

A

fecal oral route

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2
Q

In seawater and brackish water and is in human food infections such as raw fish and shellfish

A

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

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3
Q

“salt water furunculosis” and is septicemic in fish

A

Vibrio anguillarum (Listonella anguillarum)

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4
Q

causes cat scratch disease in humans

A

Bartonella henselae

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5
Q

causes Rat bite fever in humans and cervical lymphadenitis in Guinea pigs

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

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6
Q

T/F

Spirillum minus can be cultured on artificial media

A

FALSE

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7
Q

what does Nicoletella semolina cause

A

Respiratory distress in horses

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8
Q

what does Uruburuella suis cause

A

respiratory distress in pigs

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9
Q

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia causes what?

A

Hospital infection, humans

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10
Q

Pelistega europeae

A

respiratory distress in pigeons

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11
Q

T/F

Campylobacter, Helicobacter, and Lawsonia are all opportunistic intracellular pathogens

A

FALSE – opportunistic EXTRACELLULAR

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12
Q

habitat of campylobacter

A

gastrointestinal tract or lower genital tract

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13
Q

what type of oxygen requirement does campylobacter have

A

microaerophilic

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14
Q

campylobacter species that is the major cause of Gastroenteritis, diarrhea and bacteremia in all species

A

C. jejuni

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15
Q

campylobacter jejuni is a major food safety pathogen. where would you see the most incidences of it in food

A

broilers!! meat chickens

then pigs and raw milk from cattle

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16
Q

what toxin from C. jejuni causes cell cycle arrest

A

Cytolethal distending toxin (CDT)

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17
Q

T/F

Campylobacter jejuni can become bacteremic in pregnant animals and cause abortions

A

TRUE

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18
Q

T/F

Campylobacter jejuni is always severe

A

FALSE – rarely severe – normally self limiting and benign

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19
Q

in severe cases of campylobacter jejuni what two antimicrobial drugs might you choose

A

macrolides and fluoroquinolones

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20
Q

which causes more bacterial diarrhea in humans

campylobacter or salmonella

A

CAMPylobacter

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21
Q

what are some good ways to try and prevent getting campylobacter, because no one wants to shit their pants all day

A
  • Food and kitchen hygiene
  • Cooking meat fully
  • Fly control chicken houses?
  • Slaughterhouse processing
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22
Q

bovine venereal campylobacteriosis is caused by what species of campylobacter

A

Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis

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23
Q

what does Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis cause

A

Subclinical infection in preputial crypts of bulls – no disease in the bulls though just carriers chronically

Endometritis and salpingitis of varying severity may cause transient infertility and early embryonic deaths

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24
Q

T/F

Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis causes prolonged breeding cycles and frequent abortions

A

FALSE – abortions are rare !! (10%)

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25
Q

what are some control mechanisms for Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis

A

only use test negative bulls for breeding

use bulls that are less than 5 years old

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26
Q

Commensals in the intestinal tract of cattle and sheep that causes ovine genital campylobacteriosis

A

Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus

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27
Q

T/F

with Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus cattle are more likely to have abortions than sheep

A

FALSE – sheep are

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28
Q

how do she contract Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus

A

ingestion through contaminated food and water

get bacteremia then inflammation of placenta and abortion

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29
Q

Gram negative microaerophilic bacterium in the stomach the causes gastric ulcers and is associated with gastric neoplasms

A

Helicobacter pylori

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30
Q

what is the acid neutralizing virulence factor that H. pylori has

A

extracellular urease

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31
Q

are mouse pathogens involved in hepatic necrosis, nonsuppurative hepatitis, hepatocellular tumors

A

Helicobacter hepaticus and Helicobacter bilis

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32
Q

involved in hypergastrinemia and peptic ulcers in ferrets

A

Helicobacter mustelae

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33
Q

what is the only cell line that Lawsonia intracellularis can be cultured in

A

enterocyte cell lines

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34
Q

intracellular bacteria which replicate in the apical cytoplasm of enterocytes

A

Lawsonia

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35
Q

Associated with porcine proliferative enteropathy

A

Lawsonia intracellularis

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36
Q

T/F

Lawsonia are intracellular bacteria which replicate in the apical cytoplasm of enterocytes

A

TRUE

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37
Q

where do you administer the antimicrobials to treat Lawsonia

A

in the feed and water

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38
Q

T/F

most anaerobic infections are of exogenous origin

A

FALSE - endogenous **air is toxic to them

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39
Q

T/F

anaerobic conditions typically don’t respond to ahminoglycosides

A

TRUE

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40
Q

Gram Positive spore forming Anaerobic rods

A

Clostridium sp.

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41
Q

toxin from C. perfringens is one of the most lethal toxins and considered as a Bioterrorism agent

A

Epsilon toxin

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42
Q

All pathogenic Clostridia produce one or more _____ toxin or extracellular enzymes

A

protein

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43
Q

a common predisposing factor for and host response to clostridial infection

A

necrosis

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44
Q

what environments are clostridium commonly found

A

soil and GIT

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45
Q

the three major types of clostridial diseases

A

Histotoxic; Enterotoxic; Neurotoxic.

