exam 3 Flashcards
how is Vibrio cholera transmitted
fecal oral route
In seawater and brackish water and is in human food infections such as raw fish and shellfish
Vibrio parahaemolyticus
“salt water furunculosis” and is septicemic in fish
Vibrio anguillarum (Listonella anguillarum)
causes cat scratch disease in humans
Bartonella henselae
causes Rat bite fever in humans and cervical lymphadenitis in Guinea pigs
Streptobacillus moniliformis
T/F
Spirillum minus can be cultured on artificial media
FALSE
what does Nicoletella semolina cause
Respiratory distress in horses
what does Uruburuella suis cause
respiratory distress in pigs
Stenotrophomonas maltophilia causes what?
Hospital infection, humans
Pelistega europeae
respiratory distress in pigeons
T/F
Campylobacter, Helicobacter, and Lawsonia are all opportunistic intracellular pathogens
FALSE – opportunistic EXTRACELLULAR
habitat of campylobacter
gastrointestinal tract or lower genital tract
what type of oxygen requirement does campylobacter have
microaerophilic
campylobacter species that is the major cause of Gastroenteritis, diarrhea and bacteremia in all species
C. jejuni
campylobacter jejuni is a major food safety pathogen. where would you see the most incidences of it in food
broilers!! meat chickens
then pigs and raw milk from cattle
what toxin from C. jejuni causes cell cycle arrest
Cytolethal distending toxin (CDT)
T/F
Campylobacter jejuni can become bacteremic in pregnant animals and cause abortions
TRUE
T/F
Campylobacter jejuni is always severe
FALSE – rarely severe – normally self limiting and benign
in severe cases of campylobacter jejuni what two antimicrobial drugs might you choose
macrolides and fluoroquinolones
which causes more bacterial diarrhea in humans
campylobacter or salmonella
CAMPylobacter
what are some good ways to try and prevent getting campylobacter, because no one wants to shit their pants all day
- Food and kitchen hygiene
- Cooking meat fully
- Fly control chicken houses?
- Slaughterhouse processing
bovine venereal campylobacteriosis is caused by what species of campylobacter
Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis
what does Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis cause
Subclinical infection in preputial crypts of bulls – no disease in the bulls though just carriers chronically
Endometritis and salpingitis of varying severity may cause transient infertility and early embryonic deaths
T/F
Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis causes prolonged breeding cycles and frequent abortions
FALSE – abortions are rare !! (10%)
what are some control mechanisms for Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis
only use test negative bulls for breeding
use bulls that are less than 5 years old
Commensals in the intestinal tract of cattle and sheep that causes ovine genital campylobacteriosis
Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus
T/F
with Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus cattle are more likely to have abortions than sheep
FALSE – sheep are
how do she contract Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus
ingestion through contaminated food and water
get bacteremia then inflammation of placenta and abortion
Gram negative microaerophilic bacterium in the stomach the causes gastric ulcers and is associated with gastric neoplasms
Helicobacter pylori
what is the acid neutralizing virulence factor that H. pylori has
extracellular urease
are mouse pathogens involved in hepatic necrosis, nonsuppurative hepatitis, hepatocellular tumors
Helicobacter hepaticus and Helicobacter bilis
involved in hypergastrinemia and peptic ulcers in ferrets
Helicobacter mustelae
what is the only cell line that Lawsonia intracellularis can be cultured in
enterocyte cell lines
intracellular bacteria which replicate in the apical cytoplasm of enterocytes
Lawsonia
Associated with porcine proliferative enteropathy
Lawsonia intracellularis
T/F
Lawsonia are intracellular bacteria which replicate in the apical cytoplasm of enterocytes
TRUE
where do you administer the antimicrobials to treat Lawsonia
in the feed and water
T/F
most anaerobic infections are of exogenous origin
FALSE - endogenous **air is toxic to them
T/F
anaerobic conditions typically don’t respond to ahminoglycosides
TRUE
Gram Positive spore forming Anaerobic rods
Clostridium sp.
toxin from C. perfringens is one of the most lethal toxins and considered as a Bioterrorism agent
Epsilon toxin
All pathogenic Clostridia produce one or more _____ toxin or extracellular enzymes
protein
a common predisposing factor for and host response to clostridial infection
necrosis
what environments are clostridium commonly found
soil and GIT
the three major types of clostridial diseases
Histotoxic; Enterotoxic; Neurotoxic.
