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Nursing 100 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

Key topics for Exam 3

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1
Q

Stress urinary incontinence

A

increased abdominal pressure; A loss of urine of less than 50 mL occurring with increased abdominal pressure

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2
Q

Reflex/overflow urinary incontinence

A

overflow-zero awareness of need; full bladder and starts to overflow-paralyzed patients; surgical patients need straight cath; An involuntary loss of urine, occurring at somewhat predictable intervals when a specific bladder volume is reached

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3
Q

Urge urinary incontinence

A

sudden desire; UTI; Involuntary passage of urine occurring soon after a strong sense of urgency to void

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4
Q

Functional urinary incontinence

A

sudden, mobility barrier; usually dementia patients that are mobile; Inability of a usually continent person to reach toilet in time to avoid unintentional loss of urine

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5
Q

Total urinary incontinence

A

Continuous; A continuous and unpredictable loss of urine

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6
Q

Urinary retention

A

Incomplete emptying of the bladder

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7
Q

Urinary hesitancy

A

refers to a delay in starting the urine stream, commonly with a decreased force of the stream.

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8
Q

Urinary frequency

A

urination that occurs at shorter-than-usual intervals without an increase in daily urine output.

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9
Q

Urinary urgency

A

a sudden, forceful urge to urinate

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10
Q

Dysuria

A

difficult or painful urination.

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11
Q

Oliguria

A

diminished, scanty amount of urine.

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12
Q

anuria

A

absence of urine, usually clinically defined as less than 100 mL in 24 hours. It occurs in renal failure, shock, or dehydration.

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13
Q

polyuria

A

an excess amount of urine; it is usually associated with diabetes mellitus (a disturbance in the utilization of glucose secondary to inadequate production of insulin) or diabetes insipidus (caused by failure of the pituitary gland to secrete the antidiuretic hormone). Polyuria also may be caused by excess intake; greater than 2000 mL in 24 hrs

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14
Q

Enuresis

A

recurrent involuntary urination that occurs during sleep.

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15
Q

nocturia

A

nighttime urination

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16
Q

bacteriuria

A

Cloudiness indicates the presence of bacteria in urine

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17
Q

normal urine pH

A

pH range for urine is 4.5 to 7.8

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18
Q

diuresis

A

increased formation and excretion of urine

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19
Q

Average infant urine excretion/day

A

6-month-old infant produces about 500 mL of urine, an amount that increases gradually until about age 14

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20
Q

Pyridium (phenazopyridine)

A

local analgesic effect to the bladder mucosa to relieve burning; used when an infection is localized to the bladder

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21
Q

side effect of Pyridium (phenazopyridine)

A

Contains azo dye that turns the urine reddish orange

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22
Q

B&O suppository (belladonna and opium)

A

Has anticholinergic effects to relieve bladder spasms, and opium to relieve the pain in an acute situation

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23
Q

side effects of B&O suppository

A

controlled substance; has anticholinergic side effects

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24
Q

Ditropan (oxybutynin)

A

Produce anticholinergic effects, which relax the detrusor muscle; used to treat hyperreflexic bladders by suppressing the unwanted contractions that occur when the bladder has only a small volume of urine; also used to treat bladder spasmDetrol (tolterodine)s

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25
Q

side effects of Ditropan (oxybutynin)

A

Dry mouth, constipation, tachycardia, urinary hesitancy and retention, impotence, and other anticholinergic effects

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26
Q

Antibiotics sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

A

Treatment of urinary tract infections; needs to be excreted unchanged in the urinary tract; the combination reduces the possibility of resistant strains

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27
Q

side effects of sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim

A

Hypersensitivity to sulfa

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28
Q

Minipress (prazosin)

A

Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers relax the smooth muscle in the bladder neck, thus facilitating urinary flow through the prostatic urethra

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29
Q

Side effects of Minipress (prazosin)

A

Side effects related to blocking the adrenergic receptors could include dizziness, postural hypotension, urinary frequency, impotence, dry mouth, blurred vision

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30
Q

Cardura (doxazosin)

A

medication for urinary problems

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31
Q

Flomax (tamsulosin)

A

medication for urinary problems

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32
Q

Detrol (tolterodine)

A

medication for urinary problems

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33
Q

Pro-Banthine (propantheline)

A

medication for urinary problems

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34
Q

fecal impaction

A

a collection of puttylike or hardened feces in the rectum or sigmoid colon that prevents the passage of a normal stool and becomes harder as the colon continues to absorb water

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35
Q

diarrhea

A

rapid movement of fecal matter through the intestine, resulting in diminished absorption of water, nutrients, and electrolytes and producing abnormally frequent evacuation of watery stools

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36
Q

bowel incontinence

A

inability to voluntarily control the passage of feces and gas.

