Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Where does the heart lie?

A

obliquely in the mediastinal space and sits behind sternum to the left of the chest

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2
Q

What are the housing units for blood?

A

Chambers

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3
Q

What chamber receives de-oxygenated blood from the body via the SVC and IVC?

A

RA

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4
Q

What chamber sends de-oxygenated blood to the lungs through the pulmonic artery?

A

RV

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5
Q

What chamber receives oxygenated blood from the lungs?

A

LA

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6
Q

What chamber sends oxygenated blood to the body through the aorta/aortic arch?

A

LV

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7
Q

What is the order of the valves?

A

Tricuspid –> Pulmonic –> Bicuspid –> Aortic

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8
Q

What artery does the blood go through to get to the lungs?

A

Pulmonic

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9
Q

What is the responsibility of the chordae tendonae?

A

Prevent the tricuspid and mitral valves from everting backward so blood doesn’t regurgitate

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10
Q

What is the responsibility of the septum?

A

Prevents de-oxygenated blood from mixing with oxygenated blood

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11
Q

What is the order of the membrane layers from inside out?

A

Endocardium –> Myocardium –> Epicardium –> Pericardium

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12
Q

What is the correct order of the vasculature?

A

Arteries –> Arterioles –> Capillaries –> Venules –> Veins

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13
Q

Name the membrane layer:
-For continuous closed system of endothelium (continuous lining with the arteries, veins, and capillaries of the body)
-First inner layer

A

Endocardium

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14
Q

Name the membrane layer:
-Thin fibrous outer layer of the heart
-Rests on top of the heart

A

Epicardium

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15
Q

Name the membrane layer:
-Double-walled membranous sac that encloses the heart
-Has pain receptors and mechanoreceptors that can feel pain
-Fluid-filled sac that the heart sits inside of

A

Pericardium

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16
Q

How much fluid is usually found in the pericardial sac?

A

10-30 mLs

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17
Q

What is the purpose of the pericardial sac?

A

prevent friction during every heart beat

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18
Q

What are the 3 types of pericardium?

A

1) Visceral
2) Parietal
3) Pericardial space

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19
Q

Which pericardium lays against the heart?

A

Visceral

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20
Q

What kind of muscle are the arterioles made out of?

A

smooth muscle

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21
Q

What kind of walls do the arteries have?

A

thick elastic walls

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22
Q

What kind of walls do the capillaries have?

A

thin walls

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23
Q

What kind of walls do the veins have?

A

large diameter, thin walls

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24
Q

What is the job of the arteries?

A

Carrying oxygenated blood (except pulmonary artery)

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25
Q

Where does the pulmonary artery go to?

A

Lung

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26
Q

What happens at the capillaries?

A

Exchange of cellular nutrients, waste, and end products

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27
Q

What are the jobs of the arterioles?

A

1) Become capillary beds where diffusion takes place
2) Help control arteriole BP & bloodflow

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28
Q

True or False:
Arterioles are sensitive to local changes to conditions in the body

A

True

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29
Q

What is the job of the venules?

A

Collect de-oxygenated blood from the capillaries to send to the veins to go back to the heart

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30
Q

What is the job of the veins?

A

Return blood back to the RA

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31
Q

True or False:
Veins contain valves to maintain bloodflow in the correct direction

A

True

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32
Q

What are the major arteries?

A

Aorta and pulmonary artery

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33
Q

What are the major veins?

A

SVC and IVC

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34
Q

What side of the heart does the pulmonary circulation go to

A

right and carries de-o2 blood to the lungs

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35
Q

What side of the heart does the systemic circulation go to

A

Left – to the body & projects o2 blood out into the system

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36
Q

Where does the pulmonary vein go to?

A

the LA

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37
Q

The heart’s ability to beat spontaneously and repetitively

A

Rhythmicity

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38
Q

What 2 systems are the heart controlled by?

A

Electricity and automaticity

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39
Q

Hearts ability to respond to stress or excitability

A

Irritability

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40
Q

During diastole where the heart can receive another signal and regain responsiveness

A

Relative refractory period

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41
Q

What is the absolute refractory period?

A

-Systolic contraction
-No response can be sent to ventricle during contraction
-Ventricle must relax before receiving another signal

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42
Q

What prevents the heart muscle from responding to a new stimulus while contracting

A

Refractoriness

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43
Q

Hearts ability to transmit electrical impulses

A

Conductivity

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44
Q

Ability of heart to spontaneously depolarize and repolarize

A

Automaticity

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45
Q

Ability of heart fiber muscles to contract (shorten)

A

Contractility

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46
Q

Ability of heart fiber muscles to stretch/relax

A

Extensibility

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47
Q

What is the initiation of an action potential?

