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Nursing 100 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

Asepsis

A

sterile

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2
Q

Incubation

A

period before symptoms

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3
Q

Prodromal

A

Period before onset of illness; vague symptoms

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4
Q

Clinical illness

A

symptoms present; illness diagnosed

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5
Q

convalescence

A

period after illness until feeling normal

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6
Q

infectious disease

A

term used to describe illness by a pathogen

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7
Q

spread of infection caused by:

A

world travel; natural disasters; nosocomial; iatrogenic; healthcare institutions (create drug-resistant bacteria); immunosuppressant therapies

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8
Q

primary defense from infection

A

systems (GI, skin, mucous membranes, etc)

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9
Q

Secondary defenses from infection

A

immune (specific to antigen/foreign substance) and inflammatory (local) responses

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10
Q

Cell mediated immunity

A

immune response; T & B cells

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11
Q

3 types of cells in cell-mediated immunity:

A

Helper T: help B recognize antigen; Suppressor T: prevent rxn to antigen to avoid hypersensitivity; Nat’l Killer T: kill infected cells

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12
Q

Humoral immunity

A

immune response: antibodies (proteins) that recognize and destroy invaders; created on initial contact by B cells; 5 antibodies

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13
Q

5 antibodies of humoral immunity:

A

IgM (first to form); IgG (slow to respond but will last for years); IgA (blood, saliva, tears); IgD (serum, role not identified); IgE (environmental; releases histamine)

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14
Q

Active Immunity

A

immune response; long term acquired immunity; protects from new infxn

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15
Q

Passive immunity

A

immune response; acquired; from antibodies of placenta, colostrum, or injection/prophylaxis

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16
Q

Natural immunity

A

immune response; achieved when infected by organism/pathogen

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17
Q

artificial immunity

A

immune response; vaccines

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18
Q

acquired immunity

A

immune response; not innate, obtained during life; active/passive

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19
Q

virulence

A

power of organism to cause disease/ability to survive outside cell; invasiveness; toxigenicity

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20
Q

virus

A

only replicates in cells of host; packet of genetic material covered in protein coat

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21
Q

bacterium

A

single cells; can grow outside organism

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22
Q

fungi

A

eukaryotic; can replicate very rapidly; chitin; hard to destory

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23
Q

parasites

A

organism lives inside another living creature and takes advantage

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24
Q

order of vital signs

A

T-P-R-BP

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25
Q

BP normals:

A

systolic (100-130); diastolic (60-80); pulse pressure (30-50)

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26
Q

auscultory gap

A

when you don’t hear the first Korotkoff sound

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27
Q

Korotkoff sounds (beats)

A

1) systolic-loud 2) muffle tap 3) tap 4) diastolic-muffled 5) 2nd diastolic-quiet

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28
Q

Reasons for false low BP:

A

cuff too big; arm not at heart level; manometer below eye level; let out too fast

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29
Q

Reasons for false high BP:

A

cuff too narrow; too loose; arm below heart level; manometer above eye level; failure to wait between readings

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30
Q

pulse normals

A

60-100 bpm (above 100-tachycardia; below 60-bradycardia)

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31
Q

pulsus paradoxus

A

when pulse relates to breathing

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32
Q

pulsus alternans

A

every other beat is strong

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33
Q

reason for pulse difference (listen at apical take radial pulse)

A

perfusion not 100%

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34
Q

normal respiration rates:

A

12-20/min (bradypnea 20)

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35
Q

Kussmaul

A

rate and depth of breath decreased

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36
Q

cheyne-stokes

A

apnea;hypoventilation; hyperventilation assoc’d with head injury

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37
Q

hyperventilation can lead to

A

hyperalkalosis

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38
Q

hypoventilation can lead to

A

hypoalkalosis

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39
Q

purpose of oxygen sats

A

provide info on oxygen saturation of arterial blood

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40
Q

hyperpyrexia

A

fever with extreme elevation: 106.7F; 41.5C

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41
Q

C to F conversion formula

A

Temp C (9/5) + 32

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42
Q

F to C conversion formula

A

Temp F - 32 (5/9)

43
Q

septicemia

A

infxn in the blood stream

44
Q

medical asepsis

A

practice to reduce number of pathogenic micro-organisms in client’s environment

45
Q

surgical asepsis

A

protect from infxn pre/post/during surgery; sterile of all organisms

46
Q

standard precautions

A

hand hygiene; barrier precautions; applied to every client

47
Q

airborne and droplet precautions

A

negative pressure room; N95 mask; door closed at all times

48
Q

Contact precautions

A

standard plus gloves and gown; spread by direct/indirect contact

49
Q

Chain of infxn

A

organism; portal of entry; reservoir; portal of exit; mode of transmission; host

50
Q

normal temperature

A

98.6F; axillary is -1; rectal is +1; over 37.4C is a fever

51
Q

Definition of nursing

A

diagnosis and treatment of human responses to actual or potential health problems

52
Q

Definition of caring

A

be attentive to or watch over the needs of a person implying responsibility in the human relationship

53
Q

Definition of profession

A

calling requiring special knowledge and academic preparation

54
Q

Examples of civil law:

A

fraud, assault, battery, false imprisonment, invasion of privacy, negligence, malpractice

55
Q

Negligence

A

harm or injury; acts of commission or omission; judged against reasonable LAY person

56
Q

malpractice

A

acts of negligence; compared to OTHER PROFESSIONAL; liability

57
Q

values

A

ideals, beliefs, and patterns of behavior that are prized and chosen by a person, group, or society

58
Q

morals

A

standards of conduct that represent the ideal in human behavior that would be put forward by all rational persons as a guide to our relationships to others

59
Q

ethics

A

branch of philosophy that systematically examines behavior to determine what constitutes good, bad, right, and wrong in human behavior and provide guidance for action.

