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phm sci 310 > exam 3 > Flashcards

exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What statement about the hormone insulin is correct?
    a. Insulin causes blood glucose levels to decrease
    b. Insulin causes GLUT4 transporters to decrease on muscle cell membranes
    c. Insulin causes less glucose to be stored as glycogen
    d. Insulin causes less glucose to be stored as fatty acids
A

a

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2
Q
  1. This describes a symptom of untreated type 1 diabetes?
    a. The body secretes too much insulin
    b. The amount of glucose in the blood becomes too low
    c. Urination becomes more frequent
    d. Expression of the insulin receptor is reduced
A

c

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3
Q
  1. Which statement best describes how recombinant DNA based drugs are manufactured?
    a. They are always made from artificial genes expressed in hamster cells
    b. They are always made from artificial genes expressed from plasmids in bacteria
    c. They are made by synthesis in a test tube that does not involve artificial genes
    d. They are sometimes made by artificial genes expressed in hamster cells and sometimes
    made by artificial genes expressed bacteria
A

d

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4
Q
  1. This best describes a serious health risk from using too much epoetin alpha (Procrit, EPO)?
    a. Death due to ketoacidosis
    b. Death due to heart attack
    c. Death due to respiratory depression
    d. Death due to kidney disease
A

b

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5
Q
  1. This is an enzyme that covalently joins two pieces of DNA?
    a. DNA ligase
    b. DNA polymerase
    c. Endonuclease
    d. Exonuclease
A

a

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6
Q
  1. Drugs known as anabolic steroids have actions similar to this human hormone?
    a. Testosterone
    b. Insulin
    c. Erythropoietin
    d. Progesterone
A

a

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7
Q
  1. This drug is a GnRH agonist than can be used to treat prostate cancer?
    a. finasteride (Proscar)
    b. degarelix (Firmagon)
    c. leuprorelin (Lupron)
    d. abiraterone (Zytiga)
A

c

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8
Q
  1. This is a change associated with use of estrogen/progestin birth control?
    a. GnRH secretion is increased
    b. LH secretion is suppressed
    c. FSH secretion is increased
    d. Ovulation is stimulated
A

b

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9
Q
  1. The function of 5 alpha reductase is what?
    a. Conversion of testosterone into DHT
    b. Conversion of pregnenolone into testosterone
    c. Conversion of estrogen into testosterone
    d. Conversion of progesterone into testosterone
A

a

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10
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Lecanemab-irmb (Leqembi) is CORRECT?
    a. It was found to increase plaque burden
    b. It completely stops cognitive decline in Alzheimer’s disease
    c. It can cause amyloid related imaging abnormalities (ARIA)
    d. It is FDA approved for treating moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease
A

c

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about acetylcholinesterase inhibitors is CORRECT?
    a. They do not stop neuron loss
    b. They raise acetylcholine levels
    c. Donepezil (Aricept) is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
    d. All of the above are CORRECT
A

d

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is CORRECT?
    a. It has been definitively established that the form of Ab found in plaques is the Ab form that
    plays the biggest role in AD
    b. Neurofibrillary tangles contain extracellular clumps of Ab
    c. People with AD have increased numbers of neurons in the cortex
    d. AD is considered an irreversible form of dementia
A

d

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is a NMDA receptor non-competitive partial antagonist?
    a. Donepezil (Aricept)
    b. Memantine (Namenda)
    c. Lecanemab-irmb (Leqembi)
    d. Loratadine (Claritin)
A

b

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following influence someone’s risk of developing Alzheimer’s disease?
    a. Their age
    b. Their genetics
    c. Factors in their environment
    d. All of the above
A

d

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about histamine is CORRECT?
    a. It can act as a neurotransmitter
    b. There are two types of histamine receptors: H1 and H2
    c. H1 antihistamines also completely block the action of histamine at H2 receptors
    d. Mast cells are the only cells in the body that produce histamine
A

a

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is a 2nd generation H1 antihistamine?
    a. Loratadine (Claritin)
    b. Doxylamine (found in some Unisom formulas)
    c. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
    d. All of the above are 2nd generation H1 antihistamines
A

