Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

An increase in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event:

A

An evocative effect refers to

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2
Q

A decrease in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by some stimulus, object, or event

A

Abative effect

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3
Q

A stimulus or condition that increases the effectiveness of a stimulus as a reinforcer is known as a

A

establishing operation

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4
Q

Deprivation __________ the effectiveness of a reinforcer

A

increases

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5
Q

The effect that can increase or decrease the reinforcing effectiveness of a stimulus, object, or event is the ___________________.

A

value-altering effect

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6
Q

What is the BEST example of an unconditioned motivating operation (UMO) for an adult human?

A

eating dinner after a week of not eating

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7
Q

_____________ are value-altering events that are a result of a person’s learning history.

A

conditioned motivating operations

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8
Q

A decrease in operant behavior due to continued consumption of a reinforcer is known as a __________

A

satiation

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9
Q

Discriminative stimuli are events that have been associated with the availability or non-availability of reinforcement in the past.

true or false

A

true

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10
Q

A therapist knowingly provides a child with a bag of M&M’s that the child cannot open, so that they use the mand, “open!”. This is an example of:

A

CMO-T

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11
Q

When a reinforcer is continuously available, its reduced effectiveness is also known as satiation

true or false

A

true

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12
Q

Motivating operations are events that have been associated with the availability or non-availability of reinforcement in the past.

true or false

A

false

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13
Q

__________ are events that have been associated with the availability or non-availability of reinforcement in the past

A

Discriminative stimuli

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14
Q

A child in Mrs. Smith’s classroom hates to cut out shapes. When she see the yellow cardstock come out of the teacher’s drawer, she begins to tantrum. The yellow cardstock has become what kind of stimulus?

A

CMO-R

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15
Q

Discriminative stimuli alter the value of a reinforcer.

true or false

A

False

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16
Q

A stimulus in the presence of which a response will be reinforced

A

discriminative stimulus
SD

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17
Q

Motivating operations alter the value of a reinforcer.

true or false

A

True

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18
Q

A stimulus in the presence of which a response will not be reinforced:

A

A stimulus delta

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19
Q

A response occurs more frequently in the presence of a specific stimulus, but rarely occurs in the absence of the stimulus.

A

Operant stimulus control

has been achieved

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20
Q

The same response occurs in the presence of two different, but similar stimuli

A

Stimulus generalization has occurred

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21
Q

Which of the following would be included in the feature stimulus class for ducks:

A

Webbed feet

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21
Q

Requires both stimulus discrimination across different classes and stimulus generalization within a class

A

Concept formation

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22
Q

Stimuli in an arbitrary stimulus class:

A

Do not share similar stimulus features

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23
Q

A person responds accurately to untrained and nonreinforced stimulus-stimulus relations following training on different stimulus-stimulus relations.

A

Stimulus equivalence

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24
Q

The critical test for stimulus equivalence is:

A

Transitivity

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25
Q

All of the above

  • can affect the development of stimulus control
  • refers to the prominence of the stimulus in the person’s environment
  • can depend on the sensory capabilities of the learner
A

Stimulus salience

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26
Q

Physically helping an individual perform a task

A

prompt

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27
Q

a painting of a sailor, the word man, and a picture of a man

A

Which is the BEST example of an arbitrary stimulus class?

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28
Q

Joseph bites his mom when she asks him to stand up, and at no other time

A

BEST example of

stimulus control

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29
Q

Direct measurement refers to the ongoing assessment of an individual’s performance obtained in a real situation.

true or false

A

True

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30
Q

Direct measurement requires that inferences be made concerning an individual’s performance.

true or false

A

false

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31
Q

Many ineffective interventions are continued because direct and frequent measures are not gathered.

true or false

A

true

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32
Q

The crucial question for determining whether to continue an intervention is, “Is the program actually producing the skill development it claims to produce?”

true or false

A

True

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33
Q

When direct and frequent measurements are not collected, which of the following judgment error(s) commonly result?