A

Conduction

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48
Q

What is the pathway of electrical conduction of the heart?

A

1) Conduction
2) SA node
3) Internodal pathways
4) AV node
5) Bundle of HIS
6) Right & Left Bundle Branches
7) Purkinje fibers

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49
Q

What is the refractory period?

A

Resting period between charges or stimulus or contraction

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50
Q

What is depolarization also known as?

A

Contraction

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51
Q

What is the natural pacemaker of the heart?

A

SA node

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52
Q

What is the intrinsic rate of the SA node?

A

60-100 bpm

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53
Q

Where is the SA node located?

A

upper portion of RA

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54
Q

What is the gatekeeper of the heart?

A

AV node

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55
Q

What is the job of the AV node?

A

-Junction where chambers meet
-Slows down conduction of signal briefly before going through ventricles to give them time to fill to max capacity

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56
Q

What is the intrinsic rate of the AV node?

A

40-60 bpm

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57
Q

What is the intrinsic rate of the purkinje fibers?

A

20-40 bpm

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58
Q

What is sympathetic control?

A

“Fight or flight”
-Increases HR, BP, RR

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59
Q

What sx will you see with sympathetic control?

A

1) Increased VS
2) Hair standing up on skin
3) Pupils dilated
4) Perspiration
5) Decreased GI motility
6) Widened bronchioles

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60
Q

What regulates the SNS?

A

Adrenaline (epi and norepi)

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61
Q

What is parasympathetic control?

A

“Rest and digest”
-Slowing down of body systems
-Signals slow along current at AV node

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62
Q

What are the sx you see with PNS?

A

-SLUDD
-Pupils constrict back to normal size (mediated by CN 10 – vagus nerve)

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63
Q

What does SLUDD stand for?

A

-Salivation
-Lacrimation
-Urination
-Digestion
-Defaction

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64
Q

Where are baroreceptors located?

A

Carotid arch

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65
Q

What are baroreceptors?

A

Area of regulation for the heart
-Respond to changes in volume and pressure

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66
Q

What happens when there is less volume in the heart/less arterial pressure?

A

Baroreceptors will send signal to SNS & it will kick in to increase HR and RR to maintain CO

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67
Q

True or False:
Baroreceptors have a slower response time

A

False- chemoreceptors are slower

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68
Q

Where are chemoreceptors located?

A

Carotid arch

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69
Q

What do chemoreceptors respond to?

A

Changes in…
-Arterial oxygen
-CO2
-Plasma pH

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70
Q

What do chemoreceptors do?

A

-Need other systems to kick in to help mediate this
-Stimulates vasomotor center in brain to increase cardiac activity

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71
Q

What do ionotropes do?

A

Help make contractility better, more effective, and stronger

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72
Q

What is Starling’s Law?

A

The more you stretch the muscle fibers, the bigger the push will be when the heart contracts

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73
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood ejected from the LV with each beat

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74
Q

What is the average stroke volume?

A

50-100 mLs

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75
Q

What effects stroke volume?

A

1) Preload
2) Afterload
3) Contractility

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76
Q

The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole right before the next contraction

A

Preload

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77
Q

Resistance the LV must work against to pump the blood into the system

A

Afterload

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78
Q

What can increase resistance (afterload)?

A

-HTN
-Narrowing of the vessels

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79
Q

What is the force needed to effect preload and afterload called?

A

Contractility
(The force needed to overcome resistance against it and the force needed to push out the volume)

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80
Q

What is contractility influenced by?

A

-The quantity of blood returned to RA
-NS activation (epi & norepi)
-Vascular resistance
-Viscosity of blood

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81
Q

What is the formula for CO?

A

CO = SV x HR

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82
Q

The amount of blood pumped from each ventricle per minute

A

CO

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83
Q

What is the avg CO?

A

4-8L at rest

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84
Q

What adjusts CO to body size?

A

Cardiac index

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85
Q

The ability to respond to increased demand for CO

A

Cardiac reserve

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86
Q

What is the avg cardiac index?

A

2-4 L/min/meter

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87
Q

Percentage of end diastolic blood volume that is ejected during systole (lets us know LV function during pumping phase)

A

EF

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88
Q

What happens to the heart as it ages?

A

1) Increased collagen
2) Decreased ability to stretch or contract
3) Decreased stress response
4) Blunted HR response
5) Thick stiffened valves
6) Changes in conduction
7) Decreased receptors
8) Less vascular elasticity
9) Decreased baroreceptor function

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89
Q

What does OLD CARTS stand for?