a

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
    a. 2nd generation H1 antihistamines tend to cost less than 1st generation H1 antihistamines
    b. 2nd generation H1 antihistamines tend to be more sedating than 1st generation H1
    antihistamines
    c. 2nd generation H1antihistamines usually have more antimuscarinic effects than 1st
    generation H1 antihistamines
    d. 2nd generation H1 antihistamines tend to be better substrates for the P-glycoprotein
    transporter in the blood-brain barrier than 1st generation H1 antihistamines
A

d

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following would NOT be a result of Histamine binding to H1 receptors?
    a. Sedation
    b. Sensory nerve stimulation
    c. Smooth muscle contraction in the intestine
    d. Vasodilation and edema at small vessels
A

a

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
    a. Loratadine (Claritin) is commonly found in over-the-counter sleep aids
    b. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is the 1st line drug for treating anaphylaxis
    c. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is better at relieving the symptoms of allergic conjunctivitis
    than Loratadine (Claritin)
    d. Diclegis is a combination of doxylamine with vitamin B6 that can be used to treat severe
    morning sickness
A

d

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
    a. Viruses need to infect their host cell in order to replicate themselves (i.e. make progeny
    virions)
    b. Most antiviral drugs used for treating influenza have efficacy in treating diseases caused by
    multiple different types of viruses
    c. Of the 4 types of influenza viruses, influenza C cause the most severe disease in humans
    d. There are multiple subtypes of influenza B viruses including H1N1 and H3N2
A

a

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21
Q
  1. When a disease spreads over a large geographic area and affects a large number of people
    that is a
    a. Pandemic
    b. Epidemic
    c. Endemic
    d. Epidural
A

a

22
Q
  1. All of the following are accurate EXCEPT:
    a. Vaccination is one way to reduce risk of getting sick with influenza
    b. Some people sick with influenza will develop complications such as bacterial pneumonia
    c. All people who are sick with influenza should take an antiviral like Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
    d. Some people, for example those over 65, have increased risk of developing complications
    when sick with influenza
A

c

23
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
    a. Influenza antivirals work best if started early (within about 2 days) of developing
    symptoms
    b. Influenza antivirals can lessen symptoms
    c. Influenza antivirals can shorten illness duration
    d. All of the above are CORRECT
A

d

24
Q
  1. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu):
    a. Inhibits the ability of neuraminidase to add salic acid residues to the surface of host cells
    b. Inhibits the ability of neuraminidase to cleave salic acid residues from the surface of host
    cells
    c. Inhibits the ability of hemagglutinin to add salic acid residues to the surface of host cells
    d. Inhibits the ability of hemagglutinin to cleave salic acid residues from the surface of host
    cells
A

b

25
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
    a. This year the CDC reported that most influenza viruses have been resistant to the actions of
    Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
    b. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu) is not for use in hospitalized patients
    c. Baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza) blocks influenza RNA synthesis
    d. Baloxavir marboxil (Xofluza) is not effective against influenza B viruses
A

c

26
Q
  1. All of the following would be expected to help limit the emergence of antibiotic resistant
    bacteria EXCEPT this:
    a. Not using antibiotics to treat illness caused by viruses
    b. Using more antibiotics in agriculture
    c. Making sure everyone takes the complete course of antibiotics they are prescribed
    d. Using narrow spectrum antibiotics when appropriate
A

b

27
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is a beta-lactamase inhibitor?
    a. Amoxicillin (a penicillin)
    b. Clavulanate potassium
    c. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
    d. Cephalexin (a cephalosporin)
A

b

28
Q
  1. All of the following statements about beta-lactam antibiotics are accurate EXCEPT:
    a. They include both penicillins and cephalosporins
    b. Some can be broken down by beta lactamases
    c. They inhibit transpeptidase enzymes which are involved in cell wall synthesis
    d. They are rarely prescribed in outpatient settings
A

d

29
Q
  1. Which of the following would be an example of using an antiseptic?
    a. Taking the antibiotic Bedaquiline (Sirturo) to treat tuberculosis
    b. Using hand sanitizer
    c. Using a bleach solution to clean your bathroom floor
    d. Getting the influenza vaccine
A

b

30
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Azithromycin (Zithromax) is CORRECT?
    a. It is an example of a cephalosporin
    b. It is an inhibitor of bacterial protein synthesis
    c. It has a very narrow spectrum
    d. It never causes nausea or diarrhea
A

b

31
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
    a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacteria develop resistance to antibiotics very slowly
    b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis infections can usually be cured by a one week long course of
    antibiotics
    c. Bedaquiline (Sirturo) blocks the ATP synthase of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
    d. Bedaquiline (Sirturo) is commonly used as a single drug to treat latent Mycobacterium
    tuberculosis infections
A

