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PTA 220 Pathology > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are primary, secondary, and tertiary care?

A

Primary: preventing disease through promotion; primary doctor
Secondary: disease duration of illness, severity; PT
Tertiary: limiting degree of disability and promoting rehab with chronic/irreversible diseases

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2
Q

ICF

A

International classification functioning

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3
Q

What is the occurrence rate or frequency of a disease known as?

A

Incidence

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4
Q

What is the proportion of population within a certain condition/disease known as?

A

Prevalence

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5
Q

What is known as a communicable disease in a large number of people within a population?

A

Epidemic

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6
Q

What is known as a communicable disease within a particular area or population?

A

Endemic

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7
Q

What is known as a multi-continent epidemic?

A

Pandemic

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8
Q

What is the study of cause and distribution of diseases?

A

Epidemiology

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9
Q

What is the study of cause of disease?

A

Etiology

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10
Q

How is a disease classified that is a medical error?

A

Latrogenic Disorder

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11
Q

How do you classify a disease that was developed during a stay at a hospital/clinic?

A

Nosocomial

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12
Q

What are two theories of aging?

A
  1. Genetically programmed-biological timeline

2. Damage of error from insults-environmental assaults

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13
Q

How much CD4 T-cells does a person with HIV have?

A

<200 Tcells

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14
Q

What are three disease preventing measures?

A
  1. Immunization
  2. Handwashing
  3. Antibacterial gels
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15
Q

What are the modes of transmission for communicable disease?

A 
Contact
Enteric
Airborne
Vector/intermediary
Blood borne
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16
Q

What is difference between bacteria vs virus?

A

Bacteria:

  • cell wall
  • may/may not require host
  • most require O2, some need specific pH

Virus:

  • no cell wall
  • require host
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17
Q

What treatment inhibits cell wall synthesis or metabolism to destroy bacteria or limit growth?

A

Antibiotics

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18
Q

How is bacteria classified?

A

Shape, stain, culture

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19
Q 
Bacteria or Virus:
MRSA
Flu
Polio
Cellulitis
HIV
Herpes
A 
Bacteria
Virus
Virus
Bacteria
Virus
Virus
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20
Q

What is a bacterial skin infection that is commonly found in the lower leg?

A

Cellulitis

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21
Q

How do you fight viral infections?

A
  • Anti-viral agents

- prevention is key (vaccines)

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22
Q

What causes the highest number of STDs in the USA?

A

Chlamydia

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23
Q

What disease has a parasite burrow under upper layer of skin and causes itching and rash?

A

Scabies

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24
Q

What are the treatments for scabies?

A
  • avoid contact with infected
  • launder all clothing with hot water
  • scabicide ointment
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25
Q

What are the deadliest types of HAI?

A

HAI: health-care associated infection

  1. Central line associated
  2. Surgical sites
  3. Ventilator and tracheostomy
  4. In-dwelling catheter
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26
Q

What is the most common but less deadly healthcare-associated infection?

A

Clostridium difficile (cdiff)

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27
Q

What are the factors affecting tissue healing?

A
  • Vascular insufficiency
  • comorbidities
  • decreased O2 perfusion
  • tabacco
  • nutrition
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28
Q

Inappropriate immune response

A

Allergy

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29
Q

Inadequate immune response

A

Immunodeficiency

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30
Q

Immune response is misdirected to own body

A

Autoimmunity

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31
Q

What food should people with celiac disease avoid the most?

A

Gluten

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32
Q

Can someone with HIV exercise?

A

Yes, but at low intensities

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33
Q

Can someone acquire an allergy to latex if exposed to it often?

A

Yes

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34
Q

HIV

A

Human Immunodeficiency virus

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35
Q

How is HIV treated?

A

Antiretroviral therapy

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36
Q

What stage is HIV most contagious?

A

Stage 1

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37
Q

AIDS

A

Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

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38
Q

What muscular system disease can cause pain, weakness and paralysis?