causes tetanus in humans and animals
Clostridium tetani
**causes spastic paralysis
HORSE > human > all other species
the potent neurotoxin produced by C. tetani
tetanospasmin
where does C. tetani grow in the host
grows in contaminated wounds
– produces toxin – endocytosis into motor nerves – retrograde transport – Prevents release of neurotransmitters
Ascending tetanus
toxin travels from the regional motor nerve in the limb, tetanus develops in limbs first then spread to other parts; Occurs in less susceptible animals (dogs and cats)
Descending Tetanus
Toxin in the blood stream affects motor nerve centers in the head and neck first and then spread to the limbs; seen in more susceptible species (humans and horses)
T/F
culture and serology are the best ways to Dx tetanus
False
how is Anti-tetanus equine serum given
IM or IV
**complication of anaphylaxis
how is immunization created for C. tetani
Toxoid immunization
and booster – post exposure prophylaxis \
ESPECIALLY HORSES AND PEOPLE
Food intoxication (food poisoning) due to consumption of food contaminated with botulinum neurotoxin
botulism from Clostridium botulinum
**inhibits neurotransmitter ACh release - flaccid paralysis
the most powerful exotoxin known; 1 μg will kill a person
Botulinum toxin
clinical signs of botulism
Symmetrical flaccid paralysis of muscles
Early symptoms in humans usually involve cranial nerve functions (double vision, dysphagia, speech dysfunction, etc.)
Early symptoms in other mammals usually involve hind limb paralysis, recumbence
Skeletal muscle paralysis can lead to respiratory failure
T/F
using antitoxin is a good way to treat Botulism, but it affects the bound toxin only
FALSE – unbound only
**only works if the animal is still actively absorbing the toxin – once it enters the blood stream it is quickly bound to receptors
causes black leg
Clostridium chauvoei
Acute, febrile, highly fatal disease of cattle and sheep leading to necrotizing myositis in healthy young calves at pasture in summer
Black Leg
T/F
the fatality rate for Clostridium chauvoei is 100%
TRUE
C. novyi Type A
Exogenous, gas gangrene (big head in rams)
C. novyi Type B
Endogenous, cause Black disease (infectious necrotic hepatitis), Predisposed by fluke damage
Endogenous infection cause liver damage and Bacillary hemoglobinuria in Cattle and sheep
C. hemolyticum (C. novyi Type D)
Causes Braxy in sheep (Abomasal edema from endogenous spores)
causes necrotic dermatitis in chickens
and causes malignant edema
C. septicum
what is malignant edema
gas gangrene — Wound infection by a histotoxic Clostridium
- Serious, deep (“anaerobic”), traumatic wound
- Characterized by rapidity (usually), gas formation, toxemia
what are some of the risk factors for getting C. septicum
Risk factors include IM injections in horses; shearing, docking, and lambing in sheep; and traumatic parturition and castration in cattle
antimicrobial treatment of necrotic myositis
penicillin
*only if given early in the infection process
T/F
All C. perfringens have alpha toxin
TRUE
the overeating disease and pulpy kidney in sheep and goats
C. perfringens Type D enterotoxemia
what is pulpy kidney disease
Rapid postmortem autolysis of the kidneys
C. perfringens Type ___ causes necrotizing enteritis in piglets
C
T/F
neonates are most susceptible to Clostridium difficile
FALSE – neonates are resistant
**Risk factors include recent antibiotic use, old age, hospitalization
Clostridium species that causes enterocolitis and affects colon and cecum of man, horse, pig, dog, cat, laboratory
rodents, others
Clostridium difficile
**often a fatal colitis from animals who were given broad spectrum Ab and destroyed the normal intestinal flora while allowing the C. difficile to proliferate
term for a microbial imbalance on or inside the body
Dysbiosis or dysbacteriosis
T/F
to treat Clostridium difficile in horses, use clindamycin
FALSE – never do that
Approaches to treatment of C. difficile diarrhea
Fecal transplant LOL
pro-biotics
supportive electrolytes and fluids
drugs contraindicated in rabbits
Lincomycin, clindamycin, and erythromycin
they induce Clostridium-related (eg, C difficile and C. spiroforme) enterotoxemia due to their selective effect on normal gram-positive bacteria
Causes enterotoxemia and explosive diarrheal disease primarily in rabbits 4–8 wk old
Clostridium spiroforme
Clostridium spiroforme is a commensal bacteria which produces an ____ toxin
iota
bacteria that causes Tyzzer’s Disease
Clostridium piliforme
**in lab animals bacteria is seen in bundles in the hepatocytes
Acute, fatal diarrheal disease of lab animals with associated focal liver necrosis
Clostridium piliforme
T/F
Characteristically, nonsporeforming bacteria are found in “mixed bacterial infections”, involving breaks in mucosal or epithelial barriers
TRUE
involved in liver abscess and footrot in cattle and sheep, and other nonspecific infections
Fusobacterium necrophorum
Foot Rot
Fusobacterium necrophorum– cattle
Dichelobacter nodosus – sheep
(extensive necrosis and keratinolysis in severe cases)
TX – Remove necrotic tissue, dip in antiseptic foot baths and give antimicrobials
where is Leptospira maintained and secreted?