A

Both A and B
(ineffective interventions are continued, effective programs are discontinued)

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34
Q

Measurement of permanent products is desirable because:

A

All of these are desirable characteristics of a permanent product
(The behavior does not have to be observed as it occurs, permanent products can be
translated into numbers, permanent products are outcomes of academic instruction)

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35
Q

Counting or tallying behaviors as they occur is called:

A

event recording

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36
Q

What type of recording should be used when the length of time a client engages in a behavior is the concern?

A

Duration recording

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37
Q

Measuring the length of elapsed time between the onset of a stimulus and the occurrence of a behavior is called ________ recording?

A

latency

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38
Q

Measuring the presence or absence of behavior within intervals is called _______ recording:

A

interval

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39
Q

Which observational recording procedure requires the observer to record whether the behavior was present or absent at any time during the time interval?

A

partial-interval

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39
Q

Which observational recording procedure requires the presence of the behavior throughout the entire interval?

A

whole-interval

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40
Q

Which observational recording procedure OVER-estimates the occurrence of the behavior?

A

Partial-interval

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41
Q

Which observational recording procedure UNDER-estimates the occurrence of the behavior?

A

whole-interval

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41
Q

What recording procedure is concerned with recording the presence or absence of behaviors immediately following specified time intervals?

A

momentary time-sampling

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42
Q

Tallying the number of individuals engaged in specified behaviors and comparing this to the total number of individuals in the group is an example of:

A

PLACHECK

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43
Q

What term refers to the number of behaviors occurring in a unit of time?

A

frequency (or rate)

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44
Q

Which procedure refers to the report of the number of times response opportunities are presented before an individual achieves a pre-established accuracy or proficiency level?

A

trials to criterion

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45
Q

A strength, force, or intensity of a response is called the:

A

magnitude

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46
Q

The form or shape of the behavior is called the:

A

topography

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47
Q

Collecting interobserver agreement on the independent variable is called:

A

procedural reliability

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47
Q

Hersen and Barlow (1976) recommend that observers continue training until they achieve a minimum of _______ agreement.

A

80%

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48
Q

The most common convention for reporting interobserver agreement measures in ABA is:

A

percent agreement

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49
Q

Making agreement measures unobtrusive or covert is a method for minimizing:

A

reactivity

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49
Q

What term refers to differences in agreement that result when observers are aware that their observations will be checked as opposed to how they record when their observations are not checked?

A

reactivity

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50
Q

When observers change the way they employ the definition of behavior over the course of an investigation it is called:

A

observer drift

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51
Q

In doing an observation of out-of-seat behavior, two observers agreed that the student was out of his seat 24 out of 30 times (i.e., they agreed 24 times and disagreed 6 times). This does not meet the minimum agreement for IOA.

A

False

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52
Q

What time intervals should be used with momentary time sampling?

A

60 seconds or less

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53
Q

Test and Heward (1984) recommend the number of sessions for data collection using momentary time sampling be ________ other data collection techniques.

A

longer than

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54
Q

It is important to collect interobserver agreement on the independent variable to

A

demonstrate procedural reliability

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55
Q

Applied Behavior Analysis is set apart from other disciplines devoted to the understanding and improvement of human behavior with respect to its:

A

All of the above (goals, focus, methodology)

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56
Q

The term “applied” in ABA means that technology is applied to a research question.

A

False

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57
Q

S-R psychology is a paradigm for modern behaviorism

A

False

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58
Q

Different types of scientific investigations yield 1 or more of three levels of understanding of phenomena under study. These are:

A

prediction, description, and control

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59
Q

Scientific “attitudes” as described by Skinner include:

A

experimentation, philosophic doubt, and parsimony

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60
Q

Which characteristic of ABA refers to the commitment to affecting improvements in behaviors that enhance and improve people’s lives?