A

Myopathy

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39
Q

What characteristics are these all a part of?
›Strains, tendonitis,
› Genetic
› Cancer
› Diseases of the nerves that affect muscles
› Infections
› Medication related

A

Myopathy (causes)

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40
Q

How is myopathy diagnosed? (5)

A
  • Muscle and reflex testing
  • EMG
  • MRI
  • Biopsy
  • Genetic testing
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41
Q

How is myopathy treated? (4)

A
  • Medication
  • Botox
  • Physical Therapy
  • Diet and exercise
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42
Q 
What disease is infection in the muscle that presents as... 
› Acute, subacute or chronic 
› Single or muscle groups 
› Proximal muscles are predominant
How is it contracted?
A

Myostitis

  • Viral (HIV-1, Human T Lymphotrophic, Influenza)
  • Bacterial (Pyomyositis – myositis tropicans: infections that causes abcesses, *not to be confused with associated polymyositis) (Lyme Borreliosis )
  • Parasitic Agents *least common (American Trypanosomiasis – protozoan – parasitic
    )(Cysticercosis – larval stage of intestinal tapeworm
    from under cooked pork )
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43
Q

What are the most common musculoskeletal system disorders?

A

Fracture • Dislocation • Subluxation • Contusion • Hematoma • Repetitive overuse (microtrauma)• Strain, sprain • Degenerative disease

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44
Q

More than what percentage of injuries occur to the musculoskeletal system in the U.S. ? Which injuries occur for nearly half of all musculoskeletal injuries?

A

50%

  • Fractures
  • Sprains/Strains
  • Dislocations
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45
Q

What disease is inflammation of muscle fibers that presents with weakness in shoulders and hips. Pain, difficulty swallowing, SOB. What may it be caused by?

A

Polymyositis

- autoimmune or infection

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46
Q

Polymyositis occurs mostly in ___m/f____ age _______, with __ in _ people dying every ____ years.

A

Women; 50-70; 1 in 5; 5

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47
Q

How is polymyositis treated?

A
  • Corticosteroids and Immunosuppressants
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48
Q

Muscle pain and weakness in anyone at risk for myositis and especially for individuals taking lipid-lowering statins should be a what to a PTA?

A

Red Flag (exercise may be a problem. Myotoxicity)

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49
Q

Which musculoskeletal disorder breaks down of muscle fiber , releases myoglobin into blood stream, and is harmful to kidneys?

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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50
Q

What musculoskeletal disorder has associated causes of trauma/crush injuries, drug use, genetic muscle disease, ischemia of muscle tissue, extreme of body temp, severe dehydration, lengthy surgery, severe exertion?

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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51
Q

What are symptoms of Rhabdomyolysis?

A
  • Dark and decreased urine
  • Weakness, stiffness, tenderness, fatigue,
  • Pain and Seizures
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52
Q

How is Lyme Disease treated?

A

Antibiotics

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53
Q

What are the effects of Post Treated Lyme Disease Syndrome?

A

Chronic with varied symptoms

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54
Q

What musculoskeletal disorder results in 30 different inherited diseases which all result in progressive muscle weakness and loss?

A

Muscular Dystrophy

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55
Q

What treatment strategies are available for Muscular Dystrophy? What’s unique about it?

A

Symptom management, Assistive devices, and Therapy

- No Cure

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56
Q

What types of disorders are known to progressively destroy motor neurons and affects the upper or lower motor neurons?

A

ALS, Post Polio, SMA (Motor Neuron Disorders)

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57
Q

What disorders results in muscle weakness and atrophy, spasticity, overactive reflexes, are I nherited or sporadic, and can occur at any age? Who is it most common in?

A

Men over 40

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58
Q

Which disorder is associated with weakness increased with activity and improves with rest while also presenting with a large and abnormal thymus gland?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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59
Q

Which autoimmune disease results in skeletal muscle weakness
due to a defect in transmission of nerve impulses to muscles at the neuromuscular junction?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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60
Q

What disease results in a loss of muscle mass and strength as
related to aging? Why does this happen?