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46
Q

causes tetanus in humans and animals

A

Clostridium tetani

**causes spastic paralysis

HORSE > human > all other species

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47
Q

the potent neurotoxin produced by C. tetani

A

tetanospasmin

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48
Q

where does C. tetani grow in the host

A

grows in contaminated wounds

– produces toxin – endocytosis into motor nerves – retrograde transport – Prevents release of neurotransmitters

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49
Q

Ascending tetanus

A

toxin travels from the regional motor nerve in the limb, tetanus develops in limbs first then spread to other parts; Occurs in less susceptible animals (dogs and cats)

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50
Q

Descending Tetanus

A

Toxin in the blood stream affects motor nerve centers in the head and neck first and then spread to the limbs; seen in more susceptible species (humans and horses)

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51
Q

T/F

culture and serology are the best ways to Dx tetanus

A

False

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52
Q

how is Anti-tetanus equine serum given

A

IM or IV

**complication of anaphylaxis

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53
Q

how is immunization created for C. tetani

A

Toxoid immunization

and booster – post exposure prophylaxis \

ESPECIALLY HORSES AND PEOPLE

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54
Q

Food intoxication (food poisoning) due to consumption of food contaminated with botulinum neurotoxin

A

botulism from Clostridium botulinum

**inhibits neurotransmitter ACh release - flaccid paralysis

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55
Q

the most powerful exotoxin known; 1 μg will kill a person

A

Botulinum toxin

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56
Q

clinical signs of botulism

A

Symmetrical flaccid paralysis of muscles

Early symptoms in humans usually involve cranial nerve functions (double vision, dysphagia, speech dysfunction, etc.)

Early symptoms in other mammals usually involve hind limb paralysis, recumbence

Skeletal muscle paralysis can lead to respiratory failure

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57
Q

T/F

using antitoxin is a good way to treat Botulism, but it affects the bound toxin only

A

FALSE – unbound only

**only works if the animal is still actively absorbing the toxin – once it enters the blood stream it is quickly bound to receptors

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58
Q

causes black leg

A

Clostridium chauvoei

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59
Q

Acute, febrile, highly fatal disease of cattle and sheep leading to necrotizing myositis in healthy young calves at pasture in summer

A

Black Leg

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60
Q

T/F

the fatality rate for Clostridium chauvoei is 100%

A

TRUE

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61
Q

C. novyi Type A

A

Exogenous, gas gangrene (big head in rams)

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62
Q

C. novyi Type B

A

Endogenous, cause Black disease (infectious necrotic hepatitis), Predisposed by fluke damage

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63
Q

Endogenous infection cause liver damage and Bacillary hemoglobinuria in Cattle and sheep

A

C. hemolyticum (C. novyi Type D)

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64
Q

Causes Braxy in sheep (Abomasal edema from endogenous spores)
causes necrotic dermatitis in chickens
and causes malignant edema

A

C. septicum

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65
Q

what is malignant edema

A

gas gangrene — Wound infection by a histotoxic Clostridium

  • Serious, deep (“anaerobic”), traumatic wound
  • Characterized by rapidity (usually), gas formation, toxemia
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66
Q

what are some of the risk factors for getting C. septicum

A

Risk factors include IM injections in horses; shearing, docking, and lambing in sheep; and traumatic parturition and castration in cattle

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67
Q

antimicrobial treatment of necrotic myositis

A

penicillin

*only if given early in the infection process

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68
Q

T/F

All C. perfringens have alpha toxin

A

TRUE

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69
Q

the overeating disease and pulpy kidney in sheep and goats

A

C. perfringens Type D enterotoxemia

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70
Q

what is pulpy kidney disease

A

Rapid postmortem autolysis of the kidneys

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71
Q

C. perfringens Type ___ causes necrotizing enteritis in piglets

A

C

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72
Q

T/F

neonates are most susceptible to Clostridium difficile

A

FALSE – neonates are resistant

**Risk factors include recent antibiotic use, old age, hospitalization

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73
Q

Clostridium species that causes enterocolitis and affects colon and cecum of man, horse, pig, dog, cat, laboratory
rodents, others

A

Clostridium difficile

**often a fatal colitis from animals who were given broad spectrum Ab and destroyed the normal intestinal flora while allowing the C. difficile to proliferate

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74
Q

term for a microbial imbalance on or inside the body

A

Dysbiosis or dysbacteriosis

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75
Q

T/F

to treat Clostridium difficile in horses, use clindamycin

A

FALSE – never do that

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76
Q

Approaches to treatment of C. difficile diarrhea

A

Fecal transplant LOL
pro-biotics
supportive electrolytes and fluids

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77
Q

drugs contraindicated in rabbits

A

Lincomycin, clindamycin, and erythromycin

they induce Clostridium-related (eg, C difficile and C. spiroforme) enterotoxemia due to their selective effect on normal gram-positive bacteria

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78
Q

Causes enterotoxemia and explosive diarrheal disease primarily in rabbits 4–8 wk old

A

Clostridium spiroforme

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79
Q

Clostridium spiroforme is a commensal bacteria which produces an ____ toxin

A

iota

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80
Q

bacteria that causes Tyzzer’s Disease

A

Clostridium piliforme

**in lab animals bacteria is seen in bundles in the hepatocytes

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81
Q

Acute, fatal diarrheal disease of lab animals with associated focal liver necrosis

A

Clostridium piliforme

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82
Q

T/F
Characteristically, nonsporeforming bacteria are found in “mixed bacterial infections”, involving breaks in mucosal or epithelial barriers

A

TRUE

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83
Q

involved in liver abscess and footrot in cattle and sheep, and other nonspecific infections

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

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84
Q

Foot Rot

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum– cattle
Dichelobacter nodosus – sheep

(extensive necrosis and keratinolysis in severe cases)

TX – Remove necrotic tissue, dip in antiseptic foot baths and give antimicrobials

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85
Q

where is Leptospira maintained and secreted?