A

Applied

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61
Q

Which characteristic of ABA refers to clarity in its methodology?

A

Technological

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61
Q

In a functional relation, the ______________ is the behavior that was changed.

A

dependent variable

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62
Q

In a functional relation, the ______________ is the intervention

A

independent variable

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63
Q

Radical behaviorism is a philosophical position that considers behavioral events that cannot be publicly observed to be outside the realm of the science.

true or false

A

False

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64
Q

The dependent variable is the intervention in a functional relation.

true or false

A

false

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64
Q

Free will is compatible with determinism.

true or false

A

false

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65
Q

The independent variable is the intervention in a functional relation.

true or false

A

true

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66
Q

Behavior that is elicited by antecedent stimuli is referred to as:

A

respondent behavior

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67
Q

When certain stimuli increase the future probability of a behavior when they are terminated immediately following a response, what has occurred is termed:

A

negative reinforcement

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68
Q

Respondent behavior is:

A

elicited

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69
Q

Your sister can be an unconditioned punisher.

A

False

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70
Q

Reading a book is a response.

A

False

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71
Q

involves the reinforcement occurring independent of another person delivering it

A

Automatic reinforcement

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72
Q

__________ reinforcers are established based on a history of pairing with established reinforcers.

A

conditioned

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72
Q

Stimuli that do not require a learning history to acquire reinforcing qualities are known as

A

unconditioned reinforcers

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73
Q

Arranging high-frequency (ie., high preference) activities to follow low-frequency (ie., low preference) activities is an application of

A

the Premack Principle

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74
Q

In addition to increasing the future frequency of the behavior it follows, reinforcement changes the function of antecedent stimuli.

true or false

A

true

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75
Q

An antecedent stimulus that evokes behavior because it has been correlated with the availability of reinforcement is called a(n) ________.

A

discriminative stimulus

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76
Q

Humans must be able to connect the behavior and the reinforcing consequence in order to be effective, due to their language ability. Other organisms do not need to connect the behavior and the reinforcing consequence.

true or false

A

false

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77
Q

Removal and reduction of ongoing stimulation typically produce behavior that is called _____________ whereas postponement and prevention of stimulus presentation produce behavior that is called _____________.

A

escape; avoidance

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78
Q

A _________ is a conditioned reinforcer that does not depend on a current establishing operation for any particular form of reinforcement for its effectiveness.

A

generalized conditioned reinforcer

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79
Q

To avoid shaping more dangerous escape-maintained behaviors in educational settings, the person intervening should:

A
  • ensure teaching technique is varied and not aversive
  • demand not too difficult,
  • demand is not too easy

do all of the above

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80
Q

According to Osborne’s 1969 study, Iwata indicated that free time could either be defined as the availability of preferred activities or the termination of non-preferred activities.

true or false

81
Q

When a student exhibits an undesirable, but not dangerous behavior when presented with a demand, it is recommended that you ignore the minor behavior and prevent escape in order to extinguish the behavior.

true or false

82
Q

Positive reinforcement for compliance alone does not suppress avoidance-motivated self-injury.

true or false

83
Q

According to the matching law, as reinforcer deliveries increase along the x-axis, proportional increases in behavior are depicted along the y-axis.

true or false

84
Q

By applying the matching law, you can utilize differential reinforcement without employing extinction on the inappropriate behavior.

true or false

85
Q

Herrnstein found a near-perfect, ________ correlation between one unit increase in ________ with one unit increase in behavior.

A

positive; reinforcement

86
Q

This graph best represents:

A

Herrnstein’s Matching Law

87
Q

Neef et al. (1994) described (4) reinforcer dimensions. What were they?