A

Sarcopenia

  • Hormone levels change
  • Motor neurons die
  • A more sedentary lifestyle
  • Change in protein requirements
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61
Q

What is Osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Brittle bones

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62
Q

What does Paget’s Disease cause? What type of disease is it?

A

Weak Bones

- Bone Disease

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63
Q

What are some causes of diseases of the bone?

A
  • Low bone density
  • Cancer
  • Infection
  • Disruption in growth/rebuilding
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64
Q

How is bone disease diagnosed?(6)

A
  • X-rays
  • Bone Density Scan
  • Biopsy
  • Bone markers
  • Calcium tests
  • Alkaline phosphatase test
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65
Q

What is a disease in which defective metabolism of uric acid causes arthritis, especially in the smaller bones of the feet, deposition of chalkstones, and episodes of acute pain? Who’s it more common in?

A

Gout

- Men

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66
Q

What should be avoided with Gout?

A
  • Foods high in purine (Seafood/Fatty
  • Alcohol
  • Caffeine
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67
Q

Who is Paget’s Disease more common in?

A

White men

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68
Q

What bone disease is associated with symptoms of pain, enlarged bones, fractures, damaged cartilage, and is idiopathic or theorized to be viral?

A

Paget’s Disease

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69
Q

How is Pagets Disease diagnosed?

A
  • Xray

- Bone scan
- Alkaline phoshatase enzyme test

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70
Q

How is Paget’s Disease treated?

A
  • Bisphosphonates (pain) and Calcitonin
    (thyroid hormone)

- Surgery for fractures and deformities

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71
Q

What disease is associated with softening of bones?

› Vitamin D deficiency or malabsorption
› Lack of calcium in bones

A

Osteomalacia

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72
Q

What can lack of milk in diet, cancer, kidney failure, liver disease, and lack of phosphates in diet cause?

A

Osteomalacia

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73
Q

What are symptoms of Osteomalacia?

A

Fracture with no injury, bone pain, and weakness

  • Vitamin D
  • Calcium and phosphorus supplements
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74
Q

What bone disease is caused by bacterial infection in the bones and can be fungal? How is it treated?

A

Osteomyelitis

- Antibiotics and/or surgery to remove dead bone

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75
Q

What bacterial bone disease can be spread by blood or from surgery?

A

Osteomyelitis

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76
Q

What is the most common primary bone cancer where tumors form in bone? Who does it occur in most?

A

Osteosarcoma

- Males 10-30 years old

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77
Q

What is Chondrosarcoma?

A

Cancer in cartilage

- Men and Women 20-75 years old

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78
Q

What is also termed Aseptic necrosis, avascular necrosis, ischemic necrosis?

A

Osteonecrosis

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79
Q

What causes Osteonecrosis?

A

Reduced blood flow to the bones in the joints

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80
Q

What are risk factors of Osteonecrosis?

A

Long term steroid use, ETOH abuse (alcohol), injuries, and diseases such as OA and CA

  • Limited weight bearing,
  • E-stim
  • Surgery
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81
Q

What are the 4 main disease related to poor environment?

A
  1. Diarrhea
  2. Lower respiratory infections
  3. Unintentional injuries
  4. Malaria
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82
Q

What are reduction measures for diseases related to poor environment?

A
  • safe water sotrage and water resource management
  • better hygiene
  • cleaner/safer fuels
  • manage use of toxic substances
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83
Q

What substance in water helps with teeth?

A

Flouride

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84
Q

What are symptoms of lead poisoning?

A

Change in behavior, reduced IQ, kidney damage, headaches, low appetite and energy

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85
Q

What fungal infections are non-threatening?

A

Yeast infection, athletes foot, nail infection

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86
Q

What gas (builds up in homes, schools) causes lung cancer?