A

-Onset
-Location
-Duration
-Character
-Aggravating factors
-Relieving factors
-Timing
-Severity

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90
Q

True or False:
Long term use of corticosteroids increases susceptibility to illness

A

True

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91
Q

What happens if you chronically use cold meds that contain low-doses of aspirin?

A

Low-dose aspirin will begin acting as blood thinner

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92
Q

True or false:
Mag citrate can cause HTN

A

False– it can cause electrolyte imbalances

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93
Q

What questions need to be asked when assessing cognitive-perceptual patterns?

A

1) Snore?
2) How many hrs of sleep?
3) # of pillows they sleep with (d/t SOB or reflux)

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94
Q

What does it mean if someone has chest pain when lying down?

A

Sign of acid reflux

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95
Q

What kind of BP needs to be done for someone with a mechanical valve or defibrillator?

A

Manual BP

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96
Q

What type of assessment do you always complete prior to any interventions?

A

Across the room assessment – gray, diaphoresis, SOB

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97
Q

What does a BP measure?

A

pressure exerted by blood against vessel walls

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98
Q

What are the different types of BP?

A

1) Manual
2) Invasive
3) Autonomic
4) Doppled
5) Orthostatic

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99
Q

True or false:
You only get diastolic when you dopple a BP

A

False – you only get systolic

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100
Q

What is an invasive BP?

A

-Arterial BP
-Transducer in the artery
***Risk for infection & only for really sick pts

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101
Q

What fraction of systolic BP is pulse pressure?

A

1/3

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102
Q

What happens to pulse pressure in athletes & those with arthosclerosis?

A

Increases

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103
Q

When is MAP typically evaluated?

A

With critical patients to see organ perfusion

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104
Q

What is the ideal MAP?

A

-At least 60
- 70-110 is best

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105
Q

How do you take orthostatic BP?

A

-Laying down, then sitting, then standing
- 2-5 mins in between each

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106
Q

How is orthostatic hypotension dx?

A

BP needs to increase by 20

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107
Q

What does APE TM stand for?

A

-Aorta
-Pulmonic
-Erbs Point
-Tricuspid
-Mitral

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108
Q

Where is S1 heard the loudest?

A

Apex

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109
Q

Where is S2 heard the loudest?

A

Base

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110
Q

What does the “lub” sound of the heart represent?

A

Atrioventricular valves closing

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111
Q

What does the “dub” heart sounds represent?

A

Semilunar valves closing

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112
Q

What does S3 heart sounds represent?

A

Ventricular overload
- seen in those < 40, pregnancy, CHF

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113
Q

What does S4 heart sounds represent?

A

Decreased LV compliance
-More likely to be pathologic (HTN, CAD, cardiomyopathy)

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114
Q

What are the RFs for heart disease?

A

1) Elevated lipid levels
2) HTN
3) Tobacco use
4) Sedentary lifestyle
5) Obesity
6) Stressful lifestyle
7) DM
8) Metabolic syndrome

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115
Q

What are the cues to CV problems?

A

1) Fatigue
2) Fluid retention
3) Irregular heartbeats/palpitations
4) Dyspnea
5) Pain
6) Calf tenderness
7) Syncope
8) Altered neuro
9) Leg pain
10) Chest pain

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116
Q

What is fatigue a sign of r/t Cv problems?

A

Sign of poor perfusion

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117
Q

True or False:
Compression socks can have counter-effects if grade is too strong or chronic use

A

True

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118
Q

What immediate intervention can be done if someone says that they feel their “heart caught in their throat”?

A

Drink water to flush out – sign of palpitation

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119
Q

If someone reports pain in their neck during a CV assessment, what important question should you ask?

A

If they have had dental work done recently

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120
Q

What are the cardiac lab biomarkers?

A

1) Troponin
2) Copeptin
3) Creatinine-Kinase (& CKMB)
4) C-reactive protein
5) Homocysteine
6) BNP
7) Lipids

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121
Q

When do you get troponin levels?

A

In acute coronary syndrome
-When someone comes in complaining of chest pain

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122
Q

True or false:
Troponin is the most accurate result because it is based on gender

A

False – high sensitivity troponin is the most accurate because it is based on gender

123
Q

What lab test:
-Specific to muscles (kidneys and heart)
-Takes longer to peak
-Used for someone who has already had an MI

124
Q

What lab test:
-Inflammation marker not specific to heart
-Elevated levels means that somewhere in the body is inflammed

A

C-reactive protein

125
Q

Name the lab:
-Elevated with protein breakdown
-Don’t run in pts with acute MI
-Can be done at annual appointments to check for predisposition if family hx present

A

Homocysteine

126
Q

Name the lab:
-For CHF or pt that says they have extra fluid in them or suspicion of CHF
-Helps distinguish if dyspnea is caused by cardiac or respiratory problems

127
Q

When dose creatinine-kinase show and peak?