A

in the renal tubules of reservoir animals

excreted through urine and contaminate the environment (water)

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86
Q

Leptospira in humans

A

Flu like illness and protean manifestations

Complications from renal, pulmonary, hepatic and CNS disease

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87
Q

Leptospira in livestock

A

Disease of production and reproduction

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88
Q

which hosts do long term shedding of leptospira

A

the maintenance hosts

**incidental = short term shedding and severe disease

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89
Q

Leptospirosis-Dogs

clinical signs

A

Renal or hepatic injury, uveitis, pulmonary hemorrhage, abortion

clinical signs include polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, inappetence, lethargy, or abdominal pain)

Signs of hepatic and Renal failure, including icterus.

Bleeding abnormalities and disseminated intravascular coagulation(DIC)

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90
Q

T/F

the mortality rate of leptospirosis in dogs is very high

A

FALSE

Mortality 11-27%

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91
Q

Biphasic nature of leptospira

A

phase 1 – leptospiremia PCR blood - fever/myalgia

phase 2 - leptospiruria - PCR urine – icterus and renal failure

antibodies continue to increase – MAT test last (microscopic agglutination test)
Measures antibody titers to Leptospira serovars using an agglutination test which uses live Leptospira serovars

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92
Q

gold standard test for leptospira

A

microscopic agglutination test

  • *requires a live culture
  • *Reported to be serovar-specific but cross-reactivity is very common
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93
Q

What antimicrobial do you use to treat in the acute disease of leptospira

A

ampicillin,amoxicillin

penicillins

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94
Q

what antimicrobial do you use for the carriers

A

doxycycline

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95
Q

Leptospirosis in ruminants

A

Leptospira borgpetersennii serovar hardjo is host adapted in cattle resulting in reproductive failure due to early embryonic death and repeat breeding

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96
Q

In the USA and Canada, serovars ____ and _____ are the most common causes of equine leptospirosis.

A

pomona and grippotyphosa

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97
Q

T/F

Clinical leptospirosis in horses is most commonly associated with abortions, systemic illness in foals

A

TRUE

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98
Q

most widespread zoonotic dz in people

A

Leptospira

**Leptospirosis is estimated to cause more than 1 million severe cases and approximately 60,000 deaths per year

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99
Q

Leptospira serovars in pigs

A

serovars Pomona and Bratislava

**causes reproductive failure as evidenced by infertility and sporadic abortion

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100
Q

causes Syphilis a sexually transmitted disease in humans

A

Treponema pallidum

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101
Q

Papillomatous digital dermatitis (PDD) is also known as this disease

A

“Hairy Heel Warts” – Growing cause of lameness of cows in the U.S. dairy industry.

• Economic loss due to treatment costs, decreased milk production, lower
reproductive efficiency, and premature culling.
• Affects around more than 40 % of US dairy Herds
• Treponema brennaborense???

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102
Q

Treponema paraluis-cuniculi affects what species

A

Rabbit syphilis or Vent diseases in rabbits

**Epidermal hyperplasia with erosions, ulcers Increase susceptibility to other infections

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103
Q

T/F

Treponema paraluis-cuniculi is self limiting

A

TRUE

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104
Q

B. hyodysenteriae causes swine dysentery in actively growing pigs (6-12 weeks of age)

A

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae

**a contagious, mucohaemorrhagic, fibrinonecrotic colitis of weaned pigs, a disease that has virtually disappeared because of changed structure of production in the swine industry, breaking the transmission cycle from older carrier swine, linked to poor environmental survival of the organism.

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105
Q

how is Brachyspira hyodysenteriae transmitted

A

fecal oral

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106
Q

T/F

asymptomatic carriers of Brachyspira hyodysenteriae are the most important mode of transmission from farm to farm

A

TRUE

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107
Q

T/F

Brachyspira hyodysenteriae will cause lesions in the small intestine and the large intestine / colon of pigs

A

FALSE – Lesions in the large intestine only (caecum, colon) Fibrinonecrotic pseudomembranous colitis

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5
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108
Q

what type of stain can you use to diagnose Brachyspira hyodysenteriae??

What must it be differentiated from??