c

32
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential source of developing new drugs to combat diseases
    caused by bacteria?
    a. Developing drugs that neutralize bacterial products
    b. Making chemical modifications of existing antibiotics
    c. Making chemical libraries and screening them for compounds with activity against bacteria
    d. All of the above
A

d

33
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
    a. Nab-paclitaxel (Abraxen) is a drug consisting of paclitaxel conjugated to a kinase inhibitor
    b. Paclitaxel (Taxol) is thought to destabilize microtubules and therefore block microtubule
    polymerization
    c. One mechanism of paclitaxel resistance is that cancer cells increase expression of proteins
    that pump the drug out
    d. Paclitaxel (Taxol) would be an example of an immunotherapy
A

c

34
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
    a. The word “benign” refers to tumors that never cause any health problems
    b. Chemotherapy is the use of chemical agents to treat disease
    c. Radiation therapy involves using cold temperatures to kill cancer cells
    d. All of the above are CORRECT
A

b

35
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about cytotoxic drugs is CORRECT?
    a. The generally target rapidly dividing cells
    b. Paclitaxel (Taxol) is currently the only cytotoxic drug used as a cancer therapy
    c. Normal cells are not impacted by their actions
    d. All of the above are CORRECT
A

a

36
Q
  1. All of the following statements about Nivolumab (Opdivo) are accurate EXCEPT:
    a. Nivolumab (Opdivo) is thought to cause cancer cell death by causing them to mis-
    segregate their chromosomes
    b. Nivolumab (Opdivo) is a “checkpoint” inhibitor
    c. For some cancer types, the FDA requires that the tumor be screened for PD-L1 expression
    prior to using Nivolumab (Opdivo)
    d. Nivolumab (Opdivo) can cause side effects due to “general immunologic enhancement”
A

a

37
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Imatinib (Gleevec) is CORRECT?
    a. It is a kinase inhibitor
    b. The most common cause of resistance to Imatinib (Gleevec) is that the cancer cell expresses
    an enzyme that degrades the drug to an inactive compound
    c. It does not cause any side effects
    d. The only cancer type it is used to treat is chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
A

a

38
Q
  1. Which of the following is a side effect that can be caused by cytotoxic drugs?
    a. Nausea/vomiting
    b. Alopecia
    c. Secondary malignancies
    d. All of the above
A

d

39
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is a monoclonal antibody?
    a. Lecanemab-irmb (Leqembi)
    b. Nivolumab (Opdivo)
    c. Both A and B
    d. Neither A nor B
A

c

40
Q
  1. Which of the following is CORRECT?
    a. In 2022 it is estimated that there were 1.9 million new cases of cancer diagnosed
    b. Cancer is the 2nd leading cause of death in the US
    c. In the US, someone’s lifetime risk of developing cancer is approximately 39.5%
    d. All of the above
A

d

41
Q
  1. True (A) or false (B): Namzaric is the trade name for a single extend release pill containing Memantine and Donepezil
A

True

42
Q
  1. True (A) or False (B): An allergen is an innocuous substance that produces an immune response resulting in production of IgE antibodies
A

True

42
Q
  1. True (A) or false (B): During World War II, scientists at UW Madison helped develop methods that allowed penicillin to be mass produced
A

True

42
Q
  1. True (A) or false (B): Only bacteria can act as pathogens
A

False

42
Q
  1. True (A) or false (B): Commensal bacteria are never killed by broad spectrum antibiotics
A

False

42
Q
  1. True (A) or false (B): The decline in cancer death rates in the last 30 years is entirely due to the development of new therapies
A

False

43
Q
  1. True (A) or false (B): All of the insulin drugs manufactured by recombinant DNA technology are identical to the human hormone insulin.
A

False

44
Q
  1. True (A) or false (B): The recombinant DNA based drugs that mimic the actions of the
    hormone erythropoietin are manufactured in bacteria
A

False

45
Q
  1. True (A) or false (B): Treating male mice with anabolic steroids for 6 months will lead to a
    shorter average lifespan compared to placebo treated controls
A

True

46
Q
  1. True (A) or false (B): Treating women with anabolic steroids can lead to increased facial and body hair
A

True

phm sci 310 (3 decks)

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