A

Shows in 3-6 hrs, peaks in 12-24 hrs

128
Q

What is a loop recorder?

A

-Metal in skin that monitors electrical heart activity
-Stores data, does not shock you

129
Q

What does a 12-lead ECG do?

A

Takes pictures of the electrical activity in the heart

130
Q

What does a cardiac CT show?

A

1) Anatomy
2) Coronary Circulation
3) Blood vessels

131
Q

What does a chest x-ray show?

A

Any enlargement/bogginess

132
Q

What diagnostic test determines your EF?

A

Echocardiogram

133
Q

What are the diagnostic tests of CV disease?

A

1) ECG
2) Chest X-ray
3) Cardiac event monitor/loop recorder
4) Exercise stress test vs MUGA scan
5) Cardiac CT
6) Electrophysiology study
7) Cardiac Cath w/ coronary angiography
8) echocardiogram

134
Q

What are interventional invasive studies for CV disease?

A

1) Cardiac Cath
2) Electrophysiology study

135
Q

Name the interventional invasive study:
-Left-sided
-Arterial access
-Through aortic valve into LV
-Coronary angiography

A

Cardiac Cath

136
Q

Name the interventional invasive study:
-Try to manipulate electrical activity
-Induces dysrhythmias
-Goal = determine the best tx

A

Electrophysiology study

137
Q

What are the classes of cardiac meds?

A

1) Antiplatelets
2) Antianginals
3) Antihypertensives
4) anticoagulants
5) Anithrombolytics
6) Antidiuretics
7) Antiarrhythmics
8) Statins

138
Q

What are the antiplatelet meds?

A

1) ASA
2) Plavix
3) Brilinta

139
Q

What do antianginals do?

A

vasodilate

140
Q

What are the antianginal meds?

A

1) Nitroglycerin
2) Ca+ channel blockers
3) Beta Blockers

141
Q

What do antihypertensive meds do?

A

Decrease metabolic oxygen demand to decrease HR & BP

142
Q

What are examples of antihypertensive medications?

A

1) Beta blockers
2) Ca+ channel blockers
3) ACE inhibitors
4) ARBs

143
Q

What do anticoagulants do?

A

Thin the blood to get past the clot

144
Q

What are examples of anticoags?

A

1) Warfarin
2) Heparin

145
Q

What do antithrombolytics do?

A

“Clot busters”
-Breaks up clot
-Breaks up fibrinogen
-Increases risk of bleeding

146
Q

What is an example of an antithrombolytic?

A

tPA –> tissue plasminogenic activator

147
Q

What are examples of antiarrhythmics?

A

1) Digoxin
2) Adenosine
3) Ca+ channel blockers

148
Q

What happens to HR and MAP if preload is decreased?

A

-Increased HR
-Decreased MAP

149
Q

What are S&S of decreased preload?

A

1) Pallor
2) Altered mental status
3) Diaphoretic

150
Q

How do you tx decreased preload?

A

-Fluids
-Reverse trendelenberg

151
Q

What is normal preload value?

152
Q

What happens to EF and BNP in increased preload?

A

-Decreased EF
-Increase BNP

153
Q

What are S&S of increased prelaod?

A

-HF
-Aortic/pulmonic stenosis
-Edema
-Crackles
-Dyspnea
-Fatigue

154
Q

How do you tx increased preload?

A

-Diuretics
-Supplemental O2

155
Q

What is the patho of CAD

A

Narrowing of a coronary artery d/t plaquing (atherosclerosis)

156
Q

What does CAD lead to?

A

-Decreased perfusion
-HTN
-Angina***
-MI

157
Q

What are the RFs of CAD?

A

1) Middle-aged white men
2) Men > 45, Women > 55
3) First degree relative
4) Fatty diet
5) HTN
6) Obesity

158
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for CAD?

A

1) ECG
2) Lipids

159
Q

How do you treat CAD?

A

1) Diet
2) Exercise
3) Lipid-lowering meds
4) Antiplatelets

160
Q

What are the 3 stages of CAD?

A

1) Fatty streak
2) Fibrous plaques
3) Complicated lesion

161
Q

How does CAD lead to ischemia?

A

1) Plaque gets under lumen & narrows it
2) Increases afterload
3) Causes shearing which tears the lumen open and cholesterol leaks into lumen
4) No oxygenated blood going into nearby organ
5) Ischemia results

162
Q

What are the 2 factors of collateral circulation?

A

1) Hereditary
2) Ischemia

163
Q

What happens in the body in the presence of slow, progressive, long-term ischemia?