A

Victoria Blue stain

Salmonellosis

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109
Q

causes lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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110
Q

Most common vector borne bacterial disease in humans US

A

lyme disease

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111
Q

tell me about the LPS stuff for Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Osp C to Osp A in midgut of ticks & in culture Osp A to Osp C in salivary gland of tick
Osp C in mammals early in infection

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112
Q

T/F

Ticks will always become infected when feeding on animals

A

FALSE

 Ticks become infected only when feeding on animal with sufficiently high level of bacteremia

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113
Q

often the first sign of lyme infection in human beings

A

Skin rash (erythema migrans)

114
Q

Canine lyme disease clinical signs

A

Typical clinical signs in dogs are fever, acute arthritis,
arthralgia and lameness. Sometimes accompanied by
anorexia, lethargy and depression.

115
Q

canine lyme disease treatment and control

A

Doxycycline

vector control

Vaccine for dogs (bacterin, subunit Osp A)

116
Q

T/F

the vaccine for canine lyme disease will prevent infection

A

FALSE
Vaccine for dogs (bacterin, subunit Osp A)
Reduces incidence of disease in endemic region, does not prevent infection.

117
Q

T/F
Rickettsia are arthropod transmitted parasites of blood cells or endothelial cells, while Chlamydia are parasites of epithelial cells

A

TRUE

118
Q

what antimicrobial are Rickettsia and Chlamydia susceptible to?

A

Tetracycline

119
Q

T/F
Rickettsia and Chlamydia are highly specialized, obligate
intracellular bacteria which grow only in cells

A

TRUE

120
Q

what is the morphology of Rickettsia and Chlamydia

A

They are Gram-negative coccobacilli

121
Q

Fungus invade the tissue and induce its pathogenic effect

A

fungal infections

122
Q

Fungal contamination or growth on food material leads accumulation of toxins and when consumed induce severe disease

A

Mycotoxicoses

123
Q

Inhaled fungal spores induce hypersensitivity and allergy

A

allergies

124
Q

A mycotic infection of humans and lower animals caused by a number of dematiaceous (brown-pigmented) fungus

A

Phaeohyphomycosis

125
Q

A mycotic infection of the cutaneous and subcutaneous tissues characterised by the development in tissue of dematiaceous (brown- pigmented), rounded sclerotic bodies. Infections are caused by the traumatic
implantation of fungal elements into the skin and are chronic, slowly progressive and localised

A

Chromoblastomycosis

126
Q

Zygomycosis

A

any infection due to a member of the Zygomycetes. These are primitive, fast growing, terrestrial, largely saprophytic fungi ( Mucor, Rhizopus, Rhizomucor, Mucor, Mortierella).

127
Q

is a mycotic infection of humans and animals caused by a number of different fungi and actinomycetes characterized by draining sinuses, granules and tumefaction. The disease results from the traumatic implantation of the etiologic agent and usually involves the cutaneous and subcutaneous tissue, fascia and bone of the foot or hand.

A

Mycetoma

128
Q

Slowly expanding, circular area of alopecia and desquamated epithelium
Central hair regrowth, inflamed edge. Often multiple differently sized lesions

A

classic ring worm lesion

129
Q

direct examination of dermatophytes

A

wet mount of plucked parasitized hairs, 10% KOH warmed for 15 minutes to clear keratin, see large number of spores (arthroconidia) on broken hairs.
Their Location whether ectothrix (out side the hair follicle) or endothrix (inside the hair follicle) can be used for species identification

130
Q

Tx ringworm

A

Hygiene: Isolation; treatment bedding with formalin or washing in bleach;
• environmental decontamination
• Isolate infected animals
• Clip hair, especially for extensive lesions
• Bedding should be discarded (burned) and
• grooming equipment disinfected (0.5% sodium
• hypochlorite) Isolation of infected animal, treatment of bedding with formalin, washing at high temperatures in dilute bleach, or burning; environmental disinfection, use of vacuum cleaners with filters

131
Q

prevent ringworm in shelters

A
  1. Examination of animals at admission
  2. Detection of animals using Wood’s lamp or fungal culture following collection on a clean toothbrush by 2-3 minutes of skin sampling
  3. Use of isolation facilities
  4. Use of protective clothing and gloves
  5. Topical treatment of exposed but culture-negative animals and Combinations of oral and topical treatment of exposed, culture-positive or pending normal animals and clinically affected animals
  6. Post-treatment testing
  7. Cleaning and disinfection 8. immunization ?
132
Q

Cause of Rocky Mountain spotted fever in humans, dogs

A

Rickettsia rickettsia

133
Q
  • Bacterium transmitted by the cat flea
  • Causes “flea-borne spotted fever” in humans,
  • Causes inapparent infection in cats
A

Rickettsia felis

134
Q

Louse borne rickettsiosis in humans and flying squirrels causing typhus worldwide

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

135
Q

murine typhus

A

Rickettsia typhi

136
Q

causes scab typhus

A

Orientia tsutsugamushi

137
Q

Piscirickettsiosis in farmed fish

A

Piscirickettsia salmonis

138
Q

Family of parasites of haematopoietic(bone marrow derived cells) of vertebrate hosts