in the renal tubules of reservoir animals
excreted through urine and contaminate the environment (water)
Leptospira in humans
Flu like illness and protean manifestations
Complications from renal, pulmonary, hepatic and CNS disease
Leptospira in livestock
Disease of production and reproduction
which hosts do long term shedding of leptospira
the maintenance hosts
**incidental = short term shedding and severe disease
Leptospirosis-Dogs
clinical signs
Renal or hepatic injury, uveitis, pulmonary hemorrhage, abortion
clinical signs include polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, inappetence, lethargy, or abdominal pain)
Signs of hepatic and Renal failure, including icterus.
Bleeding abnormalities and disseminated intravascular coagulation(DIC)
T/F
the mortality rate of leptospirosis in dogs is very high
FALSE
Mortality 11-27%
Biphasic nature of leptospira
phase 1 – leptospiremia PCR blood - fever/myalgia
phase 2 - leptospiruria - PCR urine – icterus and renal failure
antibodies continue to increase – MAT test last (microscopic agglutination test)
Measures antibody titers to Leptospira serovars using an agglutination test which uses live Leptospira serovars
gold standard test for leptospira
microscopic agglutination test
- *requires a live culture
- *Reported to be serovar-specific but cross-reactivity is very common
What antimicrobial do you use to treat in the acute disease of leptospira
ampicillin,amoxicillin
penicillins
what antimicrobial do you use for the carriers
doxycycline
Leptospirosis in ruminants
Leptospira borgpetersennii serovar hardjo is host adapted in cattle resulting in reproductive failure due to early embryonic death and repeat breeding
In the USA and Canada, serovars ____ and _____ are the most common causes of equine leptospirosis.
pomona and grippotyphosa
T/F
Clinical leptospirosis in horses is most commonly associated with abortions, systemic illness in foals
TRUE
most widespread zoonotic dz in people
Leptospira
**Leptospirosis is estimated to cause more than 1 million severe cases and approximately 60,000 deaths per year
Leptospira serovars in pigs
serovars Pomona and Bratislava
**causes reproductive failure as evidenced by infertility and sporadic abortion
causes Syphilis a sexually transmitted disease in humans
Treponema pallidum
Papillomatous digital dermatitis (PDD) is also known as this disease
“Hairy Heel Warts” – Growing cause of lameness of cows in the U.S. dairy industry.
• Economic loss due to treatment costs, decreased milk production, lower
reproductive efficiency, and premature culling.
• Affects around more than 40 % of US dairy Herds
• Treponema brennaborense???
Treponema paraluis-cuniculi affects what species
Rabbit syphilis or Vent diseases in rabbits
**Epidermal hyperplasia with erosions, ulcers Increase susceptibility to other infections
T/F
Treponema paraluis-cuniculi is self limiting
TRUE
B. hyodysenteriae causes swine dysentery in actively growing pigs (6-12 weeks of age)
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
**a contagious, mucohaemorrhagic, fibrinonecrotic colitis of weaned pigs, a disease that has virtually disappeared because of changed structure of production in the swine industry, breaking the transmission cycle from older carrier swine, linked to poor environmental survival of the organism.
how is Brachyspira hyodysenteriae transmitted
fecal oral
T/F
asymptomatic carriers of Brachyspira hyodysenteriae are the most important mode of transmission from farm to farm
TRUE
T/F
Brachyspira hyodysenteriae will cause lesions in the small intestine and the large intestine / colon of pigs
FALSE – Lesions in the large intestine only (caecum, colon) Fibrinonecrotic pseudomembranous colitis
what type of stain can you use to diagnose Brachyspira hyodysenteriae??
What must it be differentiated from??