A

rate, quality, delay, and effort

88
Q

Positive punishment can best be defined as:

A

delivery of a stimulus after a behavior that decreases the occurrence of the behavior

89
Q

According to Sidman (1993), ineffective teaching produces and exacerbates problem behavior.

true or false

90
Q

Punishment is defined neither by the actions of the person delivering the consequences nor by the nature of those consequences (e.g., time-out).

true or false

91
Q

____________ has occurred when the frequency of responding has been decreased by the presentation of a stimulus.

A

positive punishment

92
Q

Which of the following is an example of an unconditioned punisher?

93
Q

A previously neutral stimulus changes that functions as a punisher because of prior pairing with one or more other punishers.

A

conditioned punisher

94
Q

A stimulus that, usually, is punishing without any prior learning.

A

unconditioned punisher

95
Q

a stimulus that has acquired reinforcing properties through prior learning

A

conditioned reinforcer

96
Q

A stimulus that, usually, is reinforcing without any prior learning.

A

Unconditioned Reinforcer

97
Q

May lead to an increase in other undesirable behavior. Can lead to problems such as escape & avoidance, emotional outbursts, and behavioral contrast.

A

Side effects of punishment

98
Q

any event that strengthens the behavior it follows

A

Reinforcer

99
Q

A stimulus change that decreases the future frequency of behavior that immediately precedes it.

100
Q

Suggests that when different schedules of reinforcement are available at the same time for different behaviors, individuals will distribute their behavior according to the relative rates of reinforcement available for each option.

A

Hernstein’s Matching Law

101
Q

Is the environmental conditions or stimulus changes that exist or occur prior to the behavior of interest.

A

antecedent

102
Q

An organism’s interaction with the environment.

103
Q

Is anything immediately following a behavior in which we are interested. Makes the behavior more or less likely to happen in the future.

A

consequence

104
Q

Is the antecedent stimulus that has stimulus control over behavior because the behavior was reliably reinforced in the presence of that stimulus in the past. It signals the availability of a particular reinforcer for a particular behavior.

A

Discriminative Stimulus (SD)

105
Q

influences the effectiveness of a reinforcer or punisher while also influencing the frequency of the specific behavior.

A

Motivating Operation (MO)

106
Q

Some professionals will also refer to this technique as “First/Then”, “If/Then”, or “High Probability/Low Probability.”

A

Premack Principle

107
Q

reinforcement that occurs independent of the social mediation of others. When a person’s behavior creates a favorable outcome without the involvement of another person.

A

Automatic Reinforcement

108
Q

An action or change in behavior that occurs as a result of a stimulus.

Is a single instance of behavior.

109
Q

Is defined as behavior that is elicited by antecedent stimuli.

It is induced, or brought out, by a stimulus that precedes the behavior: nothing else is required for the response to occur.

i.e. bright light in the eyes (antecedent stimulus) will elicit pupil contraction.

A

respondent behavior

110
Q

Behavior that is selected, maintained, and brought under stimulus control as a function of its consequences.

each person’s repertoire of this type of behavior is a product of his history of interactions with the environment

A

operant behavior

111
Q

Attempts to understand all human behavior, including private events such as thoughts and feelings, in terms of controlling variables in the history of the person and the species.

A

Radical Behaviorism (Skinner)

112
Q

a philosophical position that views behavioral events that cannot be publicly observed as outside the realm of science.

It acknowledges the existence of mental events but do not consider them in the analysis of behavior.

A

methodological behaviorism

113
Q

Scientific Attitudes (Skinner..DEERPP)

A

Determinism,

Empiricism,

Experimentation,

Replication,

Parsimony,

Philosophic Doubt.

113
Q

The measured behavior in an experiment to determine if it changes as a result of manipulations of the independent variable; in applied behavior analysis, it represents some measure of a socially significant behavior. (Target behavior)

A

Dependent Variable (DV)

114
Q

Assumes that all behavior is the result of certain events. Once these events are identified, future occurrences of a behavior can be modified.

A

Determinism

114
Q

The variable that is systematically manipulated by the researcher in an experiment to see whether changes in this variable will produce reliable changes in the dependent variable.