A

Family: Anaplasmataceae

**Transmitted by EITHER invertebrate host (trematode =
Neorickettsia) or a vector (tick)

139
Q

Anaplasma phagocytophilum is found where in the host

A

the neutrophils

140
Q

how is Anaplasma phagocytophilum transmitted

A

ixodes tick

141
Q

what does Anaplasma phagocytophilum cause

A

• Necrotizing small vessel vasculitis
• Disease: Fever, depression, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, muscle
pain; rarely shock, fatal
• Horses; Usually mild subclinical limb edema, icterus, ataxia; may be rapidly fatal (DIC)
• Dogs: Necrotizing small vessel vasculitis

142
Q

this infects the platelets and causes Infectious cyclic thrombocytopenia

A

Anaplasma platys

*often asymptomatic

143
Q

Anaplasma marginale targets what cell type

A

erythrocytes

144
Q

Causes anaplasmosis in ruminants

A

Anaplasma marginale

145
Q

T/F

Calves are much more resistant to disease than older cattle to Anaplasma marginale

A

TRUE

146
Q

Tropical pancytopenia of dogs in US, SE Asia

A

Ehrlichia canis

**brown dog tick borne infection

147
Q

Canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis.

A

E. ewingii

148
Q

NAME THE GENUS:
Tick-borne infections
Infections of haematopoietic or endothelial cells
Source persistently bacteremic rodents, canids, or ruminants

A

Ehrlichia

149
Q

also called heart water disease in ruminants

A

Ehrlichia ruminantium

150
Q

what cells does Ehrlichia ruminantium replicate in

A

macrophages and endothelial cells

151
Q

what tick is the vector of heart water disease

A

amblyoma

152
Q

T/F

Ehrlichia ruminantium is reportable

A

TRUE

153
Q

NAME THE GENUS:
• Small intracellular bacteria
• Monocytes - macrophages
• Infectious cycle includes transmission by trematode (fluke) vectors

A

Genus: Neorickettsia

154
Q

also called Potomac Horse Fever

A

Neorickettsia risticii

**june to october

155
Q

Causes salmon poisoning in dogs(and in polar bears and raccoons, coyotes) in Pacific Northwest coast

A

Neorickettsia helminthoeca

156
Q

what cells does Neorickettsia helminthoeca infect

A

mononuclear

157
Q

what are the clinical signs of Neorickettsia helminthoeca

A

Fever, depression dehydration anorexia vomiting , hemorrhagic diarrhoea, lymphadenopathy

158
Q

T/F

there is a low case fatality rate for Neorickettsia helminthoeca

A

FALSE – high

159
Q

intracellular replicating form of chlamydia

A

reticulate body

160
Q

extracellular non-replicating form of chlamydia

A

elementary body

161
Q

T/F

Chlamydia generates ATP on its own

A

FALSE – energy parasites

162
Q

T/F

Chlamydia is an obligate intracellular bacteria

A

TRUE

163
Q

T/F

Chlamydia psittaci infections are zoonotic

A

TRUE

164
Q

Avian chlamydiosis

A

Chlamydia psittaci

ZOONOTIC
REPORTABLE
BSL3

165
Q

Avian chlamydiosis pathogenesis

A
  • Elementary bodies shed by carriers (feces) or diseased birds, inhaled into lung
  • Goes through life cycle in epithelial and phagocytic cells
  • Causes septicemic, multi-organ infection
  • Bronchiolitis, bronchopneumonia, fibrinous polyserositis, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, death
  • Persistent carrier, shedder
166
Q

T/F

all birds should be vaccinated for Avian chlamydiosis

A

FALSE BC THERE ISNT A VACCINE

167
Q

causes Polyarthritis in lambs and calves AKA stiff lamb disease

A

Chlamydia pecorum

168
Q

causes Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis (SBE) and febrile diseases mainly in young cattle

A

Chlamydia pecorum

169
Q

Known as agent of feline pneumonitis

A

Chlamydia felis

170
Q

the most common signs of Chlamydia felis

A

The most common signs are conjunctivitis and rhinitis Endemic in housecats worldwide (low zoonotic risk)

171
Q

what antimicrobial would you use to treat chlamydia

A

tetracycline

**Used for treatment and metaphylaxis

172
Q

T/F

chlamydia vaccines treat and prevent disease

A

FALSE -

vaccines do not prevent shedding, but can reduce incidence and severity of disease

173
Q

Causes Q (Queensland) fever

A

Coxiella burnetii

**May cause placentitis and abortion sheep, goats, cattle

174
Q

zoonotic clinical signs of Q fever

A

Prolonged serious febrile influenza-like illness, sometimes pneumonia, hepatitis, endocarditis

175
Q

smallest free living bacteria with no cell wall

A

mycoplasma

176
Q

T/F

mycoplasma are very susceptible to penicillin

A

FALSE

177
Q

Mollicutes: Mycoplasma

A

• Inhabit mucous membranes (obligate parasites) of respiratory and reproductive tracts
• Affinity to ciliated epithelium
• Most are host specific and have heavy
dependency to host nutrients
• Transmission through close contact
• Causes localized, low grade persistent infections
• (respiratory tract ++++, genital tract +, conjunctiva +, udder+, sometimes septicemia)
• Hemotrophic species are RBC parasites
• Fastidious: Difficult to isolate in the lab