A

-Body will try to build little vessels around the side to try to bypass occlusion and get O2 to organs
-Hereditary factor

164
Q

What happens with anaerobic oxygenation?

A

-Seen in slow ischemia
-Lactic acid will build up
-Can cause angina

165
Q

Define the following (ischemia v infarction):
-Reversible
-Increased O2 demand not being met
-Cells are viable under anaerobic respirations (about 20 mins)
-Can put in a stent to try and remove clot

166
Q

Ischemia or Infarction:
-Irreversible
-Tissue death d/t lack of blood supply

A

Infarction

167
Q

How long do people experiencing infarcts have before the area around the clot becomes necrotic and causes tissue death?

168
Q

True or False:
Men at greater risk of developing CVD and women at greater risk of MI

A

False – Men > risk for MI, women > risk for CVD

169
Q

What are modifiable RFs for MI?

A

-Metabolic syndromes
-Homocysteine

170
Q

What are risky total cholesterol levels?

A

> 200 mg/dL

171
Q

What are risky triglyceride levels?

A

> 150 mg/dL

172
Q

What are risky LDL levels?

A

> 130 mg/dL

173
Q

What are risky HDL levels?

A

< 40-50 mg/dL

174
Q

What kind of dietary changes need to be made in instances of MI?

A

-Decrease fat and cholesterol intake
-Increase whole grains
-Increase fruits
-Increase veggies
-Increase fiber

175
Q

Niacin is good to manage cholesterol, but what does it increase the risk of developing?

A

Rhabdomyelosis

176
Q

True or false:
Angina is a sx, not a dx

177
Q

What is angina a manifestation of?

178
Q

What diagnostic tests are done for angina?

A

1) EKG –> rules out MI
2) Labs –> troponin or CKMB
3) Chest x-ray

179
Q

What are the 2 types of angina?

A

-Chronic stable
-Unstable

180
Q

What are the 2 types of chronic stable angina?

A

1) Prinzmetal’s
2) Microvascular

181
Q

How do you treat angina?

A

1) ONAM
2) IR/Surgical
3) Cath lab/PCI
4) CABG

182
Q

What is the “A” of ABCDEF of angina tx?

A

-Antiplatelet/anticoags (aspirin)
-Antianginals (nitro)
-ACE inhibitors (lisinopril)

183
Q

What is the “B” of ABCDEF of angina tx?

A

1) Beta blockers (metoprolol)
2) BP control (hydrochlorothiazide)

184
Q

What is the “C” of ABCDEF of angina tx?

A

-Cardiac rehab
-Ca+ channel blockers (cardizem)
- Cholesterol management (atorvastatin)

185
Q

What is the “D” of ABCDEF of angina tx?

A

-Diet
-DM managment (metformin)
-Depression screening

186
Q

What is the “E” of ABCDEF of angina tx?

A

-Education
-Exercise

187
Q

What is the “F” of ABCDEF of angina tx?

A

-Flu/COVID vax
-Pneumonia vax

188
Q

How long is ischemia reversible for?

189
Q

What pts do we see “silent angina” in?

A

Diabetic neuropathy (d/t decreased sensation)

190
Q

What are the atypical S&S women experience with angina?

A

1) Mid epigastric pain that feels like GERD
2) Dyspnea
3) Nausea
4) Fatigue

191
Q

Why does angina/ischemia occur?

A

body senses increased O2 demand, but body can’t meet this

192
Q

Name the type of angina:
-Intermittent over a long period of time
-Repeated onset, duration & intensity of pain
-Often r/t exertion or stress
-Sx aren’t always chest pain, may feel chest pressure/heaviness that radiates
-Could also have indigestion
-No ST elevation
-May see ST depression and/or t-wave inversion

193
Q

Name the type of angina:
-Occurs at rest
-Alcoholics, chronic smokers, Raynaud’s
-Chest pain that occurs d/t coronary spasms

A

Prinzmetal’s

194
Q

Name the type of angina:
-Small distal branches of coronary arteries
-More common in women
-Provoked by exercise

A

Microvascular

195
Q

Unstable angina, Non-STEMI or STEMI:
-New onset chest pain
-ST elevation or T-wave inversion

A

Unstable angina

196
Q

Unstable angina, Non-STEMI or STEMI:
-Partial blockage (still time to intervene)
-May or may not have EKG changes

197
Q

Unstable angina, Non-STEMI or STEMI:
-Complete occlusion
-ST elevation on EKG
-Cath Lab ASAP

198
Q

What is the nurse’s responsibility pre-op for a balloon angioplasty (cardiac cath)

A

Assess for dye allergy

199
Q

What does a cardiac cath assess for?

A

Coronary artery patency

200
Q

What education needs are necessary for pts getting cardiac cath?