In applied behavior analysis, it is usually an environment event or condition antecedent or consequent to the dependent variable. (sometimes called the intervention or treatment variable)

A

Independent Variable (IV)

115
Q

is the practice of objective observation of the phenomena of interest experiment, a type of research activity that involves changing only one component of an individual’s environment (IV) to see its effect on some specified behavior (DV) experimental analysis of behavior (EAB)

This is the OBSERVATION and DATA taking part of ABA.

A

Empiricism

116
Q

is the manipulation of variables and taking measurements and collecting data yields answers. It is a controlled comparison of some measure of the phenomenon of interest (DV) under two or more different conditions in which only one factor at a time (IV) differs from one condition to another.

A

Experimentation

116
Q

Is the repeating of experiments (as well as repeating IV conditions within experiments). Replication is the primary method scientists determine the reliability and usefulness of their findings and discover their mistakes.

A

Replication

117
Q

requires that all simple, logical explanations for the phenomenon under investigation be ruled out, experimentally or conceptually, before more complex or abstract explanations are considered.

In other words, given a choice between two competing and compelling explanations for the same phenomenon, one should shave off extraneous variables and choose the simplest explanation, the one that requires the fewest assumptions.

CHOOSING THE SIMPLEST AND MOST LOGICAL EXPLANATION.

117
Q

requires the scientist to continually question the truthfulness of what is regarded as fact. Good scientists maintain a healthy level of skepticism. It’s an attitude that the truthfulness and validity of all scientific theory and knowledge should be continually questioned.

QUESTION EVERYTHING!

A

Philosophic Doubt

118
Q

enhances the understanding of a given phenomenon. Descriptive knowledge consists of a collection of facts about the observed events that can be quantified, classified, and examined for possible relations with other known facts.

A

description

118
Q

occurs when repeated observations reveal that two events consistently covary with each other. When in the presence of one event another event occurs with some specified probability.

A

prediction

119
Q

the highest level of scientific understanding. When you are able to arrange conditions and manipulate the environment.

119
Q

3 levels of scientific understanding (DPC)

A

description, prediction, control

119
Q

the observer marks down whether or not the behavior was occurring at the moment the interval ended.

A

Momentary Time Sampling

120
Q

the observer records whether the target behavior occurred throughout the entire interval; tends to underestimate the proportion of the observation period that many behaviors actually occurred.

A

Whole Interval Recording

121
Q

a time sampling method in which the observer records whether the target behavior occurred at any time during the interval.

A

Partial Interval Recording

122
Q

a variation of momentary time sampling in which the observer records whether each person in a group is engaged in the target behavior at specific points in time; provides a measure of “group behavior”

A

planned activity check (PLACHECK)

123
Q

The degree to which 2 or more independent observers report the same observed values after measuring the same events

A

Interobserver Agreement (IOA)

124
Q

4 Methods for collecting IOA

A

total count IOA,

mean count-per-interval IOA,

exact count-per-interval IOA,

trial-by-trial IOA.

125
Q

(Int.1 IOA + Int. 2 IOA + Int.N IOA)/n intervals x 100= %

A

mean count-per-interval IOA formula

126
Q

Smaller count/Larger count x 100 = %

A

total count IOA formula

127
Q

N Intervals of 100% IOA/N intervals x 100 = %

A

exact count-per-interval IOA formula

128
Q

Number of trial (items) agreement/Total number of trials (items) x 100= %

A

trial-by-trial IOA formula

129
Q

minimum agreement IOA

A

80% agreement is the minimum agreement for research in ABA

130
Q

any measurement error that comes from an observers knowledge that others are evaluating the data that they report

A

observer reactivity

131
Q

Systematic errors in observation that occur because of an observer’s expectations.

Is the tendency to see what we expect to see, or what we want to see.

A

observer bias

132
Q

Any unintended change in the way an observer uses a measurement system over the course of an investigation that results in measurement error.