A

Radon

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87
Q

Unusually severe sensitivity or allergy like reaction to many different pollutants

A

Multiple chemical sensitivity

88
Q

Tissue growth without normal regulatory mechanism

A

Neoplasia

89
Q

What has limited growth potential and good outcome

A

Benign

90
Q

What has uncontrolled growth and eventually death of the host

A

Malignant

91
Q

Increased number of cells in tissue but appear normal

A

Hyperplasia

92
Q

Abnormal cells but not cancer

A

Dysplasia

93
Q

Difference between normal cells and cancer cells?

A
  • grow out of control
  • less specialized
  • ignore signals to stop dividing or programmed death
  • can influence normal cells, molecules, and blood vessels
  • evade immune system
94
Q

What 3 genes are affected by cancer?

A
  • Proto-oncogenes
  • tumor suppressor genes
  • DNA repair genes
95
Q

Whats a substance that is known to have a direct link to cancer?

A

Carcinogens

96
Q

What are examples of carcinogens?

A

Radiation, cigarettes, asbestos, benzene

97
Q

What are natural carcinogens?

A
  • fungus that grows on stored grains
  • HPV
  • hepatitis B
98
Q

What are cells that move from primary site to another location in body?

A

Metastasis

99
Q

What cancers have the best survival rates? Worst?

A

Best survival rate: prostate, thyroid, skin cancer

Worst survival rate: pancreatic, liver, lung, and esophageal

100
Q

Metastasis occurs through:

A
  • lymphatic system
  • blood
  • seeding of surface in body cavities
101
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Cancer in Epithelial cells that line organs including stomach, intestines, lungs

102
Q

Cancer in lining of bladder, ureters, and kidneys

A

Transitional cell carcinoma

103
Q

Cancer that forms in bones and soft tissues

A

Sarcoma

104
Q

What is the most common type if bone/soft tissue cancer?

A

Osteosarcoma

105
Q

What is cancer in blood forming tissues (like bone marrow)?

A

Leukemia

106
Q

What are 4 types if leukemia?

A
  1. Acute
  2. Lymphoblastic
  3. Chronic
  4. Myeloids
107
Q

What are abnormal cells building up in lymph nodes, lymph vessels, and other organs

A

Lymphoma

108
Q

What are two types of lymphoma?

A
  1. Hodgkins (usually in B cells)

2. Non-hodgkins (start in lymphocytes and for in either B/Tcells

109
Q

What type of cancer begins in plasma cells and build up in bone marrow and form tumors in bones through out body?

A

Multiple myeloma

110
Q

What cancer begins in skin cells that make melanin?

A

Melanoma

111
Q

What are the 4 stages of cancer?

A

Stage I: early stage and local
Stage II: increased risk spreading, increased tumor size
Stage III: local cancer
Stage IV: cancer has spread to distant tissues or organs

112
Q

How does cancer get diagnosed?

A

Lab tests, imaging, biopsy

113
Q

Biological therapy made from living organisms to improve immune systems

A

Immunotherapy

114
Q

Therapy that targets changes in cancer cells that help them grow and divide

A

Targeted therapy

115
Q

What are preventative measures against cancer?

A
  • healthy diet and exercise
  • avoid carcinogens
  • screenings
116
Q

What are implications for physical therapy when someone has cancer?

A
  • Lymphedema
  • cancer related fatigue
  • neuropathy
  • pain
  • deconditioned
  • energy conservation
117
Q

What is orthopnea?

A

Unable the breathe laying supine

118
Q

What is refractory

A

Cancer is resistant and does not respond to treatment

119
Q

What is relapse?

A

Cancer returns

120
Q

What is partial remission?

A

Primary tumor reduced to half its size

121
Q

What is the sudden interruption of blood supply to the brain either from hemorrhage or clot?

A

CVA (Lack of oxygen results in brain cell death)

122
Q

What are the symptoms of CVA?

What is important to combat this?