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37
Q

how much fiber/day should we consume?

A

25g

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38
Q

risks for colon cancer:

A
  • Age over 50
  • A family history of polyps or colorectal cancer
  • A history of inflammatory bowel disease, such as ulcerative colitis or Crohn’s disease
  • Living in an urban area
  • A diet high in fat and low in fiber
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39
Q

bowel obstruction

A

Partial or complete blockage caused by a tumor, inflammation, strangulation, or adhesion that prevents the movement of chyme through the intestine. Bowel obstruction may initially present with constipation or diarrhea associated with abdominal distention, pain, and hyperactive bowel sounds in one quadrant.

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40
Q

Crohn’s disease

A

A chronic inflammatory bowel disease of unknown origin, usually affecting the ileum, the colon, or another part of the gastrointestinal tract. It is characterized by frequent attacks of diarrhea, severe abdominal pain, nausea, fever, chills, weakness, anorexia, and weight loss.

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41
Q

ulcerative colitis

A

A chronic, episodic, inflammatory disease of the large intestine and rectum. It is characterized by profuse watery diarrhea containing varying amounts of blood, mucus, and pus.

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42
Q

IBS

A

A chronic functional disorder of the bowel characterized by motor abnormalities within the gastrointestinal tract, causing variable symptoms including cramping, abdominal pain, constipation, or diarrhea. It does not result in permanent damage to the intestine. Affecting 15% of the population, it can often be managed with alternative therapies (Box 29-4).

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43
Q

cancer

A

Signs and symptoms that may indicate referral are a change in bowel habits and blood in the stool. Encourage clients to obtain routine screening tests for colon and rectal cancer.

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44
Q

infectious diarrhea

A

Sudden onset of watery diarrhea that can signal acute viral, bacterial, and protozoal infections. Most bacterial or viral diarrhea will resolve in 1 to 7 days. However, severe fluid and electrolyte disturbances can be life threatening, especially to the very young and very old.

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45
Q

paralytic ileus

A

direct handling of the bowel during abdominal surgery can temporarily stop peristalsis; when the absence of peristalsis persists beyond 3 days,

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46
Q

ostomy

A

procedure used to create a hole in the intestinal wall

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47
Q

ileostomy

A

surgical procedure involving the creation of an opening between the ileum and the abdominal wall

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48
Q

stoma

A

an opening between the abdominal wall and the intestine through which fecal material passes.

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49
Q

stress

A

occurs as a response to demands placed on one’s body and/or mind

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50
Q

GAS: alarm reaction

A

Immediately when the body encounters a stressor an alarm is initiated and the fight-or-flight response begins. The person’s resistance is decreased so ideally the body transitions to the next phase before disease or death occur

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51
Q

General Adaptation Syndrome

A

Body’s general response to stressors

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52
Q

GAS: resistance phase

A

the individual is still exposed to the stressor, but physiologic reserves are mobilized to increase the resistance to stress. This is the time of adaptation. It is during this stage that the factors that influence stress, such as attitude or coping abilities, will positively or negatively affect the resistance to the stressor. No physical signs or symptoms can be seen while an individual expends energy to adapt to a stressor, but the body will become strained over time.

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53
Q

GAS: Exhaustion phase

A

when all energy is expended, At the stage of exhaustion, it is common to become ill and even die if assistance from an outside source is not available (Fig. 8-2). This stage can often be reversed by external sources of adaptive energy, such as medication.

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54
Q

Three main systems in the physiologic response to stress:

A

nervous, immune, endocrine

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55
Q

Reticular Activating System (RAS)

A

which sends impulses contributing to alertness to the limbic system and to the cerebral cortex. When the RAS is stimulated, it increases its output of impulses, leading to wakefulness. Stress usually increases the degree of wakefulness and can lead to sleep disturbances.

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56
Q

coping

A

a person’s cognitive and behavioral efforts to manage specific external or internal stressors that seem to exceed available resources

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57
Q

emotion-focused coping

A

involves managing the emotions that an individual feels when a stressful event occurs. Examples of emotion-focused coping include discussion of feelings with a friend or taking a hot bath.