A

observer drift

133
Q

Is a recording used to document the amount of time a student spends engaging in a behavior.

This type of data collection is appropriate for behaviors that have a distinct beginning and ending or for those that occur at very high rates (e.g., tantrumming, being out of seat, not completing a task).

133
Q

The force or intensity with which a response is emitted.

133
Q

is the physical form or shape of behavior. It describes behavior—specifically what the behavior looks like. defines instances of the targeted response class by the shape or form of the behavior. Specifically what behavior looks like.

A

Topography

134
Q

Is a recording that measures the amount of time that lapses between an antecedent (e.g., teacher’s directive) and when the student begins to perform a specified behavior.

135
Q

measuring behavior after it has occurred by measuring the effects that the behavior produced on the environment.

A

measurement by permanent product

136
Q

Occurs when the behavior that is measured is in some way different from the behavior of interest.

It is when the target behavior is not directly observed, conclusions are drawn from other behaviors or environmental events.

includes: Permanent product recording, self-monitoring, interviews, surveys and rating scales.

A

indirect measurement

136
Q

Occurs when the behavior that is measured is the same as the behavior that is the focus of the investigation.

The individual measuring behavior takes data by being physically present and directly observing the behavior.

Examples: Frequency and duration are both examples of direct measurement.

A

direct measurement

137
Q

contains stimuli that evoke the same response but do not share a common physical feature

A

arbitrary stimulus class

138
Q

Defined as a change in operant behavior that occurs when either an SD or S^ is presented. When an SD is presented, the probability of response increases; and when an S^ is given, operant behavior has a low probability of occurrence.

A

stimulus control

139
Q

Is when the salience of a stimulus is decreased. A competing stimulus blocks the evocative power of the stimulus, decreasing its effectiveness.

139
Q

refers to how obvious or prominent a stimulus is in a person’s environment.

If a person has visual deficits, then visual stimulus will not have as much salience as auditory stimulus, for example.

A

Stimulus/Prompt Salience

140
Q

is when the first stimulus has no more stimulus control.

A

Overshadowing

141
Q

the emergence of accurate responding to untrained and nonreinforced stimulus-stimulus relations following the reinforcement of responses to some stimulus-stimulus relations.

In other words, it is when two forms of reinforced teaching lead to a third concept that was not taught or reinforced

A

stimulus equivalence

142
Q

refers to the transfer of the relation to new combinations through shared membership (if AB and BC, then AC).

A

Transivity

142
Q

refers to the reversibility of a relation (if AB, then BA)

143
Q

refers to the matching of a sample to itself, sometimes called identity matching (AA, BB, CC, in these examples, each letter pair represents a sample and its matching comparison stimulus).

A

Reflexivity

144
Q

learning that occurs when stimuli that are similar but not identical to the conditioned stimulus produce the conditioned response.

A

stimulus generalization

145
Q

Requires Stimulus control that has attained generalization within a class of stimuli and discrimination between classes of stimuli.

A

Concept Formation

146
Q

A decrease in the frequency of operant behavior presumed to be the result of continued contact with or consumption of a reinforcer that has followed the behavior.

147
Q

is the absence or reduction of a reinforcer for a period of time. It is an establishing operation that increases the effectiveness of the reinforcer and the rate of behavior that produced that reinforcer in the past.

A

deprivation

147
Q

EXAMPLE: Mom usually puts the baby to sleep. One day, dad tried to put the baby to sleep, but the baby didn’t fall asleep. Mom usually wears a certain fuzzy house robe that the baby has paired with sleep. Dad wears mom’s house robe and the pairing of the robe with dad helps the baby fall asleep.

147
Q

3 Types of CMOs

A

surrogate (CMO-S)

reflexive (CMO-R)

transitive (CMO-T)

148
Q

A condition or an object that acquires its effectiveness as an MO by preceding a situation that either is worsening or improving. This signals to us that an aversive event may be occurring soon.