A
  1. Sudden weakness on one side of body
  2. Sudden trouble speaking or confusion
  3. Impaired walking, dizziness, loss of balance
  4. Severe headache
  5. Sudden change in vision
  • Immediate medical attention is critical
123
Q

CVA is prevented by managing or stopping which risk factors?

A
  • HTN

- Smoking
- Physical Inactivity
- A-fib

124
Q

More than 50% of strokes occur due what?

A

Uncontrolled HTN

125
Q

How can plaque build up be treated to prevent CVA?

A

Plaque build up can be treated with carotid endartectomy or angioplasty

126
Q

What are the rules of F.A.S.T.

A
  • Face is uneven
  • Arm is weak
  • Speech is strange
  • Time to 911
127
Q

What is the mast gland in the endocrine system?

A

Pituitary gland

128
Q

As a person gets older, their HGH ________.

A

Decreases

129
Q

How is growth hormone deficiency treated?

A

Injections of growth hormone

130
Q

What are symptoms of hypothyroidim?

A

Weight gain, cold intolerance, tired/weakness/fatigue, decreased sweating

131
Q

What condition is caused by graves disease?

A

Hyperthyroidism

132
Q

What hormone stimulates osteoclasts?

A

Parathyroid hormone

133
Q

What does hyperparathyroidism cause?

A

Osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, kidney stones

134
Q

What does hypoparathyroidism cause?

A

Hypocalcemia

135
Q

What gland produces steroid for mineral and carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Adrenal cortex

136
Q

Which part of the adrenal gland functions with the sympathetic nervous system?

A

Adrenal medulla

137
Q

What disorder has 70% of its population with addison’s disease? What are symptoms?

A

Hypofunction of the adrenal cortex

Symptoms: fatigue, weight loss, hypofunction

138
Q

What is happening in the adrenal cortex for someone with cushings disease (moon face)?

A

Hyperfunction

139
Q

What are the effects of estrogen? Specifically the heart and bones

A
  • helps preserve bone density

- regulates production of cholesterol

140
Q

What are the effects of testosterone? Specifically bone and bone marrow

A

Increase RBCs production and bone density maintenance

141
Q

What are some hormone changes that cause osteoporosis?

A
  • decreased estrogen/testosterone
  • overactive parathyroid
  • hypothyroidism
142
Q

What organ secretes the insulin?

A

Pancreas

143
Q

Type 1 DM has a ______ of insulin.

A

Shortage (decrease)

144
Q

What are complications of diabetes?

A 
Skin infections
Neuropathy
Kidney disease
HTN
CVA
Glaucoma
Retinopathy
145
Q

What hormone regulated the circadian rhythm? Where is it produced?

A

Melatonin; pineal gland

146
Q

Which organ secretes a hormone that synthesizes and stores substances for digestion?

A

Liver

147
Q

What are signs and symptoms for GERD?

A

Gastro-esophageal-reflux-disease

Heartburn
Chest pain
Loss of dental enamel

148
Q

What is there to watch for when treating someone with GERD?

A
  • diet needs to be modified
  • unable to lie supine
  • avoid acidic
149
Q

What is acute/chronic inflammation of the stomach?

A

Gastritis

150
Q

What is the breakdown of mucosal barrier

A

Peptic ulcer

151
Q

Symptoms of carcinoma of the stomach do not appear until _____

A

Later stages

152
Q

What is a common symptom of gastrointestinal infection?

A

Gastroenteritis and diarrhea

153
Q

What is the most common cause of gastrointestinal infection?

A

Bacterial toxins in contaminated food or water

154
Q

What is acute appendicitis?

A

Severe pain in RLQ

155
Q

What needs to be watched for when treating someone with IBS?