Victoria Blue stain
Salmonellosis
causes lyme disease
Borrelia burgdorferi
Most common vector borne bacterial disease in humans US
lyme disease
tell me about the LPS stuff for Borrelia burgdorferi
Osp C to Osp A in midgut of ticks & in culture Osp A to Osp C in salivary gland of tick
Osp C in mammals early in infection
T/F
Ticks will always become infected when feeding on animals
FALSE
Ticks become infected only when feeding on animal with sufficiently high level of bacteremia
often the first sign of lyme infection in human beings
Skin rash (erythema migrans)
Canine lyme disease clinical signs
Typical clinical signs in dogs are fever, acute arthritis,
arthralgia and lameness. Sometimes accompanied by
anorexia, lethargy and depression.
canine lyme disease treatment and control
Doxycycline
vector control
Vaccine for dogs (bacterin, subunit Osp A)
T/F
the vaccine for canine lyme disease will prevent infection
FALSE
Vaccine for dogs (bacterin, subunit Osp A)
Reduces incidence of disease in endemic region, does not prevent infection.
T/F
Rickettsia are arthropod transmitted parasites of blood cells or endothelial cells, while Chlamydia are parasites of epithelial cells
TRUE
what antimicrobial are Rickettsia and Chlamydia susceptible to?
Tetracycline
T/F
Rickettsia and Chlamydia are highly specialized, obligate
intracellular bacteria which grow only in cells
TRUE
what is the morphology of Rickettsia and Chlamydia
They are Gram-negative coccobacilli
Fungus invade the tissue and induce its pathogenic effect
fungal infections
Fungal contamination or growth on food material leads accumulation of toxins and when consumed induce severe disease
Mycotoxicoses
Inhaled fungal spores induce hypersensitivity and allergy
allergies
A mycotic infection of humans and lower animals caused by a number of dematiaceous (brown-pigmented) fungus
Phaeohyphomycosis
A mycotic infection of the cutaneous and subcutaneous tissues characterised by the development in tissue of dematiaceous (brown- pigmented), rounded sclerotic bodies. Infections are caused by the traumatic
implantation of fungal elements into the skin and are chronic, slowly progressive and localised
Chromoblastomycosis
Zygomycosis
any infection due to a member of the Zygomycetes. These are primitive, fast growing, terrestrial, largely saprophytic fungi ( Mucor, Rhizopus, Rhizomucor, Mucor, Mortierella).
is a mycotic infection of humans and animals caused by a number of different fungi and actinomycetes characterized by draining sinuses, granules and tumefaction. The disease results from the traumatic implantation of the etiologic agent and usually involves the cutaneous and subcutaneous tissue, fascia and bone of the foot or hand.
Mycetoma
Slowly expanding, circular area of alopecia and desquamated epithelium
Central hair regrowth, inflamed edge. Often multiple differently sized lesions
classic ring worm lesion
direct examination of dermatophytes
wet mount of plucked parasitized hairs, 10% KOH warmed for 15 minutes to clear keratin, see large number of spores (arthroconidia) on broken hairs.
Their Location whether ectothrix (out side the hair follicle) or endothrix (inside the hair follicle) can be used for species identification
Tx ringworm
Hygiene: Isolation; treatment bedding with formalin or washing in bleach;
• environmental decontamination
• Isolate infected animals
• Clip hair, especially for extensive lesions
• Bedding should be discarded (burned) and
• grooming equipment disinfected (0.5% sodium
• hypochlorite) Isolation of infected animal, treatment of bedding with formalin, washing at high temperatures in dilute bleach, or burning; environmental disinfection, use of vacuum cleaners with filters
prevent ringworm in shelters
- Examination of animals at admission
- Detection of animals using Wood’s lamp or fungal culture following collection on a clean toothbrush by 2-3 minutes of skin sampling
- Use of isolation facilities
- Use of protective clothing and gloves
- Topical treatment of exposed but culture-negative animals and Combinations of oral and topical treatment of exposed, culture-positive or pending normal animals and clinically affected animals
- Post-treatment testing
- Cleaning and disinfection 8. immunization ?