A

Reflexive CMO (CMO-R)

148
Q

A stimulus that acquires its MO effectiveness by being paired with another MO and has the same value-altering and behavior-altering effects as the MO with which it was paired.

A

Surrogate CMO (CMO-S)

149
Q

Example: The punishing coworker. In the presence of this person you “can’t seem to do anything right” and are constantly punished. She is always finding fault with you. Because of this, you want to spend less time with this person and you avoid her. Soon the office associated with her takes on these aversive qualities and you avoid going anywhere near where this person might be. Even hearing their voice down the hallway may signal you to take an early lunch and avoid running into them (and therefore avoid possible punishment).

150
Q

An environmental variable that establishes (or abolishes) the reinforcing effectiveness of another stimulus and thereby evokes (or abates) the behavior that has been reinforced by that other stimulus.

A

Transitive CMO (CMO-T)

151
Q

Example: Someone puts a lock on the fridge. This establishes the reinforcing value of a key (key becomes the ____________) when access to food is valuable as a source of reinforcement.

152
Q

A motivating operation whose value-altering effect does not depend on a learning history. For example, food deprivation increases the reinforcing effectiveness of food without the necessity of any learning history.

A

unconditioned motivating operation (UMO)

153
Q

Include states such as being tired, hungry, thirsty and wanting of activity.

A clear example, if you are stranded on an island without food the need to satisfy hunger would be reinforced. This association would not have to have been previously learned.

154
Q

A motivating operation that decreases the reinforcing effectiveness of a stimulus, object, or event. For example, the reinforcing effectiveness of food is abolished as a result of food ingestion.

A

Abolishing Operation (AO)

155
Q

A motivating operation that establishes (increases) the effectiveness of some stimulus, object, or event as a reinforcer. For example, food deprivation establishes food as an effective reinforcer.

A

Establishing Operation (EO)

156
Q

An increase in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by the stimulus that is increased in reinforcing effectiveness by the same motivating operation.

Example, when the organism is deprived of food, there will be an increase in behaviors (e.g., foraging) that have been reinforced with food in the past.

A

Evocative effect

157
Q

A decrease in the current frequency of behavior that has been reinforced by the stimulus that is increased in reinforcing effectiveness by the same motivating operation.

Example: food ingestion abates (decreases the current frequency of) behavior that has been reinforced by food. abolishing operation (AO)

A

Abative effect

158
Q

Measurement is _______ when it yields the same values across repeated measure of the same event

159
Q

Measurement _____________ are data that give an unclear picture of the behavior because of the way the experiment was conducted.

160
Q

Measurement that is _______, _______ ,and ____ yields the most trustworthy and useful data for science.

A

Valid, accurate, and reliable

160
Q

Which is a false statement about the requirements of IOA?

A

IOA observers must always score videotapes together.

161
Q

Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to measurement error.

A

Well trained observers

162
Q

Measurement is accurate when observed values, of the data produced by measuring an event, match the true state, or true values of the event.

true or false

163
Q

Scored—interval IOA is recommended for behaviors that occur at relative ______ frequencies, un-scored interval IPA is recommended for behaviors that occur at ____ frequencies.

164
Q

Observers should not receive systematic training prior to data collection because training will cause observer bias.

165
Q

Finding the true values for some behaviors, for example compliance, are difficult.

165
Q

Observers should receive feedback about the extent to which their data confirm or run counter to hypothesized results or treatment goals.

166
Q

Behavior change is considered a __________ and _____ process, therefore it is important to maintain direct and continuous contact with the behavior under investigation.

A

dynamic, ongoing

167
Q

____________ are simple formats for visually evaluating relationships among and between a series of measurement.

168
Q

Graphs are considered a ________, devices that help the practitioner or experimenter interpret the results of a study of treatment.