A

Inflammatory bowl syndrome

Dont eat nuts
Watch for gait belt

156
Q

Small pockets forming in the distal colon

A

Diverticulosis/diverticulitis

157
Q

What is colostomy

A

Surgical opening for waste

158
Q

1 in _____ people get celiac disease

A

141

159
Q

Enlarged veins, internal or external to rectum

A

Hemorrhoids

160
Q

How do you prevent hemorrhoids?

A

Stool softeners

161
Q

How is hemorrhoids treated?

A

Laser or surgery

162
Q

If someone has HAV, what are they exposed to?
HBV?
HCV?

A

HAV: contaminated food, water, sewage
HBV: wet or dry body fluid
HCV: blood, IV drugs and tattoos

163
Q

What causes cirrhosis of the liver?

A

Hepatitis, alcohol abuse, and fatty liver

164
Q

What are two common disorders of the pancreas?

A

Pancreatitis and pancreatic cancer

165
Q

What is the frequent cause of pancreatitis?

A

Gallstones

166
Q

What organ stores bile used to aid in digestion of fat?

A

Gallbladder

167
Q

What is cholecystectomy

A

Gallbladder removal

168
Q

What is the primary function of the urinary system?

A

Formation and excretion of urine

169
Q

What is the basic unit if the kidney?

A

Nephron

170
Q

As a person ages, the kidney size ______

A

Decreases

171
Q

What symptoms do people with UTI have?

A

Dysuria, polyuria, and cloudy urine

172
Q

How is UTI treated?

A

Antibiotics, water, and hygiene

173
Q

What is renal calculi?

A

Kidney stones

174
Q

What is hematuria?

A

Blood in urine

175
Q

How are kidney stones treated?

A

Lithotripsy

176
Q

What is nephrosclerosis?

A

Complication if HTN, scarring due to blood vessel disease

177
Q

What diet do people living with kidney dialysis have?

A

Low in phosphorus, sodium, and potassium

178
Q

What are the two options of treatment for renal failure?

A

Dialysis or transplant

179
Q

What is removal of kidney?

A

Nephrectomy

180
Q

What are the types of urinary incontinence?

A

Stress
Urge
Functional
Overflow

181
Q

What type of CVA stroke is most common? What is the percentage?

A

Ischemic

- 87% of all strokes

182
Q

What is the only FDA approved treatment for Ischemic strokes? What does it do and when should it be administered?

A

tPA

  • Dissolves Clot
  • Must be given within first 3 hours
183
Q

What other way is a clot removed to treat CVA stroke? What is used and when should it be administered?

A

Endovascular Procedures

  • Stent to remove clot
  • Can only be done within 6 hours
184
Q

What is the primary cause of Hemorrhagic strokes? What does it cause?

A

HTN

- Aneurysms and arteriovenous malformations AVMs

185
Q

What are the procedures done to treat Hemorrhagic Stroke?

A
  • Endovascular procedures to repair
    vessel
  • Surgery
186
Q

What are the effects of stroke on the right side of brain?

A
  • Paralysis on the left side of the body
  • Vision problems
  • Quick, inquisitive behavioral style
  • Memory loss
187
Q

What are the effects of stroke on the left side of brain?

A
  • Paralysis on the right side of the body
  • Speech/language problems
  • Slow, cautious behavioral style
  • Memory loss
188
Q

What is considered Mild Cognitive impairment? What is the population of people that will be diagnosed?

A

Cognitive changes not sever enough to interfere with daily life or independent function
- 10-20% of people over age 65

189
Q

What are people at risk of developing with mild cognitive impairment? What are the two types?

A

Dementia

  • Amnestic - Memory issues
  • Nonamnestic - affects thinking, judgement, and sequencing (not memory)
190
Q

How is mild cognitive impairment diagnosed?(5)

A
  • Medical history
  • Medical exam
  • Lab work
  • Assessment of mental status
  • Evaluation of mood
191
Q

What disease is known as impairment in at least two of the following – memory, language/communication, attention span/focus, reasoning/judgment, and visual perception?

A

Dementia

192
Q

What needs to be ruled out when diagnosing dementia? (5) What do the medications do?