178
Q

infection of red blood cells

A

Hemoplasma

179
Q

Enzootic pneumonia of swine

A

Mycoplasma hyopneumonia

**Mitogenic activity produces hyperplasia BALT (“cuffing pneumonia”)

180
Q

how to prevent Mycoplasma hyopneumonia

A
  • Control by SPF herds, herd biosecurity
  • Monitoring at slaughter or serologically,
  • Immunization
  • Addressing Secondary bacterial infections
181
Q

Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia

A

Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides (Small Colony variant)

182
Q

most virulent mycoplasma in cattle

A

Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides (Small Colony variant)

REPORTABLE

183
Q

mycoplasma bovis

A

Causes Upper respiratory tract

Bronchopneumonia, seen in cattle with feedlot pneumonia (part of Bovine respiratory disease complex(“BRDC”)

Increasingly important in recent years

Mastitis: Highly infectious in large herds leading to gland fibrosis, purulent plugs

Arthritis (concurrent with pneumonia, mastitis)

184
Q

Mycoplasma mastitis will cause what in cattle

A

• Drop in milk production
• Milk becomes thick and intermixed with
watery and purulent secretions
• Udder can be swollen and the four quarters can be affected-fibrosis
• Disseminated infection can follow
Enlarged supra-mammary lymph nodes in a cow with mastitis


185
Q

Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia

A

Mycoplasma. capricolum susbsp. Capripneumoniae- Fatal disease Fatal foreign animal and Reortable Disease

186
Q

what are the two avian mycoplasmas

A

M. gallisepticum and M. synoviae: REPORTABLE DISEASES!!!!

187
Q

Mycoplasma gallisepticum

A

Chronic respiratory diseases in chicken and turkeys

Coughing, nasal discharges, tracheal rales, Sinusitis with production of thick mucoid exudate, Decrease in egg production

188
Q

Mycoplasma Synoviae

A

Synovitis resulting in lameness, swelling of joints,Retarded growth

189
Q

M. meleagridis and M. iowae are mainly what species

A

TURKEYS – cause respiratory diseases, skeletal deformities, decrease egg hatchability

190
Q

causes selflimitting pleuritis in horses

A

mycoplasma felis

191
Q

Mycoplasma hemofelis target cells

A

erythrocytes

192
Q

what disease does Mycoplasma hemofelis cause

A

feline infectious anemia in cats

193
Q

what are the clinical signs of Mycoplasma hemofelis

A

fever, anemia, depression,

weakness, icterus

194
Q

Mycoplasma hemosuis target cell

A

erythrocytes of PIGS (in poorly managed herds)

**Found in plasma and RBC swine as coccoid forms with Giemsa stain

195
Q

Mycoplasma hemosuis clinical signs

A

fever, anemia, weakness, icterus

196
Q

dark pigmented hyphae

A

Dematiaceous fungus

197
Q

non pigmented hyphae

A

Hyaline fungus

198
Q

fungal infections limited to the outermost layers of the skin and hair

A

superficial

199
Q

fungal infections that extend deeper into the epidermis as well as invasive hair and nail diseases

A

cutaneous

200
Q

fungal infectionsinvolvingthedermis, subcutaneous tissues, muscle and fascia

A

subcutaneous

201
Q

fungal infectionsthatoriginateprimarilyinthelungbut spread to many other organs

A

systemic

202
Q

what type of stain is this:
Requires UV microscope
Large sections of tissue can be examined rapidly Binds to chitin in cell walls of most fungi

A

calcofluor on fresh tissue

203
Q

(classic fungal medium)

low pH and dextrose in the media inhibit bacterial growth to a limited extent

A

Sabouraud Dextrose Agar

204
Q

Sabouraud Dextrose Agar with cycloheximide

A

Cycloheximide inhibits growth of saprophytic molds allowing selection for pathogenic fungi

205
Q

what anti fungal drugs Inhibit ergosterol

A 
Polyenes (amphoterocin B, natamycin, nystatin)
AND
Azoles (imidazoles and triazoles)
AND
Allylamines (terbinafine)
206
Q

what anti fungal drugs Inhibit Nucleic acid synthesis

A

Flucytosine

207
Q

what does griseofulvin do to fungus

A

Binds to mitotic spindles; inhibits mitosis, Administered orally; accumulates in keratin, Only used for dermatophytes Teratogenic in cats )

208
Q

T/F

immunity to fungal infections is mainly cell mediated

A

TRUE

209
Q

Candida albicans is in the normal flora of what areas

A

Normal flora of mouth, intestine, lower urogenital tract animals and humans

210
Q

reversibly transitions from single- cell to pseudohyphal and hyphal forms

A

C. albicans reversibly transitions from single- cell to pseudohyphal and hyphal forms

211
Q

a common condition manifested as whitish-yellow hyperkeratotic lesions.