A

-DAPT (for 12 months, aspirin for life)
-Bedrest for 2-4 hrs post-op

201
Q

What is the patho of acute coronary syndrome?

A

MI, prolonged ischemia not immediately reversible (> 20 min) d/t partial or complete arterial blockage (> 70-80%)

202
Q

What are the classes of ACS?

A

1) Unstable angina
2) NSTEMI
3) STEMI

203
Q

What is tx for ACS?

A

-NAM (specifically nitro)

204
Q

True or False:
Nitro is given to pts with lateral MI

A

False- pts with lateral MI are already hypotensive and cannot receive nitroglycerin because their BP will bottom out

205
Q

What is the patho of an MI?

A

1) Thrombus formation
2) Blockage of blood flow
3) Infarction beyond occlusion
4) Necrosis

206
Q

If an MI occurs at the inferior wall, what vessel is involved and what area of the heart is affected?

A

Right coronary artery
LV

207
Q

If an MI occurs at the anterior wall, what vessel is involved and what area of the heart is affected?

A

Left descending artery
LV

208
Q

If an MI occurs at the lateral wall, what vessel is involved?

A

Left circumflex artery

209
Q

What areas do the inferior wall (right coronary artery) perfuse?

A

-RA
-RV
-LV
-SA node
-AV node

210
Q

What areas do the anterior wall (Left descending artery) perfuse?

A

-LA
-LV
-RV
-Septum
-Bundle Branches

211
Q

What areas doses the lateral wall (left circumflex artery) perfuse?

A

-LA
-LV
-Septum

212
Q

What is the presentation of MI?

A

Chest pain:
-Unrelieved by rest, position, or nitrates
-Crushing, heavy, pressure, tight, burning, constriction
-Duration > 20 min
-SOB
-Anxiety d/t “air hunger
-Radiating pain to either arm, back, neck, or jaw

-Anxiety
-Dysrhythmias
-SNS stim

213
Q

What is the tx for an MI?

A

1) ONAM
2) Thrombolytics, PCI
3) Fibrinolytic therapy
4) DAPT

214
Q

What is the process of cardiac deterioration?

A

1) Myocardial ischemia
2) Decreased O2 supply
3) Cellular hypoxia (d/t lactic acid build up)
4) Altered cell membrane integrity (d/t increased troponin)
5) Decreased contractility, CO, & arterial pressure
6) Baroreceptors stimulated
7) SNS response
8) Increased contractility & peripheral vasconstriction
9) Increased afterload and HR
10) Decreased diastolic filling & coronary perfusion
11) Increased myocardial O2 demand

215
Q

What kind of IVs need to be placed in someone w/ an MI?

A
  • 2 large bore 18G IVs in AC
216
Q

What are complications of an MI?

A

1) Dysrhythmias
2) HF
3) Cardiogenic shock
4) Papillary muscle dysfunction
5) Ventricular wall aneurysm
6) Ventricular septal wall rupture
7) Pericarditis
8) Dressler’s Syndrome

217
Q

What is the most common dysrhythmia resulting from an MI?

218
Q

What are S&S of HF post-MI?

A

-Edema/wt gain
-SOB
-Racing HR
-Restlessness/agitation

219
Q

What is cardiogenic shock?

A

The body can’t get enough oxygen or nutrients, and can’t sent them to tissues so the organs fail
**Can be lethal

220
Q

What does papillary muscle dysfunction cause?

A

Mitral valve regurgitation & puts extra stress on LV = decreased CO

221
Q

What is a major concern with ventricular wall aneurysm?

A

Infarcted ventricular wall bulges out
-If thrombosis present, clot can break off and cause stroke on next contraction

222
Q

How long after a MI does pericarditis occur?

223
Q

When is pericarditis felt/what education needs to be provided to pt?

A

-Common
-May feel chest pain, but not MI
-Chest pain is felt with deep breaths & feels differently than MI

224
Q

What is Dressler’s Syndrome?

A

Pericarditis w/ pleural effusion and fever

225
Q

What will a pt w/ Dressler’s Syndrome c/o?

A

Chest and joint pain

226
Q

True or False:
Dressler’s Syndrome is the most common cause of death post-MI because people think they have the common cold

227
Q

How long after an MI does Dressler’s Syndrome usually occur?

228
Q

What is the daily tx for a pt post-MI?

A

1) Nitrates
2) Morphine
3) Beta blockers
4) ACE inhibitors
5) ARBs

229
Q

What do nitrates do to help post-MI?

A

Dilators – decreased pre and afterload

230
Q

What do beta blockers do to help post-MI?

A

decrease O2 demand by decreasing HR and BP

231
Q

What do ARBs do to help post-MI?