60
Q

automony

A

refers to a person’s right to make individual choices—that is, to self-determination.; ethic of caring

61
Q

beneficense

A

promotion of good. It requires the performance of actions that are of benefit to others; ethic of caring

62
Q

nonmalficense

A

do no harm.; ethic of caring

63
Q

confidentiality

A

client’s right to privacy in the health care delivery system.

64
Q

fidelity

A

honoring agreements and keeping promises

65
Q

justice

A

moral rightness, fairness, or equity

66
Q

veracity

A

adhering to the truth. It requires truth telling consistently and continually

67
Q

six-step ethical decision–making process

A

1)identify ethical dilemma 2)gather data 3)examine data for ethical problem 4)examine solutions 5)choose solution 6)evaluate

68
Q

values clarification

A

allows you to identify your personal values and develop self-awareness

69
Q

law

A

body of rules of action or conduct prescribed by a “controlling authority,” in this case the governmenbody of rules of action or conduct prescribed by a “controlling authority,” in this case the government

70
Q

civil law

A

disputes between individuals and between individuals and groups.

71
Q

tort

A

civil wrong committed by one person against another person or that person’s property. It may be intentional or unintentional.

72
Q

fraud

A

false representation of some fact with the intention that it will be acted upon by another person; intentional tort

73
Q

defamation

A

false communication or a careless disregard for the truth that results in damage to someone’s reputation; intentional tort

74
Q

libel

A

written defamation

75
Q

slander

A

spoken defamation

76
Q

assault

A

an attempt or a threat to touch another person unjustly; intentional tort

77
Q

battery

A

actual willful touching of another person that may or may not cause harm; intentional tort

78
Q

false imprisonment

A

restraining a person, with or without force, against that person’s wishes; intentional tort

79
Q

invasion of privacy

A

an occur when the nurse unreasonably intrudes on the client’s private affairs; intentional tort

80
Q

negligence

A

harm or injury is caused by an act of either omission or commission by a layperson. Negligence can also result from failure to use the kind of care a reasonably prudent layperson would use in a similar situation; unintentional tort

81
Q

malpractice

A

acts of negligence by a professional person as compared to the actions of another professional person in similar circumstances; unintentional tort

82
Q

liability

A

egal obligation for which the nurse can be held responsible and accountable. To prove liability for negligence or malpractice, each of four elements must be proven: duty, breach of duty, causation, and damages; unintentional tort

83
Q

4 elements of liability for malpractice:

A

duty; breach of duty; causation; damages

84
Q

5 areas of potential nurse liability:

A

failure to monitor and assess; failure to ensure safety; medication errors; documentation; improper implementation of skills/procedures

85
Q

criminal law

A

defines specific behaviors determined to be inappropriate in the orderly functioning of society.

86
Q

common law

A

includes standards and rules applicable to our interactions with one another that are recognized, affirmed, and enforced through judicial decisions.

87
Q

procedural law

A

establishes the manner of the proceeding used to enforce a specific legal right or to obtain redress

88
Q

public law

A

regulates the relationship of individuals to government agencies and may be administrative, constitutional, or statutory.

89
Q

statutory law

A

law enacted by the state or federal legislative branch of government.

90
Q

substantive law

A

part of law that actually stipulates one’s rights and duties, in contrast to procedural law, which guides the enforcement of rights.

91
Q

professional misconduct

A

violation of the act that can result in disciplinary action against a nurse

92
Q

credentialing

A

refers to the methods by which the nursing profession attempts to ensure and maintain the competency of its practitioners. The nursing profession uses several methods of credentialing, including accreditation, licensure, and certification

93
Q

licensure

A

grants its owner formal permission from a constituted authority to practice a particular profession

94
Q

accreditation

A

a process that monitors an educational program’s ability to meet predetermined standards for students’ outcomes. The accreditation process examines program length, teaching methods, course objectives, clinical sites, and numerous other factors related to the structure, functioning, and stated outcomes of the educational program.

95
Q

registration

A

a process by which an applicant provides specific information to the state agency administering the nursing registration process

96
Q

certification

A

voluntary process by which a nurse can be granted recognition for meeting certain criteria established by a nongovernmental association.

97
Q

HIPAA

A

a set of federal regulations intended to protect client privacy by limiting the ways a client’s personal medical information can be used.

98
Q

emplyment law

A

governs employment practices and encompasses such areas as at-will employment, personal employment contracts, and collective bargaining.

99
Q

informed consent

A

involves the legal right of clients to receive adequate and accurate information about their medical condition and treatment. Such information is necessary for clients to exercise their right to select and consent to particular treatments. The presumption of the law is that all adult clients possess the decision-making capacity to make informed decisions regarding their treatment choices.

100
Q

advance directives

A

a written document that provides direction for health care in the future, when clients may be unable to make personal treatment choices

101
Q

living will

A

document that provides written instructions about when life-sustaining treatment should be terminated. It may indicate when and if a person may be hospitalized and what types of treatment may be implemented.

102
Q

durable power of attorney for healthcare

A

called a proxy directive, is a document that designates a person to make decisions about the client’s medical treatment in the event that the client becomes unable to do so.

103
Q

3 phases of therapeutic relationship:

A

1) orientation 2) working 3) termination

104
Q

6 elements of communication process:

A

1)encoder 2)message 3)sensory channel 4)decoder 5)context 6)feedback

Nursing 100 (2 decks)

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