A

Thrush

212
Q

what causes thrush

A

Candida albicans

213
Q

T/F

C. albicans plaques, in tongue, mouth, proventriculus, stomach

A

TRUE

214
Q

Thick-walled, bottle-shaped yeast yeast, 3-8 μm Lipophilic yeast

A

Malassezia pachydermatis

215
Q

this yeast may cause otitis externa in dogs

A

Malassezia pachydermatis

216
Q

what glands are Malassezia pachydermatis associated with

A

sebaceous

217
Q

Malassezia pachydermatis is a commensal of …

A

skin of animals

218
Q

Large round to oval, budding yeast that is associated with pigeon droppings

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

219
Q

Large round to oval, budding yeast that is associated with eucalyptus trees

A

cryptococcus gatti

220
Q

__________ capsule prominent in vivo is an important virulence factor for cryptococcus

A

Mucopolysaccharide

221
Q

yeast that is a disease of the immunocompromised that causes gelatinous masses and polyps with numerous organisms and minimal inflammation

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

222
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans is CNS manifestations are most common in this species

A

CATS

223
Q

Cryptococcosis Treatment

A
  • Long term treatment is needed. Continue until serum antigen negative or at least one month past resolution of clinical signs
  • Amphotericin B, flucytosine, Azoles
  • Surgical removal of masses
224
Q

Dimorphic fungus characterised by large broad- based budding yeast 5-20 μm diameter, with a thick cell wall

A

Blastomyces

225
Q

Blastomyces route of entry and 2 most common species

A

inhalation

dogs and humans

226
Q

T/F

disseminated disease of Blastomyces is rare

A

FALSE – common

**usually with clinical or subclinical pulmonary involvement, cutaneous, ocular and bone are the most common secondary sites in dogs

227
Q

T/F

there are no vaccines available for Blastomyces

A

TRUE

228
Q

Thermally dimorphic fungus that is small, oval yeast frequently seen in macrophage in infected tissue

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

229
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum BSL level

A

3

230
Q

Endemic in Ohio, Missouri and Mississippi river valleys of U.S.

Grows in great abundance in dark, moist soil covered with bird (chicken/blackbird/starling roosts) or bat droppings (caves)

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

231
Q

Histoplasmosis route of entry

A

inhalation

favors dry and dusty conditions - disturbances of soil

232
Q

Granulomatous chorioretinitis in cats is the most common ocular sign for this dimorphic fungus

A

Histoplasmosis

233
Q

Intestinal disease is common in dogs but not in human infection for this dimorphic fungus

A

Histoplasmosis

234
Q

T/F

Histoplasmosis is very contagious from animal to animals

A

FALSE

235
Q

what do you look for microscopically to Dx Histoplasmosis

A

Small intracytoplasmic yeast cells in the macrophages

236
Q

Dimorphic fungus, but does not produce yeast form instead large, thick walled spherules containing endospores in tissue

A

Coccidioides immitis

237
Q

Coccidioides immitis BSL

A

3

238
Q

Coccidioidomycosis entry

A

Entry by inhalation of arthroconidia

239
Q

what is the common form of the disseminated form of Coccidioidomycosis

A

osteomyelitis

240
Q

Thermally dimorphic fungus that is cigar-shaped, elongated, pleomorphic yeast in tissue

The fungus lives in sphagnum moss, hay, other plant materials, and soil

A

Sporothrix schenkii

241
Q

Associated with coarse-stemmed, thorny and woody plants and entry usually by puncture wound

A

Sporothrix schenkii

242
Q

what drug is clostridium spp susceptible to

A

metronidazole

243
Q
  • Corneal abrasion by straw in horses

* Infection of damaged cornea with mold

A

Mycotic keratitis

244
Q

Avian Aspergillosis is also called this

A

brooder pneumonia

245
Q

T/F

Aspergillus sp. and other opportunistic fungal agents can cause fungal pneumonia in animals

A

TRUE

246
Q

Achlorophyllous algae

A

prototheca

247
Q

most common symptom of prototheca

A

bloody D+

248
Q

what species of prototheca is more susceptible to Tx

A

P. wickerhamii

249
Q

T/F

prototheca is highly transmissible between hosts

A

FALSE - rare disease

250
Q

water molds…

A

Oomycetes

Pythium insidiosum and Lagenidium spp.

251
Q

an emergent disease of hibernating bats that has spread from the north-eastern to the central United States at an alarming rate. This devastating disease. is named for the white fungus, Pseudogymnoascus destructans, that infects skin of the muzzle, ears, and wings of hibernating bats

A

white nose syndrome

252
Q

nasal polyps and cutaneous cysts in mammals & birds

A

Rhinosporidium

253
Q

pneumonia in animals with immunodeficiency

A

Pneumocystis

254
Q

Oomycetes (water molds):

Pythium insidiosum and Lagenidium spp. cause what,,,

A

Cutaneous & GI disease in dogs

Cutaneous disease in horses, cats, people

Humans: Arteritis, Keratitis, Periorbital cellulitis, Cutaneous/Subcutaneous lesions

255
Q

P. insidiosum

A

Pythiosis in horses(‘swamp cancer’, ‘Florida horse leech, kunkers)

256
Q

T/F

Vaccine available for Pythium

A

TRUE

257
Q

in amphibians Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis causing cutaneous disease in amphibians associated with global population declines

A

Chytridiomycosis

258
Q

econdary metabolites produced by fungi that are capable of causing disease and death in humans and other animals

A

mycotoxins

259
Q

list some major mycotoxins

A
  • Aflatoxins
  • Ergot alkaloids
  • Fumonisin
  • Ochratoxin
  • Zearalenone
260
Q

Which of the following Ricke0siales causes Q fever in Ruminants

A

Coxiella burnetti

261
Q

Which of the following is paired incorrectly?
A. Chlamydia psi0aci= Avian chlamydiosis
B. Microsporum canis = Ringworm
C. Lawsonia intracellularis= Swine dysentery
D. Campylobacter fetus subsp venerealis = Bovine venereal campylobacteriosis
E. Neoricke0sia risDcii = Potomac horse fever

A

C!