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58
Q

problem-focused coping

A

attempts to find solutions to resolve the problems causing the stress. For example, setting priorities or collecting information and seeking advice would be considered problem-focused coping.

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59
Q

synovium

A

the inner layer of the articular capsule surrounding a freely movable joint. It is loosely attached to the external fibrous capsule and secretes a thick fluid to lubricate the joint and absorb shock.

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60
Q

Most common type of joint:

A

synovial, or diarthrodial, joint

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61
Q

synarthrodial joints

A

immovable joints in the skull

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62
Q

amphiarthrodial joints

A

slightly movable joints; pelvis and ribs

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63
Q

proprioception

A

sensation pertaining to stimuli originating from within the body regarding spatial position and muscular activity, or to the sensory receptors that they activate; awareness of body position, posture, and movement

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64
Q

gait

A

the manner in which we walk

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65
Q

stance phase of gait

A

heel strike through the push-off action of the first foot. An abnormality in the stance phase is called an antalgic gait.

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66
Q

swing phase of gait

A

includes the action of the second foot from acceleration through deceleration. An abnormality in this phase is called a lurch.

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67
Q

metatarsus varus

A

pigeon toe, toes pointing in

68
Q

metatarsus valgus

A

duck walk, toes pointing out

69
Q

talipes equinovarus

A

club foot, twisted foot

70
Q

quadriplegia

A

When injured at the cerebral or cervical spine level

71
Q

quadriparesis

A

a numbness or other abnormal or impaired sensation in all four limbs and the trunk

72
Q

paraplegia

A

paralysis characterized by motor or sensory loss in the legs and trunk

73
Q

paraparesis

A

numbness or other abnormal or impaired sensation in the legs and trunk.

74
Q

hemiplegia

A

(paralysis of one side of the body)

75
Q

hemiparesis

A

numbness or other abnormal or impaired sensation on one side of the body

76
Q

PQRST model

A

P—What was the provoking incident that caused the pain, if any?
Q—What is the quality of the pain? Is it burning, throbbing, stabbing?
R—Where is the region of pain? Does it radiate? Does anything relieve the pain?
S—How severe is the pain?
T—What is the timing of the pain? When does it occur and how long does it last?

77
Q

radiographs (X-ray films)

A

detect bone density, swelling, alignment, and continuity

78
Q

Computed Tomography (CT) scan

A

scan provides a better picture of soft tissues and less-dense bone than standard x-rays, especially in the vertebral column. It can also identify problems of the central nervous system, such as strokes and tumors.

79
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

often more accurate than either standard x-rays films or a CT scan for detecting soft tissue damage.

80
Q

arthogram

A

an enhanced radiograph of a joint obtained after contrast is injected; it is performed most commonly for knees and shoulders

81
Q

myelogram

A

a radiograph of the vertebral spine obtained after injecting a contrast medium into the lumbar subarachnoid spac

82
Q

cervical myelogram

A

client bends the neck forward. The injection site is locally anesthetized. After the contrast medium is injected, the client is moved into various positions while radiographs are taken. After the test, the client must be properly positioned to prevent cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage and subsequent headaches.

83
Q

isometric exercise

A

a form of active exercise that increases muscle tension by applying pressure against stable resistance

84
Q

normal specific gravity of urine

A

1.005-1.030

85
Q

Normal leukocyte esterase of urine

A

negative; if present=UTI

86
Q

Normal protein in urine

A

negative

87
Q

normal bilirubin in urine

A

negative

88
Q

normal glucose in urine

A

negative

89
Q

normal ketones in urine

A

negative

90
Q

normal occult blood in urine

A

negative

91
Q

normal RBC’s in urine

A

normal is 3 (males) to 5 (females)

92
Q

normal WBC’s in urine

A

no more than 5

93
Q

normal bacteria in urine

A

negative

94
Q

normal creatinine

A

0.5-1.5

95
Q

normal BUN

A

10-30

96
Q

Normal sodium

A

135-145mmol/L

97
Q

normal potassium

A

3.5-5.0mEq/L

98
Q

normal chloride

A

96-106 mEq/L

99
Q

normal calcium

A

8.6-10.2 mg/dL

100
Q

urodynamic testing

A

measures flow of urine through urethra-backflow

101
Q

KUB

A

Kidnesy, ureters, bladder; xray, no contrast

102
Q

IVP (IV pyelogram)