Cause of Rocky Mountain spotted fever in humans, dogs
Rickettsia rickettsia
- Bacterium transmitted by the cat flea
- Causes “flea-borne spotted fever” in humans,
- Causes inapparent infection in cats
Rickettsia felis
Louse borne rickettsiosis in humans and flying squirrels causing typhus worldwide
Rickettsia prowazekii
murine typhus
Rickettsia typhi
causes scab typhus
Orientia tsutsugamushi
Piscirickettsiosis in farmed fish
Piscirickettsia salmonis
Family of parasites of haematopoietic(bone marrow derived cells) of vertebrate hosts
Family: Anaplasmataceae
**Transmitted by EITHER invertebrate host (trematode =
Neorickettsia) or a vector (tick)
Anaplasma phagocytophilum is found where in the host
the neutrophils
how is Anaplasma phagocytophilum transmitted
ixodes tick
what does Anaplasma phagocytophilum cause
• Necrotizing small vessel vasculitis
• Disease: Fever, depression, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, muscle
pain; rarely shock, fatal
• Horses; Usually mild subclinical limb edema, icterus, ataxia; may be rapidly fatal (DIC)
• Dogs: Necrotizing small vessel vasculitis
this infects the platelets and causes Infectious cyclic thrombocytopenia
Anaplasma platys
*often asymptomatic
Anaplasma marginale targets what cell type
erythrocytes
Causes anaplasmosis in ruminants
Anaplasma marginale
T/F
Calves are much more resistant to disease than older cattle to Anaplasma marginale
TRUE
Tropical pancytopenia of dogs in US, SE Asia
Ehrlichia canis
**brown dog tick borne infection
Canine granulocytic ehrlichiosis.
E. ewingii
NAME THE GENUS:
Tick-borne infections
Infections of haematopoietic or endothelial cells
Source persistently bacteremic rodents, canids, or ruminants
Ehrlichia
also called heart water disease in ruminants
Ehrlichia ruminantium
what cells does Ehrlichia ruminantium replicate in
macrophages and endothelial cells
what tick is the vector of heart water disease
amblyoma
T/F
Ehrlichia ruminantium is reportable
TRUE
NAME THE GENUS:
• Small intracellular bacteria
• Monocytes - macrophages
• Infectious cycle includes transmission by trematode (fluke) vectors
Genus: Neorickettsia
also called Potomac Horse Fever
Neorickettsia risticii
**june to october
Causes salmon poisoning in dogs(and in polar bears and raccoons, coyotes) in Pacific Northwest coast
Neorickettsia helminthoeca
what cells does Neorickettsia helminthoeca infect
mononuclear
what are the clinical signs of Neorickettsia helminthoeca
Fever, depression dehydration anorexia vomiting , hemorrhagic diarrhoea, lymphadenopathy
T/F
there is a low case fatality rate for Neorickettsia helminthoeca
FALSE – high
intracellular replicating form of chlamydia
reticulate body
extracellular non-replicating form of chlamydia
elementary body
T/F
Chlamydia generates ATP on its own
FALSE – energy parasites
T/F
Chlamydia is an obligate intracellular bacteria
TRUE
T/F
Chlamydia psittaci infections are zoonotic
TRUE
Avian chlamydiosis
Chlamydia psittaci
ZOONOTIC
REPORTABLE
BSL3
Avian chlamydiosis pathogenesis
- Elementary bodies shed by carriers (feces) or diseased birds, inhaled into lung
- Goes through life cycle in epithelial and phagocytic cells
- Causes septicemic, multi-organ infection
- Bronchiolitis, bronchopneumonia, fibrinous polyserositis, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, death
- Persistent carrier, shedder
T/F
all birds should be vaccinated for Avian chlamydiosis
FALSE BC THERE ISNT A VACCINE
causes Polyarthritis in lambs and calves AKA stiff lamb disease
Chlamydia pecorum
causes Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis (SBE) and febrile diseases mainly in young cattle
Chlamydia pecorum
Known as agent of feline pneumonitis
Chlamydia felis
the most common signs of Chlamydia felis
The most common signs are conjunctivitis and rhinitis Endemic in housecats worldwide (low zoonotic risk)
what antimicrobial would you use to treat chlamydia
tetracycline
**Used for treatment and metaphylaxis
T/F
chlamydia vaccines treat and prevent disease
FALSE -
vaccines do not prevent shedding, but can reduce incidence and severity of disease
Causes Q (Queensland) fever
Coxiella burnetii
**May cause placentitis and abortion sheep, goats, cattle
zoonotic clinical signs of Q fever
Prolonged serious febrile influenza-like illness, sometimes pneumonia, hepatitis, endocarditis
smallest free living bacteria with no cell wall
mycoplasma
T/F
mycoplasma are very susceptible to penicillin
FALSE
Mollicutes: Mycoplasma
• Inhabit mucous membranes (obligate parasites) of respiratory and reproductive tracts