A

Judgment aid

169
Q

The____________is the most common graphic format for displaying data in ABA.

A

Line Graph

170
Q

Behavior analysts typically use __________ ___________ to interpret graphically displayed data.

A

Visual Analysis

171
Q

The overall direction taken by a data path is called it’s_____

172
Q

Graphs are not considered an effective source of feedback to the person whose behavior change is represented.

173
Q

A ______ ______ is only achieved through control and involves a specific change in one event (dependent variable) that can reliably be produced by specific manipulations of another event (independent variable), and the change in the dependent variable is unlikely to be the result of other extraneous factors (confounding variables).

A

Functional Relation

174
Q

A ___________ is a group of responses of varying topography, all of which produce the same effect on the environment.

A

Response Class

175
Q

A good behavior definition should be ______, clear, and complete.

175
Q

A behavior that produces corresponding modifications or co-variations in other adaptive, untrained behaviors is a(n) ______ behavior.

176
Q

A principle of behavior describes a(n) _______________ _____________ between behavior and one or more of its controlling variables.

A

Functional Relation

176
Q

Devon is driving his brand new car, sees a red light, and “hits” the gas (that is, he speeds through the red light). Devon’s car is hit. Devon is fine, but his brand new car is dented. In the future, under similar conditions, Devon no longer speeds up when he sees a red light.
Antecedent: Sees red light.
Behavior: “Hits the gas” (that is, speeds up).
Consequence: Car crash.
Which operation best describes this scenario?

A

Positive Punishment

177
Q

Measurement __________________ are data that give an unwarranted or misleading picture of the behavior because of the way measurement was conducted.

178
Q

Measurement bias caused by observer expectations can be avoided by using __________ observers.

179
Q

One method of determining the priority of various potential target behaviors is to use a ______ matrix.
Ranking

Rebecca walks by her kitchen cabinet and smells something foul. She looks into the cabinet and sees that the cat’s litter box is full. She scoops the waste and pours in fresh litter. Rebecca no longer smells the odor. In the future, under similar conditions Rebecca continues to scoop and pour litter.
Antecedent: Foul odor and the sight of the full cat litter box.
Behavior: Scooping the waste and pouring fresh litter.
Consequence: Foul odor is removed.
Which operation best describes this scenario?

A

Negative Reinforcement

180
Q

Simon is sitting in his living room and gets a chill from the open window. He gets up and closes the window. The chill in the air is removed. In the future, under similar conditions, Simon closes the window when he feels a chill.
Antecedent: Gets a chill.
Behavior: Closes the window.
Consequence: Chill is removed.

Which operation best describes this scenario?

A

Negative Reinforcement

181
Q

Test scores, washing dishes, or picking up garbage could be measured by the effect of the behavior on the environment after it has occurred. These behaviors could be measured using the natural procedure known as:

A

Permanent Product

182
Q

The amount of time that elapses between two consecutive instances of a response class is the ______ time.

A

Inter-response

182
Q

Time-out and response cost are basic principles of behavior every applied behavior analyst should know.

183
Q

True values for some behaviors (for example, compliance) are difficult because the process for determining true value must be different from the measurement procedures used to obtain the data one wishes to compare to the true value.

184
Q

Which of the following is not a factor that contributes to measurement error?

A

Well trained

185
Q

__________ and __________ are examples of motivating operations that make food more or less effective as reinforcement.

A

satiation and deprivation

186
Q

__________ is the degree to which two or more independent observers report the same observed values after measuring the same events.

A

Interobserver agreement (IOA).

187
Q

__________________ _____________ is the biggest threat to the accuracy and reliability of data.

A

Human Error

188
Q

__________ refers to a specific instance of behavior.

189
Q

data is directly relevant to the phenomenon measured and to the reason for measuring it.

190
Q

the extent that the observed value matches the true value of an event.

191
Q

measurement procedure yields the same value with repeated contact with the same state of nature.

A

Reliability