Lawsonia is with porcine proliferative enteritis

262
Q 
Which of the following symptoms do you expect to see in a cat infected with Mycoplasma hemofelis?
A.  ConjuncDviDs and chemosis
B.  Bone marrow suppression
C.  Chronic respiratory disease
D.  Fever and hemolyDc anemia
A

D

HEMOfelis HEMOlytic anemia

263
Q 
What bacteria causes Tyzzer’s Diseases in Rodents?
A.  Clostridium piliforme
 B.  Chlamydia pecorum
C.  Clostridium perfringens
 D.  OrienDa tsutsugamushi
 E.  Treponema paraluis

A

A

264
Q

A cat presents with rhiniDs, nasal granulomas and CNS signs. You did a cytology and found this.
Which of the following might have caused the symptoms?
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Candida albicans
C. Coccidiodes immiDs
D. Malassezia pachydermaDDs
E. Blastomyces dermaDDdis

A

A

265
Q 
Which of the following is affected by Histoplasma capsulatum var capsulatum?
A.  Lungs and Eyes/Skin 
B.  Lungs and Bones
C.  Lungs and GI
D.  Skin and Lymph nodes
A

C

266
Q

You are called to a farm in which several sheep have aborted. You examine the fetus and find necroDc donut-shaped lesions in the liver. What bacteria might have caused this?

A

Campylobacter fetus subsp fetus

267
Q 
Which of the following are considered histotoxic Clostridium?
A.  Clostridium botulinum
 B.  Clostridium chauvoei 
C.  Clostridium piliforme
 D.  Clostridium spiroforme
 E.  Clostridium novyi
F.  Clostridium sepDcum
A

B
E
F

268
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about Dermatophytes?
A. Causes ring-shaped skin lesions
B. Produces macronidia in culture
C. All species can be diagnosed with a Wood’s lamp, except M. canis
D. ParasiDzes keraDnized epithermal structures ONLY
E. M canis can affect dogs, cats and horses

A

C

269
Q 
You decide to do a necropsy on several young pigs that died due to severe diarrhea. You find that they have a fibrinonecrotic pseudomembranous colits extending throughout the entire colon. What bacteria are you most suspicious of?
A.  Campylobacter jejuni
B.  Lawsonia
intracellularis
C.  Borrelia burgdorferi
D.  Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
A

D

270
Q

which antibiotic is best to treat clostridium

A

Metronidazole

271
Q 
Which of the following is paired incorrectly?
A.  Ehrlichia canis = monocytes
B.  Anaplasma platys = platelets
C.  Anaplasma centrale = erythrocytes 
D.  Ehrlichia ruminantium = erythrocytes
 E.  Ehrlichia ewingii = neutrophils
A

D – ehrlichia is in monocytes and macrophages

272
Q 
Which of the following is NOT part of the Ricke0sia Typhus group?
A.  Rickettsia typhi
B.  Orientia tsutsugamushi 
C.  Rickettsia prowasekii
 D.  Rickettsia ricke0sii
A

D

273
Q 
Which of the following does NOT cause aborDon in ruminants?
A.  Chlamydia abortus
 B.  Leptospira spp
C.  Coxiella burnetti
 D.  Treponema spp
E.  Campylobacter spp
A

D

274
Q

Your practicing in Ohio and you notice that more dogs are coming in with respiratory signs and skin lesions. You do a TTW and send some issues samples to a lab. What are you expecting?

A

Blastomyces dermatidis

275
Q 
Which of the following antifungals work on the mitotic spindles and NOT on ergosterol formation?
A.  Amphotericin B
 B.  Fluconazole
C.  Ketoconazole 
D.  Griseofulvin
A

D

276
Q 
Which of the following is NOT reportable?
A.  Mycoplasma gallisepticum
B.  Campylobacter fetus subsp veneralis
 C.  Clostridium botulinum
D.  Chlamydia psittiaci
E.  Ehrlichia ruminantium
A

C

277
Q

You examine a pet bird that is having respiratory signs. Which bacteria you need to have in mind when you are examining this bird that can be a potential threat?

A

Chlamydia psittaci

278
Q

You are called out to examine a 4-year old dromedary who was castrated 10-days ago and is now not eaDng. The groin and prepucial area is extremely swollen. The animal is unable to stand and is drooling. His neck is extended and he appears to be unable to swallow. Which of the following is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

A

Clostridium tetani

279
Q

What organ is normally affected by prototheca in dogs?

A

skin and intestines

280
Q

You don’t get a lot of days off work so you decide walk in the park. You notice that there are a lot of frogs that appear to have died suddenly and are floating in a pond. What organism is it most likely to have killed the frogs?

A

Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis

BacT (2 decks)

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