A

reduce LV dysfunction & slows progress of HF

232
Q

What classes of medications will a post-MI pt go home on?

A

1) Ca+ channel blockers
2) Anti-dysrhythmics
3) Lipid-lowering agents
4) Stool softeners
5) ASA/antiplatelets

233
Q

What is the etiology (cause) of sudden cardiac death syndrome?

A

1) Acute ventricular dysrhythmia
2) LV dysfunction
3) Structural heart disease

234
Q

What are S&S of sudden cardiac death?

A

1) Dizziness/lightheadedness
2) Chest racing
*** Reported by family

235
Q

What is the initial care for sudden cardiac death?

236
Q

What is the post-care of sudden cardiac death syndrome?

A

1) Hypothermia protocol
2) Dx cause
3) ICP (implanted cardioverted defibrillator)

237
Q

What are hypothermia protocols?

A

Ice under axilla or groin, cooling fluids

238
Q

Why do we do hypothermia protocols in pts with sudden cardiac death?

A

1) Prevent cerebral edema
2) Preserve neuro function

239
Q

When is coronary revascularization done?

A

Surgical intervention for CAD
1) When PCI can’t be done
2) Failed PCI
3) Failed med managment
4) Left main coronary artery disease
5) Tricuspid valve disease

240
Q

What is the most common vessel used in CABG and why?

A

Internal Mamillary Artery – best patency

241
Q

What vessels can be used in CABG?

A

1) IMA
2) Saphenous veins
3) Radial artery
4) Gastroepiploic

242
Q

What problem can be seen with the use of saphenous veins in a CABG?

A

Hyperplastic cells – cells lose patency
** pts take statins and antiplatelets to maintain patency

243
Q

Why is the radial artery not ideal to use in a CABG?

A

Prone to spasming & causes chest pain
-In effected arm, pt will experience paresthesia, impaired sensation, and changes of pulse strength

244
Q

Which vessel still has good patency even after 10 years of use in a CABG?

A

Gastroepiploic

245
Q

What does the pt need to be on doing into surgery?

A

Heparin d/t increased risk for clots

246
Q

What is a cardiopulmonary bypass graft (CPB)?

A

Pt’s blood is diverted from the heart to a machine that:
1) Oxygenates blood
2) Returns blood to patient
3) Pumps blood through circulatory system

247
Q

What can the use of a CPB result in?

A

1) Cooling of pts blood (hypothermia)
2) Systemic inflammation
3) Damage to RBCs and platelets
4) F/e imbalances (d/t amt of K+ received)

248
Q

What medication does a pt receive post-op of a CPB?

A

Protamine sulfate (to reverse anticoag)

249
Q

What are the respiratory post-op concerns of a CPB?

A

Atelectasis and pulmonary infection (pnemonia)

250
Q

What amount of chest tube drainage is concerning?

A

> 100 mL/hr

251
Q

What is the biggest post-op complication of cardiopulmonary bypass?

A

Cardiac tamponade (collection of fluid sitting on top of heart d/t surgery)

252
Q

What CV complications may occur after CPB?

A

-Narrowed pulse pressure
-JVD
-Increased HR
-Muffled heart tones

253
Q

Why is it important to closely monitor UO post-op of CPB?

A

Helps determine CO & if kidneys were adequately perfused in intraop

254
Q

Will pts have a NG tube post-op of CPB?

255
Q

What is the purpose of a chest tube?

A

1) Remove air or fluid from pleural space
2) Pneumothorax
3) Pleural effusion

256
Q

What is the tx goal of a chest tube?

A

Re-establish negative pressure within the pleural space

257
Q

What large amts of drainage post op of CPB is concerning?

258
Q

What are breath sounds like prior to a chest tube?

A

Diminshed/absent

259
Q

What kind of dressing needs to be placed when chest tube is removed?

A

Vaseline gauze & dry dressing

260
Q

What is the patho of HF?

A

Inability of heart to meet the body’s O2 demands
-Insufficient CO d/t cardiac injury
-Decreased perfusion, impaired gas exchange, f/e imbalances, decreased functional ability

261
Q

How do you dx HF?

A

1) BNP
2) CXR
3) ECHO
4) EKG

262
Q

What will BNP show in a pt w/ HF?

263
Q

What will CXR show in a pt w/ HF?

A

Big, boggy heart

264
Q

What will an echo show in a pt w/ HF?

265
Q

What will an EKG show in a pt w/ HF?

266
Q

What diseases is HF associated with?

A

CAD, HTN, MI

267
Q

What are the stages of HF?

A

1) Compensated
2) Acute decompensated (exacerbation)

268
Q

What are the types of HF?