A

xray w/contrast; used to diagnose kidney stones; not to be used in patient with renal problems

103
Q

BActrim

A

used for UTI treatment

104
Q

normal post-void residual

A

<50mL

105
Q

Impaired physical mobility

A

limited ROM

106
Q

impaired bed mobility

A

unable to change position in bed

107
Q

deconditioned mobility

A

disuse; deconditioned

108
Q

activity intolerance

A

insufficient energy to perform task

109
Q

Lab tests for immobility

A

blood chemistry; analysis of joint fluid; muscle or bone biopsy

110
Q

Primary prevention for loss of mobility

A

includes nutrition, physical activity, ideal body weight, adequate rest, safety measures to avoid injury

111
Q

Secondary prevention for loss of mobility

A

include screening for osteoporosis, fall risk assessment, mobility screening

112
Q

External factors affecting response to stress

A
  • Culture
  • Socioeconomics
  • support systems
  • number of stressors
  • timing of stressors
113
Q

Internal factors affecting response to stress

A
  • Hardiness
  • Sense of coherence
  • Resilience
  • Attitude
114
Q

Problem-focused coping

A

attempt to deal with problem to get rid of stress

115
Q

Emotion-focused coping

A

attempt to manage emotions associated with stress

116
Q

Ineffective Denial

A

can be positive or negative; healthy short-term

117
Q

Ineffective coping

A

using other means to deal with stress; not beneficial; negative

118
Q

Lifestyle concept of beh’l change:

A

healthy vs. unhealthy

119
Q

Health as 2D (Tripp-Reimer):

A
  • Etic dimension: objective interpretation of health by a scientifically trained practitioner
  • Emic Dimension: refers to an individual’s /social group’s subjective perception and experiences related to health
120
Q

Theory of Reasoned Action:

A

a human behavior framework designed to explain a person’s intention to perform a behavior; assumes people are reasonable

121
Q

Transtheoretical Model for Behavioral Change:

A

6 stages of change in behavior:

1) precontemplation
2) contemplation
3) preparation
4) action
5) maintenance
6) termination

122
Q

Precontemplation stage:

A

first stage in Transtheoretical Model; no intent to change high risk behavior in the near future

123
Q

contemplation stage:

A

second phase of Transtheoretical Model; intention to change in next 6 months; takes 2 years

124
Q

preparation stage:

A

third stage in Transtheoretical Model; intends to take action in near future; intention and action

125
Q

action stage:

A

fourth phase in Transtheoretical Model; changes risky beh’r and makes significant efforts to reach goals; action for 1 day to 6 months

126
Q

maintenance stage:

A

fifth phase of Transtheoretical Model; after 6 mos of changed beh’r; continuing change with less mechanisms needed to prevent relapse; 5 years

127
Q

termination stage:

A

6th (and last) phase of Transtheoretical Model; no longer tempted to engage in risky behavior

128
Q

Health belief model:

A

protection; provides a framework to explain why some people take specific actions to avoid/treat illness, and others don’t; 4 components:

1) perceived susceptibility
2) perceived severity
3) perceived benefits
4) perceived barriers

129
Q

4 components of the health belief model:

A

1) perceived susceptibility
2) perceived severity
3) perceived benefits
4) perceived barriers

130
Q

Key factors related to behavioral change:

A
  • internal (within; disease process)
  • external (crisis; stress)
  • planned and unplanned events (surgery; accidents)
  • resist change because of old habits/comfort
131
Q

Order in which people seek care for behavioral changes:

A

1) seek alternative treatment
2) OTC self-helps
3) scientific medicine

132
Q

Steps for managing change culturally:

A

1) view culture contextually
2) examine beliefs and behaviors
3) interpret meaning and purpose of behavior
4) recognize intercultural variations

133
Q

THINK model of critical thinking:

A 
T-total recall
H-habits
I-inquiry
N-new ideas and creativity
K-knowing how you think
134
Q

Critical Thinking includes:

A 
Clinical judgment 
Clinical reasoning
Deliberate informed thought
Controlled and purposeful
Uses Strategies
Analyzes Data
Makes changes
135
Q

Clinical Judgment includes:

A

Knowledge

Experience

Competence

Attitudes

Standards

136
Q

Growth in critical thinking (Benner):