• Affinity to ciliated epithelium
• Most are host specific and have heavy
dependency to host nutrients
• Transmission through close contact
• Causes localized, low grade persistent infections
• (respiratory tract ++++, genital tract +, conjunctiva +, udder+, sometimes septicemia)
• Hemotrophic species are RBC parasites
• Fastidious: Difficult to isolate in the lab
infection of red blood cells
Hemoplasma
Enzootic pneumonia of swine
Mycoplasma hyopneumonia
**Mitogenic activity produces hyperplasia BALT (“cuffing pneumonia”)
how to prevent Mycoplasma hyopneumonia
- Control by SPF herds, herd biosecurity
- Monitoring at slaughter or serologically,
- Immunization
- Addressing Secondary bacterial infections
Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia
Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides (Small Colony variant)
most virulent mycoplasma in cattle
Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides (Small Colony variant)
REPORTABLE
mycoplasma bovis
Causes Upper respiratory tract
Bronchopneumonia, seen in cattle with feedlot pneumonia (part of Bovine respiratory disease complex(“BRDC”)
Increasingly important in recent years
Mastitis: Highly infectious in large herds leading to gland fibrosis, purulent plugs
Arthritis (concurrent with pneumonia, mastitis)
Mycoplasma mastitis will cause what in cattle
• Drop in milk production
• Milk becomes thick and intermixed with
watery and purulent secretions
• Udder can be swollen and the four quarters can be affected-fibrosis
• Disseminated infection can follow
Enlarged supra-mammary lymph nodes in a cow with mastitis

Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia
Mycoplasma. capricolum susbsp. Capripneumoniae- Fatal disease Fatal foreign animal and Reortable Disease
what are the two avian mycoplasmas
M. gallisepticum and M. synoviae: REPORTABLE DISEASES!!!!
Mycoplasma gallisepticum
Chronic respiratory diseases in chicken and turkeys
Coughing, nasal discharges, tracheal rales, Sinusitis with production of thick mucoid exudate, Decrease in egg production
Mycoplasma Synoviae
Synovitis resulting in lameness, swelling of joints,Retarded growth
M. meleagridis and M. iowae are mainly what species
TURKEYS – cause respiratory diseases, skeletal deformities, decrease egg hatchability
causes selflimitting pleuritis in horses
mycoplasma felis
Mycoplasma hemofelis target cells
erythrocytes
what disease does Mycoplasma hemofelis cause
feline infectious anemia in cats
what are the clinical signs of Mycoplasma hemofelis
fever, anemia, depression,
weakness, icterus
Mycoplasma hemosuis target cell
erythrocytes of PIGS (in poorly managed herds)
**Found in plasma and RBC swine as coccoid forms with Giemsa stain
Mycoplasma hemosuis clinical signs
fever, anemia, weakness, icterus
dark pigmented hyphae
Dematiaceous fungus
non pigmented hyphae
Hyaline fungus
fungal infections limited to the outermost layers of the skin and hair
superficial
fungal infections that extend deeper into the epidermis as well as invasive hair and nail diseases
cutaneous
fungal infectionsinvolvingthedermis, subcutaneous tissues, muscle and fascia
subcutaneous
fungal infectionsthatoriginateprimarilyinthelungbut spread to many other organs
systemic
what type of stain is this:
Requires UV microscope
Large sections of tissue can be examined rapidly Binds to chitin in cell walls of most fungi
calcofluor on fresh tissue
(classic fungal medium)
low pH and dextrose in the media inhibit bacterial growth to a limited extent
Sabouraud Dextrose Agar
Sabouraud Dextrose Agar with cycloheximide
Cycloheximide inhibits growth of saprophytic molds allowing selection for pathogenic fungi
what anti fungal drugs Inhibit ergosterol
Polyenes (amphoterocin B, natamycin, nystatin) AND Azoles (imidazoles and triazoles) AND Allylamines (terbinafine)
what anti fungal drugs Inhibit Nucleic acid synthesis
Flucytosine
what does griseofulvin do to fungus
Binds to mitotic spindles; inhibits mitosis, Administered orally; accumulates in keratin, Only used for dermatophytes Teratogenic in cats )
T/F
immunity to fungal infections is mainly cell mediated
TRUE
Candida albicans is in the normal flora of what areas
Normal flora of mouth, intestine, lower urogenital tract animals and humans
reversibly transitions from single- cell to pseudohyphal and hyphal forms
C. albicans reversibly transitions from single- cell to pseudohyphal and hyphal forms
a common condition manifested as whitish-yellow hyperkeratotic lesions.