A

Depression, medication, ETOH abuse, thyroid problems, and vitamin deficiencies
- Slow Progress (no cure)

193
Q

What are risk factors for Dementia?

A
  • Age
  • Genetics
  • Poor cardiovascular fitness
  • Diet and lack of exercise
194
Q 
 Alzheimer’s 
 Vascular 
 Lewy Body 
 Parkinson’s 
 Frontotemporal 
 Creutzfeld- Jakob Disease 
 Normal Pressure Hydrocephalus 
 TBI 
 Korsakoff Syndrome 
 Chronic Traumatic Encephalopathy 
 Down Syndrome 
 Huntington’s disease 
 Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome 
What type of disease are these all in correlation with?
A

Dementia

195
Q

What is the most common form of dementia? What are 3 myths about the disease?

A

Alzheimer’s

  • Memory loss is normal aging
  • Not fatal
  • Increased risk with aluminum, aspartame, flu shots, silver dental fillings
196
Q
  1. Memory loss that disrupts daily life
  2. Challenges in planning or problem solving
  3. Difficulty completing familiar tasks
  4. Confusion with time or place
  5. Trouble understanding visual images and spatial relationships
  6. New problems with words in speaking or writing
  7. Misplacing things and losing ability to retrace steps
  8. Decreased/poor judgment
  9. Withdrawal from social activities
  10. Changes in mood or personality

What disease are these all warning signs of?

A

Alzheimer’s

197
Q

What type of brain tumor is not cancer, slow growing, well defined?

A

Benign

198
Q

What type of brain tumor is primary or metastatic?

A

Malignant

199
Q

What disease is associated with recurrent headaches, vision problems, change in personality, seizures, short term memory loss, poor coordination, and difficulty speaking or
comprehending?

A

Brain Tumors

200
Q

What is the most common brain tumor type?

A

Meningioma

201
Q

Which type of primary brain tumor are most living with?

A

Benign

202
Q

Where do 20-40 percent of brain tumors come from?

A

Other cancers (develop brain metastases)

203
Q

How are brain tumors treated?

A
  • Medications
  • Surgery
  • Radiation
  • Chemotherapy
  • Tumor Treating Fields – electric device that disrupts rapid cell division
  • Long term planning
  • Rehab
  • Continuous follow up care
  • Supportive/palliative care
204
Q

What is the mildest form of traumatic brain injury?

A

A Concussion

205
Q

What is the key thing about a Concussion?

A

Prevention

206
Q

When does symptoms appear for concussions?

A

May not appear for days or weeks after

207
Q
  • A headache that gets worse or does not go away
    • Repeated vomiting or nausea
  • Convulsions or seizures
  • Inability to awaken from sleep
  • Slurred speech
  • Weakness or numbness in the arms and legs
  • Dilated eye pupils

Are all symptoms of what type of injury?

A

Concussion (TBI)

208
Q

What type of injury is an external mechanical force causes brain dysfunction?

A

TBI

209
Q

What are half of TBI’s a result from? What is the severity?

A

Motor Vehicle Accidents

- Mild to Severe

210
Q

What are other causes of TBI other than MVA?

A
  • Falls
  • Violence
  • Sports injuries
  • Combat injuries
211
Q

What disease is considered a chronic and progressive movement disorder?

A

Parkinson’s Disease

212
Q

What is the cause of Parkinson’s Disease? What does it stop producing?

A

Malfunction and death of neurons in Substantia nigra

- Dopamine production

213
Q

What are the symptoms of Parkinson’s Disease?

A
  • Tremor
  • Bradykinesia
  • Rigidity
  • Postural instability
214
Q

What’s the 4th most common neurological disorder? What is it known as?

A

Epilepsy

- seizure disorder

215
Q

What chronic disorder presents with a wide range of seizures types and is controlled by medications?

A

Epilepsy

PTA 220 Pathology (2 decks)

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