A
  • Novice (relies on rules)
  • advanced beginner (recognize patterns, own though)
  • competent (able to analyze own thoughts)
  • Proficient (intuitive thinking increases with experience)
  • Expert (intuition becomes prominent thinking)
137
Q

4 circle critical thinking model:

A

Includes Critical Thinking Characteristics, Knowledge and Intellectual Skills, Interpersonal Skills, and Technical Skills, all connected

138
Q

Risk factors for altered physical mobility:

A 
-Lifestyle Factors
Environmental Factors
Developmental Factors
Musculoskeletal Factors
Neurological Factors
139
Q

Important labs for immobility:

A 
calcium (8.6-10.2 mg/dL)
phosphorus (
alkaline phosphatase
muscle enzymes
creatine kinase
lactate dehydrogenase
140
Q

Cardiovascular system complications of immobility:

A 
Deconditioning
Valsalva maneuver
Deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism
Orthostatic intolerance
Edema
Diminished nutrition delivered to tissues
141
Q

GI system complications of immobility:

A 
Slowed motility
Decreased nutrient absorption
Alternate energy sources
Malnutrition
Decreased RBCs, WBCs
Constipation
Decreased strength and endurance
142
Q

GU system complications of immobility:

A

Urinary stasis
Retention of urine
Kidney stones

143
Q

Integumentary system complications of immobility:

A 
Damage to skin is major complication
Pressure sores
Treatment is lengthy and costly
Shear and friction
Excoriation
Maceration
144
Q

genotype

A

genetic makeup

145
Q

phenotype

A

observable expression of a given trait

146
Q

Pharmacogenomics

A

the general study of all of the many different genes that determine drug behavior

147
Q

Time of manifestation of genetic disorders depends on these 4 factors:

A

1) type and extent of alteration
2) exposure to external environmental agents
3) influence of other specific genes possessed by the individual and by his/her total genetic makeup
4) internal environment of the individual

148
Q

Down syndrome:

A

manifested in newborns; cells contain 47 chromosomes; severe mental retardation, flat bridge of nose, slanted eyes, single crease on palm of hand

149
Q

Tay-Sachs:

A

Genetic disorder manifested in infancy; mutation of hexa gene; progressively destroys neurons in brain and spinal cord

150
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

A

Genetic disorder manifested in Childhood; defective gene for a muscle protein; males inherit from females who are carriers

151
Q

Klinefelter syndrome

A

Genetic disorder manifested in adolescence; males with one extra X chromosome. infertility, tall height, small testicles, and abnormally high amount of body hair

152
Q

Huntington disease

A

genetic disorder manifested in adulthood; progressive brain disorder that causes uncontrolled movements, emotional problems, and loss of thinking ability; mutation of HTT gene

153
Q

Type I DM is a result of the interaction between what 3 factors?

A

environment, genetics, immune system

154
Q

alleles

A

any one of two or more alternate forms of a gene located at the same locus

155
Q

locus

A

place on a chromosome where a gene resides

156
Q

genome

A

the total genetic complement of an individual genotype

157
Q

genomics

A

the study of the genome including gene sequencing, mapping, and function

158
Q

MCAD deficiency:

A

prevents the body from converting certain fats to energy, particularly during periods without food; typically appears in infancy or early childhood and can include vomiting, lethargy, and hypoglycemia

159
Q

mitochondrial inheritance

A

inheritance of a trait encoded in the mitochondrial genome; always related in the maternal line; no male can transmit it to his children

160
Q

pharmacogenomics

A

the study of how an individual’s genetic inheritance affects the body’s response to drugs.

161
Q

polymorphisms

A

genetic variation with two or more alleles that is maintained in a population so that the frequency of the most common one is not more than 0.99

162
Q

geriatric nursing

A

branch of nursing that deals with the problems and diseases of old age and aging people

163
Q

geriatrics

A

comprehensive study of aging and the problems of older adults

164
Q

middle adulthood

A

can refer broadly to the period from age 35 to 64

165
Q

older adult

A

describes a wide range of physical, mental, and psychosocial status; generally 65+

166
Q

Erikson’s 8-stages of psychological development… stages effecting middle and older adults and what they mean.

A

Stage 7: middle adult; generativity vs. stagnation. Give self to world in a participatory way. help guide the next generation; care is primary issue
Stage 8-65+; ego integrity vs. despair; reflects on and accepts life and death; if not achieved, leads to despair and fear of death

Nursing 100 (2 decks)

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