Thrush
what causes thrush
Candida albicans
T/F
C. albicans plaques, in tongue, mouth, proventriculus, stomach
TRUE
Thick-walled, bottle-shaped yeast yeast, 3-8 μm Lipophilic yeast
Malassezia pachydermatis
this yeast may cause otitis externa in dogs
Malassezia pachydermatis
what glands are Malassezia pachydermatis associated with
sebaceous
Malassezia pachydermatis is a commensal of …
skin of animals
Large round to oval, budding yeast that is associated with pigeon droppings
Cryptococcus neoformans
Large round to oval, budding yeast that is associated with eucalyptus trees
cryptococcus gatti
__________ capsule prominent in vivo is an important virulence factor for cryptococcus
Mucopolysaccharide
yeast that is a disease of the immunocompromised that causes gelatinous masses and polyps with numerous organisms and minimal inflammation
Cryptococcus neoformans
Cryptococcus neoformans is CNS manifestations are most common in this species
CATS
Cryptococcosis Treatment
- Long term treatment is needed. Continue until serum antigen negative or at least one month past resolution of clinical signs
- Amphotericin B, flucytosine, Azoles
- Surgical removal of masses
Dimorphic fungus characterised by large broad- based budding yeast 5-20 μm diameter, with a thick cell wall
Blastomyces
Blastomyces route of entry and 2 most common species
inhalation
dogs and humans
T/F
disseminated disease of Blastomyces is rare
FALSE – common
**usually with clinical or subclinical pulmonary involvement, cutaneous, ocular and bone are the most common secondary sites in dogs
T/F
there are no vaccines available for Blastomyces
TRUE
Thermally dimorphic fungus that is small, oval yeast frequently seen in macrophage in infected tissue
Histoplasma capsulatum
Histoplasma capsulatum BSL level
3
Endemic in Ohio, Missouri and Mississippi river valleys of U.S.
Grows in great abundance in dark, moist soil covered with bird (chicken/blackbird/starling roosts) or bat droppings (caves)
Histoplasma capsulatum
Histoplasmosis route of entry
inhalation
favors dry and dusty conditions - disturbances of soil
Granulomatous chorioretinitis in cats is the most common ocular sign for this dimorphic fungus
Histoplasmosis
Intestinal disease is common in dogs but not in human infection for this dimorphic fungus
Histoplasmosis
T/F
Histoplasmosis is very contagious from animal to animals
FALSE
what do you look for microscopically to Dx Histoplasmosis
Small intracytoplasmic yeast cells in the macrophages
Dimorphic fungus, but does not produce yeast form instead large, thick walled spherules containing endospores in tissue
Coccidioides immitis
Coccidioides immitis BSL
3
Coccidioidomycosis entry
Entry by inhalation of arthroconidia
what is the common form of the disseminated form of Coccidioidomycosis
osteomyelitis
Thermally dimorphic fungus that is cigar-shaped, elongated, pleomorphic yeast in tissue
The fungus lives in sphagnum moss, hay, other plant materials, and soil
Sporothrix schenkii
Associated with coarse-stemmed, thorny and woody plants and entry usually by puncture wound
Sporothrix schenkii
what drug is clostridium spp susceptible to
metronidazole
- Corneal abrasion by straw in horses
* Infection of damaged cornea with mold
Mycotic keratitis
Avian Aspergillosis is also called this
brooder pneumonia
T/F
Aspergillus sp. and other opportunistic fungal agents can cause fungal pneumonia in animals
TRUE
Achlorophyllous algae
prototheca
most common symptom of prototheca
bloody D+
what species of prototheca is more susceptible to Tx
P. wickerhamii
T/F
prototheca is highly transmissible between hosts
FALSE - rare disease
water molds…
Oomycetes
Pythium insidiosum and Lagenidium spp.
an emergent disease of hibernating bats that has spread from the north-eastern to the central United States at an alarming rate. This devastating disease. is named for the white fungus, Pseudogymnoascus destructans, that infects skin of the muzzle, ears, and wings of hibernating bats
white nose syndrome
nasal polyps and cutaneous cysts in mammals & birds
Rhinosporidium
pneumonia in animals with immunodeficiency
Pneumocystis
Oomycetes (water molds):
Pythium insidiosum and Lagenidium spp. cause what,,,
Cutaneous & GI disease in dogs
Cutaneous disease in horses, cats, people
Humans: Arteritis, Keratitis, Periorbital cellulitis, Cutaneous/Subcutaneous lesions
P. insidiosum
Pythiosis in horses(‘swamp cancer’, ‘Florida horse leech, kunkers)
T/F
Vaccine available for Pythium
TRUE
in amphibians Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis causing cutaneous disease in amphibians associated with global population declines
Chytridiomycosis
econdary metabolites produced by fungi that are capable of causing disease and death in humans and other animals
mycotoxins
list some major mycotoxins
- Aflatoxins
- Ergot alkaloids
- Fumonisin
- Ochratoxin
- Zearalenone
Which of the following Ricke0siales causes Q fever in Ruminants
Coxiella burnetti
Which of the following is paired incorrectly?