A

1) Left side (preserved EF or Reduced EF)
2) Right sided
3) Biventricular

269
Q

What do primary contributing factors of HR do?

A

Interfere with pumping, the bloodflow through the heart, or w/ filling

270
Q

What are examples of primary contributing factors of HF?

A

-Valvular disorders
-Cardiomyopathy
-Myocarditis
-CAD
-Pulmonary HTN

271
Q

What do precipitating factors of HF do?

A

Increase metabolic O2 demand/workload of the heart

272
Q

What are examples of precipitating factors of HF?

A

1) Anemia
2) Metabolic syndromes
3) Smoking
4) Sleep apnea
5) PEs
5) Fluid overload
7) Dysrhythmias
8) Toxins (drugs, alcohol, chemo)

273
Q

What is the most common cause of right-sided HF?

A

Left-sided HF

274
Q

What is L sided HF?

A

Inability to empty/fill adequately & altered EF

275
Q

What is R sided HF?

A

Inability to pump effectively

276
Q

What is Biventricular HF?

A

Inability of both ventricles to pump efficiently

277
Q

What is the EF of preserved EFHF?

278
Q

What pts do we see preserved EFHF in?

A

-Managed HTN
-Managed DM w/ cardiac hx
-Obese
-Females

279
Q

What is the EF of pts w/ reduced EFHF?

280
Q

What is the patho of PEFHF?

A

Inability of ventricles to relax and fill –> decreased CO

281
Q

What is the patho of REFHF?

A

Impaired contractile function (cannot eject blood), dilated LV (blood backs up into pulmonary circulation)

282
Q

What are the sx of reduced EFHF?

A

Pulmonary edema & congestion

283
Q

What is the typical cause of reduced EFHF?

A

Previous heart attack

284
Q

What are the S&S of LSHF?

A

1) Decreased BP & CO
2) Decreased renal perfusion
3) Dyspnea
4) Exercise intolerance
5) Weakness and fatigue
6) Dysrhythmias
7) Nocturia
8) Orthopnea (esp when lying down)
9) Tachycardia

285
Q

What are the S&S of Right sided HF?

A

1) Fatigue
2) Anxiety & depression
3) RUQ pain
4) Anorexia/GI bleeding
5) Nausea
6) Wt gain/edema – most common

286
Q

What BNP level is diagnostic of HF?

A

< 100 pg/mL

287
Q

What are the classifications of CHF?

A

Systolic and diastolic

288
Q

What are CMs of CHF?

A

1) Blood in phlegm or sneezing
2) Dysrhythmias (a-fib, ventricular)
3) Nocturia
4) Cardiorenal syndrome
5) Pleural effusion
6) Hepatomegaly
7) Angina

289
Q

What does the WBC, RBC, H&H look like in a pt with CHF?

A

-Normal WBC
-Decreased RBC & H&H

290
Q

What does CMP look like it pt with CHF?

A

-Altered K+, Na+, Cl-, liver labs
-Decreased GFR

291
Q

What is the first line tx for CHF?

A

ACE inhibitors

292
Q

What is the worst side effect of ACEs in CHF?

A

Angioedema

293
Q

What is the drug therapy for CHF?

A

1) ACEs
2) ARBs
3) NARI
4) Beta blockers
5) Diuretics (alter volume/preload)
**all of these decrease afterload

294
Q

What are the body’s compensatory mechanisms for CHF?

A

-SNS
-RAAS
-Ventricular remodeling (dilation/hypertrophy)
***For dilation, remember Starling’s Law

295
Q

What does ventricular hypertrophy effect?

296
Q

What are counter-regulatory mechanisms for CHF?

A

1) ANP/BNP
2) Counter-effects of SNS & RAAS (vasodilation, diuresis, Na+ excretion, decreased BP & blood volume)
4) Nitric oxide

297
Q

What does nitric oxide do?

A

helps relax smooth muscles to help with vasodilation

298
Q

What is it called when there is less compliance in the lungs r/t interstitial edema and alveolar edema?

A

Acute decompensated HF

299
Q

What is it called when fluid moves into the alveoli & inhibits gas exchange in the alveolar/capillary interface?

A

Pulmonary edema

300
Q

What are the CMs of ADHF?

A

1) anxiety
2) severe dyspnea & tachypnea
3) cough
4) JVD
5) clammy/pale skin
6) Orthopnea
7) hypoTN
8) decreased UOP

301
Q

How does oxygen need to be given in ADHF?

A

Via facemask

302
Q

What bed position does someone with ADHF need to be in?

A

High fowlers

303
Q

What is the drug therapy for ADHF?

A

1) Diuretics
2) Vasodilators
3) Morphine
4) Positive ionotropes