A. Chlamydia psi0aci= Avian chlamydiosis
B. Microsporum canis = Ringworm
C. Lawsonia intracellularis= Swine dysentery
D. Campylobacter fetus subsp venerealis = Bovine venereal campylobacteriosis
E. Neoricke0sia risDcii = Potomac horse fever
C!
Lawsonia is with porcine proliferative enteritis
Which of the following symptoms do you expect to see in a cat infected with Mycoplasma hemofelis? A. ConjuncDviDs and chemosis B. Bone marrow suppression C. Chronic respiratory disease D. Fever and hemolyDc anemia
D
HEMOfelis HEMOlytic anemia
What bacteria causes Tyzzer’s Diseases in Rodents? A. Clostridium piliforme B. Chlamydia pecorum C. Clostridium perfringens D. OrienDa tsutsugamushi E. Treponema paraluis 
A
A cat presents with rhiniDs, nasal granulomas and CNS signs. You did a cytology and found this.
Which of the following might have caused the symptoms?
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Candida albicans
C. Coccidiodes immiDs
D. Malassezia pachydermaDDs
E. Blastomyces dermaDDdis
A
Which of the following is affected by Histoplasma capsulatum var capsulatum? A. Lungs and Eyes/Skin B. Lungs and Bones C. Lungs and GI D. Skin and Lymph nodes
C
You are called to a farm in which several sheep have aborted. You examine the fetus and find necroDc donut-shaped lesions in the liver. What bacteria might have caused this?
Campylobacter fetus subsp fetus
Which of the following are considered histotoxic Clostridium? A. Clostridium botulinum B. Clostridium chauvoei C. Clostridium piliforme D. Clostridium spiroforme E. Clostridium novyi F. Clostridium sepDcum
B
E
F
Which of the following is FALSE about Dermatophytes?
A. Causes ring-shaped skin lesions
B. Produces macronidia in culture
C. All species can be diagnosed with a Wood’s lamp, except M. canis
D. ParasiDzes keraDnized epithermal structures ONLY
E. M canis can affect dogs, cats and horses
C
You decide to do a necropsy on several young pigs that died due to severe diarrhea. You find that they have a fibrinonecrotic pseudomembranous colits extending throughout the entire colon. What bacteria are you most suspicious of? A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Lawsonia intracellularis C. Borrelia burgdorferi D. Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
D
which antibiotic is best to treat clostridium
Metronidazole
Which of the following is paired incorrectly? A. Ehrlichia canis = monocytes B. Anaplasma platys = platelets C. Anaplasma centrale = erythrocytes D. Ehrlichia ruminantium = erythrocytes E. Ehrlichia ewingii = neutrophils
D – ehrlichia is in monocytes and macrophages
Which of the following is NOT part of the Ricke0sia Typhus group? A. Rickettsia typhi B. Orientia tsutsugamushi C. Rickettsia prowasekii D. Rickettsia ricke0sii
D
Which of the following does NOT cause aborDon in ruminants? A. Chlamydia abortus B. Leptospira spp C. Coxiella burnetti D. Treponema spp E. Campylobacter spp
D
Your practicing in Ohio and you notice that more dogs are coming in with respiratory signs and skin lesions. You do a TTW and send some issues samples to a lab. What are you expecting?
Blastomyces dermatidis
Which of the following antifungals work on the mitotic spindles and NOT on ergosterol formation? A. Amphotericin B B. Fluconazole C. Ketoconazole D. Griseofulvin
D
Which of the following is NOT reportable? A. Mycoplasma gallisepticum B. Campylobacter fetus subsp veneralis C. Clostridium botulinum D. Chlamydia psittiaci E. Ehrlichia ruminantium
C
You examine a pet bird that is having respiratory signs. Which bacteria you need to have in mind when you are examining this bird that can be a potential threat?
Chlamydia psittaci
You are called out to examine a 4-year old dromedary who was castrated 10-days ago and is now not eaDng. The groin and prepucial area is extremely swollen. The animal is unable to stand and is drooling. His neck is extended and he appears to be unable to swallow. Which of the following is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Clostridium tetani
What organ is normally affected by prototheca in dogs?
skin and intestines
You don’t get a lot of days off work so you decide walk in the park. You notice that there are a lot of frogs that appear to have died suddenly and are floating in a pond. What organism is it most likely to have killed the frogs?
Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis
