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Public Health > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Rabies is characterized as a fatal, viral ____________.

A

encephalitis

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2
Q

Rabies is a (positive/negative) (RNA/DNA) virus.

A

negative RNA

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3
Q

Rabies primarily occurs in _______ reservoirs.

A

wildlife

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4
Q

Rabies virus is a bigger problem in (developed/underdeveloped) countries.

A

underdeveloped

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5
Q

Rabies in underdeveloped countries primarily occurs in ______, while developed countries it occurs in ______.

A

dogs
wildlife

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6
Q

Rabies virus is shed in ______.

A

saliva

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7
Q

(T/F) There is a wildlife vaccine for rabies.

A

True

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8
Q

What kind of Rabies vaccine is available for use in raccoons and coyotes?

A

oral, live recombinant

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9
Q

(T/F) The rabies vaccine for wildlife is a successful method to help eliminate rabies outbreaks in the US.

A

True

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10
Q

Incubation period for human rabies.

A

1-3 months

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11
Q

Rabies virus binds and replicates in _______, entering sensory & motor ______ to the CNS.

A

myocytes
axons

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12
Q

A fancy word for onset is:

A

prodrome

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13
Q

(T/F) The prodrome of rabies includes fever, chills, and malaise.

A

True

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14
Q

In addition to fever, chills, and malaise, Rabies virus onset can cause vague ______, _______, or _______ signs.

A

respiratory
GI
neuro

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15
Q

What are the 2 forms of Rabies?

A
  1. Furious Form
  2. Paralytic Form
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16
Q

80% of Rabies cases are the (furious/paralytic) form.

A

furious

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17
Q

Match the signs to the form of rabies:

  1. weakness, flaccid paralysis, ascending paralysis
  2. hallucinations, agitation, biting, running, hydrophobia
A
  1. paralytic form
  2. furious form
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18
Q

List 4 clinical signs of Rabies that occur in both forms.

A

fever
nuchal rigidity
fasciculations
convulsion

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19
Q

Eventually Rabies leads to _______ and death.

A

coma

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20
Q

The best treatment of Rabies is:

A

vaccination of exposed

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21
Q

(T/F) Getting the pre-exposure rabies vaccination eliminates the need for post-exposure prophylaxis after an exposure.

A

False!

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22
Q

______ are necessary to get periodically after a pre-exposure rabies vaccination.

A

titers

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23
Q

The first step of post-rabies exposure is:

A

immediate cleaning of wound with soap & water

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24
Q

If you are NOT previously vaccinated against Rabies, list the 2 steps for post-exposure prophylaxis and appropriate timelines.

A
  1. human rabies immunoglobulin (day 0)
  2. vaccine x4 (day 0, 3, 7, 14)
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25
Q

What is the protocol for post-exposure prophylaxis if you have been previously vaccinated against rabies?

A

vaccine x2 (day 0, 3)

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26
Q

(T/F) Human Rabies Immunoglobulin is necessary for post-exposure prophylaxis for a previously rabies’ vaccinated individual.

A

False

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27
Q

What two things constitute a rabies exposure?

A
  1. infective virus present
  2. contaminated material contact open wound or mucosal surface
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28
Q

Which 3 tissue types can be infective and exposure constitute a rabies exposure?

A
  1. saliva
  2. neural tissue
  3. CSF
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29
Q

(T/F) Contact with blood, urine, or feces from a Rabies infected individual constitutes as a rabies exposure.

A

False

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30
Q

(T/F) Rabies is non-infectious in dried material.

A

True

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31
Q

List the 2 routes/types of Rabies exposure. Which is rare?

A
  1. bite
  2. non-bite (rare)
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32
Q

Post-exposure rabies prophylaxis should be considered if an individual is in close proximity to __________ and cannot exclude the possibility of a bite or scratch.

A

bats

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33
Q

Viruses such as Ebola, Marburg, Lassa Fever, and Dengue Fever are all ________ _______ viruses.

A

Hemorrhagic Fever

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34
Q

Hemorrhagic Fever viruses all cause _______ damage.

A

microvascular

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35
Q

Two ways Hemorrhagic Fever viruses are transmitted to humans.

A
  1. infected animals
  2. arthropod vectors
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36
Q

Incubation for Hemorrhagic Fever viruses.

A

2-21 days

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37
Q

All Hemorrhagic Fever viruses begin as _________ signs and petechiae.

A

non-specific (fever, myalgias, headache abdominal pain)

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38
Q

Hemorrhagic Fever viruses progress to _______, ________ hemorrhage, and multiorgan failure.

A

shock
mucous membrane

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39
Q

Which hemorrhagic fever virus had outbreaks in Germany amid pharmaceutical workers and veterinarians performing autopsies on sick vervet monkeys, and Uganda with cave tourists and miners?

A

Marburg Virus Disease

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40
Q

Which animal is an asymptomatic reservoir host for Marburg Virus Disease?

A

african fruit bat

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41
Q

Which hemorrhagic fever virus is a Filovirus with an enveloped RNA genome?

A

Ebola Virus Disease

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42
Q

What is the reservoir host for Ebola Virus Disease?

A

bats

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43
Q

There are a variety of “Ebola viruses” which infect humans, non-human primates, and pigs. List the 4 viruses which cause human infections.

A
  1. Zaire
  2. Sudan
  3. Tai Forest
  4. Bundibugyo
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44
Q

Recent Ebola Virus outbreaks have occurred in ________ with a (low/high) mortality rate.

A

Africa
high

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45
Q

In general, how is Ebola Virus transmitted and in which species?

A

macaque monkey reproductive organs

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46
Q

How can Ebola virus be transmitted in humans?

A

sexual activity

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47
Q

When Ebola virus is transmitted to humans via sexual activity, there is 100% ______ death rate and 80% _______ death rate.

A

fetal
maternal

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48
Q

(T/F) The results of 4 Ebola treatments in the Congo showed promising efficacy for Ebola virus treatment.

A

False (inconclusive)

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49
Q

(T/F) There are NO approved vaccines for Ebola viruses.

A

True

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50
Q

Which hemorrhagic fever virus is an enveloped dsDNA alpha-herpesvirus?

A

Macacine Herpes Virus (MHV-1)

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51
Q

Which species is the natural host for Macacine Herpes Virus 1? Which country is it from?

A

Macaques (esp. rhesus or cynomolgus)
Asia

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52
Q

(T/F) Macaques develop severe infections due to Macacine Herpes Virus 1.

A

False (mild or asymptomatic)

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53
Q

There are high MHV-1 antibody levels in (captive/wild) macaca populations.

A

captive

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54
Q

Likelihood of MHV-1 infection (increases/decreases) with age.

A

increases

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55
Q

(Vertical/horizontal) transmission but not the other occurs with MHV-1 in macaques.

A

horizontal

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56
Q

What are the 2 most common lesions seen in macaques with MHV-1?

A
  1. cold sore-like lesions on lips
  2. intranuclear inclusion bodies in vesicle cells
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57
Q

List a few routes which transmit MHV-1 to humans.

A

monkey bites/scratches
direct saliva (pre-existing wound)
cultured cells
needlestick
fluid in eyes

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58
Q

It is usually difficult to determine the exact transmission route of MHV-1 in humans because cases usually have regular ________ exposure.

A

monkey

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59
Q

2/3 of MHV-1 incidence has occurred in:

A

US

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60
Q

MHV-1 disease in humans causes (chronic/acute), (mild/fatal) _________.

A

acute, fatal encephalomyelitis

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61
Q

Human infections with MHV-1 have a ______% fatality.

A

70%

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62
Q

Incubation period for MHV-1.

A

2-30 days

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63
Q

Match the clinical signs for humans with MHV-1 by whether they occur initially, intermediately, or late in the disease:

  1. pain, pruritis, vesicles/ulcers, local lymphadenopathy
  2. persistent headache, altered mental status, focal neuro complaints
  3. fever, malaise, nausea, myalgia, headache, numbness
A
  1. initial
  2. late
  3. intermediate
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64
Q

(T/F) Progression of MHV-1 infection in humans can be modified by early therapy.

A

True

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65
Q

MHV-1 causes rare or non-existent ________ infection in humans.

A

asymptomatic

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66
Q

Wound decontamination with MHV-1 is incredibly important as the virus is likely to enter the host cell within _________.

A

5 minutes

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67
Q

Which drugs are used for antiviral therapy with MHV-1 infection?

A

Valacyclovir
Acyclovir

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68
Q

When is antiviral therapy recommended for MHV-1?

A

high risk source, laceration, deep bite, needlestick

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69
Q

When is antiviral therapy for MHV-1 not recommended?

A

skin intact exposure, non-macaque exposure

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70
Q

(T/F) All macaques should be considered MHV-1 positive.

A

True

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71
Q

(T/F) There are currently no federal regulations enforcing safe practices with macaques in the US regarding spread of MHV-1.

A

False

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72
Q

Which disease is a zoonotic, rodent-borne arenavirus?

A

Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis

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73
Q

What type of rodent is the primary host for Lymphocytic Choriomeninigitis?

A

common house mouse (Mus musculus)

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74
Q

____% of mice in the US are carriers for Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis.

A

5%

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75
Q

(T/F) Other rodents such as hamsters and guinea pigs are not natural reservoirs but can become infected with Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis.

A

True

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76
Q

Apart from rodents, what 4 other species are susceptible to Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis?

A

swine
dogs
non-human primates
humans

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77
Q

Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis is often transmitted to humans via (house mice / pet rodents).

A

house mice (rarely pet rodents!)

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78
Q

(T/F) Laboratory rodents are a common source of Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis.

A

False (but contaminated tumor & cell lines)

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79
Q

Rodents shed Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis virus throughout their live via ______, ______, and ______.

A

saliva, urine, feces

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80
Q

Rodents with LCMV are (symptomatic/asymptomatic).

A

asymptomatic

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81
Q

List 3 routes of LCMV transmission to humans.

A
  1. exposure to fresh excreta, saliva, nests
  2. directly in broken skin / mucous membranes
  3. organ transplant
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82
Q

(T/F) Human-to-human transmission of LCMV can occur.

A

False (except in-utero)

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83
Q

List the 3 clinical signs that can occur with human LCMV.

A
  1. aseptic meningitis
  2. encephalitis
  3. meningoencephalitis
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84
Q

(T/F) 70% of humans with LCMV develop severe disease.

A

False (70% mild or asymptomatic)

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85
Q

(T/F) Most patients completely recover from Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis.

A

True

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86
Q

(T/F) Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis is fatal in those that develop clinical signs.

A

False (<1% mortality)

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87
Q

There (is/is not) a vaccination for LCMV.

A

is not

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88
Q

The multimammate rat of the genus Mastomys from West Africa is the reservoir host for what zoonotic disease?

A

Lassa Fever

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89
Q

Majority of Lassa Fever cases are (mild/severe).

A

mild

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90
Q

Incubation for Lassa Fever.

A

1-3 weeks

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91
Q

Lassa Fever can cause a variety of signs such as fever, sore throat, back pain, cough, vomiting, diarrhea, conjunctivitis, facial swelling, and neuro problems. What 3 major complications can occur?

A
  1. deafness
  2. maternal mortality
  3. spontaneous abortion
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92
Q

What disease is caused by a large DNA Orthopoxvirus, mainly in the rainforests in Central and West Africa?

A

Monkey Pox

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93
Q

African _______ and ______ are the most common hosts for Monkey Pox.

A

rodents & squirrels

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94
Q

In the US in 2003, there was an outbreak of human cases of Monkey Pox due to transmission from pet _________.

A

prairie dogs

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95
Q

Monkey Pox in humans causes similar signs as ________, which is often milder.

A

smallpox

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96
Q

Incubation for Monkey Pox.

A

12 days

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97
Q

1-3 days after fever and swollen lymph nodes develop with Monkey Pox infection, _________ develops and goes through several stages before crusting and falling off.

A

papular rash

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98
Q

Fatality rates of Monkey Pox are between 1-10% but is more severe in:

A

children

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99
Q

(T/F) Non-human primates can be infected with Monkey Pox, showing mild to severe signs.

A

True

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100
Q

What is the main mode for Monkey Pox transmission in humans?

A

sexual activity (with at least one monkeypox lesion on skin or mucosa)

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101
Q

Apart from sexual activity, list 4 possible ways Monkey Pox can be transmitted to humans.

A
  1. direct animal contact
  2. human-to-human
  3. fomites
  4. contaminated piercing/tattoo equipment
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102
Q

The CDC and FDA still have an order in place which restricts importing ________ to the US to help prevent Monkey Pox.

A

African rodents

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103
Q

“Sheep Pox” is also known as _______ Disease.

A

Orf

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104
Q

List the 2 typical hosts for Orf Disease.

A

sheep & goats

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105
Q

(Young/adult) small ruminants are more commonly infected with Orf Disease.

A

young

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106
Q

Orf Disease is most severe with ________ animals, as they die of starvation.

A

nursing

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107
Q

(T/F) Humans cases of Orf Disease are usually self-limiting.

A

True

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108
Q

Humans with Orf Disease have (solitary/multiple) tender lesion(s) on the fingers, hands, or forearms.

A

solitary

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109
Q

Orf Disease in humans goes through ____ clinical stages of infection, each lasting up to ________.

A

6
1 week

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110
Q

List the 6 clinical stages of infection in human Orf Disease.

A
  1. maculopapular
  2. targetoid
  3. acute
  4. regenerative
  5. papillomatous
  6. regressive
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111
Q

(T/F) Mortality for humans with Orf Disease is low.

A

False (NO mortality - spontaneous recovery after 3-6 weeks)

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112
Q

Orf Disease survives long-term in _______.

A

scabs

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113
Q

Orf Disease is commonly introduced by replacing _______ animals and (direct/indirect) contact with contaminated materials.

A

breeding
direct

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114
Q

(T/F) Humans can transmit Orf Disease to cattle and other humans.

A

False (neither)

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115
Q

The best way to prevent Orf Disease is through animal ________.

A

vaccination

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116
Q

The order Bunyaviruses include which 3 emerging viral diseases?

A
  1. hantavirus
  2. west nile virus
  3. coronavirus
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117
Q

Hantavirus is the only Bunyavirus infecting humans that has _______ as the vector.

A

rodents

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118
Q

List the 2 clinical syndromes that can occur with Hantavirus.

A
  1. Hemorrhagic Fever w Renal Syndrome (HFRS)
  2. Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS)
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119
Q

Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome caused by Hantavirus is primarily seen in (Europe/US) while Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome is primarily seen in (Europe/US).

A

Europe
US

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120
Q

Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome caused by Hantavirus shows 3 radiograph findings:
1. Bilateral ________ infiltrates
2. Bilateral ________ infiltrates
3. Pleural _________.

A

interstitial
alveolar
effusion

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121
Q

(T/F) Hantavirus causes diffuse viral signs, neutrophils, and debris upon lung histology.

A

False (MINIMAL signs of these!)

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122
Q

List 3 ways to diagnose Hantavirus.

A
  1. serology (IgM, IgG)
  2. IHC
  3. RT-PCR (reverse transcription)
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123
Q

Humans with Hantavirus infection have fever, myalgia, and headache which can develop into _________ and ________ failure.

A

cardiac
respiratory

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124
Q

How is Hantavirus transmitted to humans?

A

inhalation of aerosolized excreta

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125
Q

List the 2 different types of Hantaviruses in North America.

A

Sin Nombre
Seoul Virus

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126
Q

The hantavirus Sin Nombre causes (HPS/HFRS) and Seoul Virus causes (HPS/HRFS).

A

HPS
HFRS

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127
Q

(T/F) Human hantavirus vaccination is an important form of prevention.

A

False

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128
Q

West Nile Virus is primarily transmitted via _________, but can also occur by blood transfusion, organ donation, or breast feeding.

A

mosquitos

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129
Q

Mosquitos are the vector for West Nile Virus but the natural reservoir host is _______.

A

birds

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130
Q

Horses are _______ hosts for West Nile Virus.

A

dead-end

131
Q

20% of human West Nile cases are (asymptomatic/symptomatic).

A

symptomatic (80% asymptomatic)

132
Q

Mild signs such as fever, headache, myalgia, arthralgia, and anorexia are common signs of:

A

West Nile Virus

133
Q

The majority of mortality from WNV is in people (</>) 50 years old.

A

> 50

134
Q

While there is current investigation for a human WNV vaccine, there is ________ vaccine available.

A

equine

135
Q

Dermatophytosis is a highly contagious fungal infection of __________ tissue.

A

keratinized (skin, hair, claws)

136
Q

(T/F) Humans and domestic animals can be affected with Dermatophytosis.

A

True

137
Q

_________ ________ is usually associated with Dermatophytosis in cats and dogs, and less commonly zoonotic from dogs than cats.

A

Microsporum canis

138
Q

Give the 2 genera of organisms that can cause zoonotic Dermatophytosis.

A

Microsporum
Trichophyton

139
Q

Which genus causing Dermatophytosis ONLY causes human disease? What is the human disease called?

A

Epidermophyton
Tinea

140
Q

Organisms which cause Dermatophytosis can be characterized in 3 ways. Match each term to the definition.

  1. soil inhabitations
  2. host-adapted to humans
  3. most important animal pathogens
A
  1. geophilic
  2. anthropophilic
  3. zoophilic
141
Q

Microsporum canis is zoophilic, and can be transmitted from domestic _______ to humans.

A

cats

142
Q

Trichophyton verrucosum is zoophilic and can be transmitted from ______ or _____ to humans.

A

cattle or lambs

143
Q

The majority of zoonotic ringworm (Dermatophytosis) infections caused by ________ ________ are spread from cats.

A

Microsporum canis

144
Q

Commonly long-haired _______ cats are asymptomatic carriers, transmitting Dermatophytosis to humans.

A

persian

145
Q

(T/F) Dermatophytosis can be widespread starting in keratinized tissue and moving throughout the body.

A

False (inflammation + immunity usually stops from developing further)

146
Q

(T/F) Dermatophytosis is considered a self-limiting disease in healthy adults.

A

True

147
Q

Dermatophytosis causes a “classic” ringworm appearance with an inflammatory response killing the fungus in the (periphery/center) of the lesion and the living fungus present in the (periphery/center).

A

center, periphery

148
Q

Humans Dermatophytosis is commonly called:

A

Tinea

149
Q

What should you always ask if a client brings in an animal with dermatophytosis-like lesions?

A

ask if anyone else in the house has similar lesions (and refer to doctor)

150
Q

(T/F) All ringworm in humans is zoonotic.

A

False

151
Q

The most accurate way to diagnose Dermatophytosis is:

A

fungal culture

152
Q

________ _______ is a screening exam for dogs and cats with Dermatophytosis.

A

wood’s lamp

153
Q

Which fungal zoonosis causes nodular lesions of cutaneous and subcutaneous tissues and nearby lymphatics?

A

Sporotrichosis

154
Q

(T/F) Sporotrichosis can spread secondarily to articular surfaces, CNS, urogenital, or lungs.

A

True

155
Q

(T/F) The clinical signs of Sporotrichosis in humans differ based on the route of transmission.

A

False (all the same)

156
Q

Majority of Sporotrichosis infections are limited to the:

A

skin

157
Q

_________ is the genus which causes Sporotrichosis.

A

Spororthrix

158
Q

Which Sporothrix species is the most virulent but not present in North America, therefore not many cases are seen in the US?

A

S. brasiliensis

159
Q

Cats are very (sensitive/resistant) to Sporotrichosis and have a (high/low) mortality.

A

sensitive, high

160
Q

Sporotrichosis begins as a small, painful _______ and progresses to __________.

A

bump
ulceration

161
Q

What is the primary route of transmission for Sporotrichosis?

A

trauma (thorn/splinter) –> fungal entry

162
Q

(T/F) Zoonotic transmission of Sporotrichosis is possible but less likely.

A

True

163
Q

List 2 treatment of Sporotrichosis.

A

Potassium iodide
Itracronazole

164
Q

PrP indicates a prion and stands for ________ ________.

A

proteinaceous particle

165
Q

What is the shorthand for the normal prion? Abnormal?

A

Normal: PrPc
Abnormal: PrPsc

166
Q

PrPsc is (more/less) soluble and (more/less) resistant to degradation than the normal prion protein.

A

less
more

167
Q

What is the function of a normal prion?

A

cell surface glycoprotein

168
Q

In knock-out mice studies with prion proteins, when the prion protein was “knocked out” of the mice, this determined the prion to be (essential/non-essential) to survival.

A

non-essential

169
Q

What prion diseases are caused by an abnormal prion protein that creates vacuoles in brain tissue?

A

Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies

170
Q

List 4 parts of the brain that are affected by Transmissible Spongiform Encephalopathies (TSE).

A
  1. cerebral cortex
  2. thalamus
  3. cerebellum
  4. brainstem
171
Q

Match the part of the brain affected by TSE with its clinical signs:

  1. insomnia
  2. loss of motor control
  3. memory loss, visual impairment
  4. integrative functions, alertness, consciousness
A
  1. thalamus
  2. cerebellum
  3. cerebral cortex
  4. brainstem
172
Q

Which specific TSE typically affects the cerebral cortex?

A

Creutzfeld-Jacob Disease

173
Q

Which TSE typically affects the thalamus, called “Laughing Disease”?

A

Kuru

174
Q

Which TSE typically affects the brainstem?

A

Mad Cow Disease

175
Q

Which 5 TSE are in humans?

A

Creutzfeldt Jacob Disease
Variant Creutzfeldt Jacob Disease
Kuru
Fatal Familial Insomnia
Gerstmann-Straussler-Scheinker Syndrome

176
Q

Which TSE affect cattle?

A

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy

177
Q

Which TSE is in sheep?

A

Scrapie

178
Q

Which TSE is in deer & elk?

A

Chronic Wasting Disease

179
Q

Which TSE is in mink?

A

Transmissible Mink Encephalopathy

180
Q

TSE has a (short/long) incubation period and a (short/long) pre-clinical period.

A

long
long

181
Q

(T/F) TSE is always fatal.

A

True

182
Q

Which 4 disinfectants reduce but DO NOT eliminate TSE?

A
  1. phenol
  2. NaOH
  3. 50% bleach
  4. autoclaving
183
Q

________ is an ineffective TSE disinfectant.

A

formalin

184
Q

You cannot kill TSE, only _________ it.

A

inactivate

185
Q

Abnormal prions can be detected via assay. They have the SAME amino acid sequence but DIFFERENT ________ structure.

A

tertiary

186
Q

In addition to detecting the tertiary structure, abnormal prions can be detected by looking at ________ sensitivity.

A

protease

187
Q

PrPc is (sensitive/resistant) to proteinase K digestion and PrPsc is (sensitive/resistant) to proteinase K.

A

sensitive
resistant

188
Q

Protease sensitivity for abnormal prions is used as a _________ tool and a negative reaction could still be abnormal.

A

surveillance

189
Q

Abnormal prions cause other prions to misfold. This process as each abnormal prion allows doubling of misfolded prions is called:

A

pathological chaperone

190
Q

There are 3 ways that abnormal prions arise:

A
  1. horizontal transmission
  2. inherited form
  3. spontaneous
191
Q

Abnormal prions can be horizontally transmitted via ________.

A

ingestion

192
Q

Abnormal prions are inherited via ________ transmission from parent to offspring.

A

vertical

193
Q

Sheep with both Scrapie and _________ can transmit prions via milk.

A

mastitis

194
Q

__________ causes mastitis in sheep and enhances transmission of prions.

A

Lentivirus

195
Q

“Mad Cow Disease” is also known as:

A

Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy

196
Q

BSE likely originated from what other TSE?

A

Scrapie (sheep)

197
Q

________ has the most stringent BSE control programs, excluding all animals over 30 months of age from the human food supply and animal feed.

A

UK

198
Q

Match the OIE Risk Categories for BSE by its description:

  1. Proof of effective assessment & surveillance. No BSE cases within 11 years.
  2. Indigenous BSE cases. Need reporting program & feed ban.
  3. Need to identify, track, and prevent known BSE-infected animals from entering food and for export.
  4. Cannot determine requirements of another category.
A
  1. negligible BSE risk
  2. controlled BSE risk
  3. both negligible + controlled risk
  4. undetermined BSE risk
199
Q

Which OIE Risk Category is the US?

A

controlled BSE risk

200
Q

In 2009, _______ established a BSE-related feed ban which prohibits use of high-risk cattle tissues in ALL animal feed.

A

FDA

201
Q

Which TSE is a rare and fatal form, likely caused by a UK BSE cattle oubtreak?

A

vCJD (variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease)

202
Q

Regarding differences between vCJD and CJD…

vCJD affects (younger/older) patients and has a (shorter/longer) duration than CJD.

A

younger
longer

203
Q

vCJD is commonly located where in the cerebral cortex?

A

florid prion protein plaques

204
Q

Abnormal prions due to vCJD can be detected in __________ tissues.

A

lymphoid

205
Q

There has been evidence of CJD found in what tissue of diseased patients?

A

eyes

206
Q

Instruments used for necropsy regarding CJD and patient eyes (are/are not) decontaminated via autoclave.

A

ARE NOT!!!

207
Q

How are misfolded prions from vCJD detected?

A

RT-QuIC (real-time quaking-induced protein conversion)

208
Q

(T/F) There is currently strong evidence to support the spread of Chronic Wasting Disease to humans.

A

False

209
Q

List the current regulation in place regarding Chronic Wasting Disease in MO.

A

MO Mandatory CWD Sampling

210
Q

(T/F) A study found that macaque monkeys DID NOT become infected with exposure to CWD, but squirrel monkeys were susceptible.

A

True

211
Q

A study showed ______ in length treatment with ____% diluted bleach is effective to inactivate CWD seeding in steel and brain homogenates, but NOT in solid tissues.

A

5 minutes
40%

212
Q

The most common infections acquired by immunocompromised persons from pets are ________ infections, especially caused by _______ and _______ species.

A

enteric
Salmonella
Campylobacter

213
Q

Immunocompromised people should avoid adopting a (young/old) pet, especially those with ________.

A

young
diarrhea

214
Q

Pet birds pose a (low/high) risk to immunocompromised people.

A

low

215
Q

(T/F) Humans with HIV should avoid pet birds due to infections with Cryptococcus and Mycobacterium.

A

False

216
Q

Which is more likely to spread Salmonella & Campylobacter to humans: wild birds or pet birds?

A

wild birds

217
Q

(T/F) Most cases of cerebral toxoplasmosis occurs due to acute infections transmitted by pet cats compared to a previously latent infection.

A

False (more commonly a latent infection, less commonly acute)

218
Q

What is the best way to prevent transmission of toxoplasmosis from cats?

A

litter box hygiene

219
Q

(T/F) Direct contact with cats can transmit toxoplasmosis to immunocompromised people.

A

False (unlikely)

220
Q

Cats only harbor _______ _______ for a limited period of time but can still cause bacillary angiomatosis in people.

A

Bartonella henselae

221
Q

________ control is important in reducing the spread of Bartonella henselae from cats to immunocompromised people.

A

flea

222
Q

(Dogs/cats) are more likely to transmit enteric diseases such as Salmonella and Campylobacter to immunocompromised people due to higher shedding rates.

A

dogs

223
Q

(T/F) Bordetella bronchiseptica infections have been reported in immunocompromised people from dogs.

A

True

224
Q

Immunocompromised people should NOT own ________ because of the high rates of being carriers and shedding Salmonella.

A

reptiles

225
Q

What organism has been transmitted to immunocompromised people via aquarium pet fish?

A

Mycobacterium marinum

226
Q

Immunocompromised people should avoid contact with young ________ since they can act as a reservoir for Cryptosporidium spp.

A

farm animals

227
Q

Swine contact should be avoided with immunocompromised people since they are a known source of ___________ __________.

A

Bordetella bronchiseptica

228
Q

(T/F) Immunocompromised people with exposure to horses have an increased risk of contracting Rhodococcus equi infections.

A

False

229
Q

List the 4 principal zoonotic concerns for pregnant clients.

A
  1. toxoplasmosis
  2. listeriosis
  3. LCMV
  4. brucella spp.
230
Q

To prevent LCMV, pregnant clients should avoid exposure to:

A

mice

231
Q

What is one of the most common routes diseases are transmitted from animals to people in public settings?

A

direct physical contact with animal

232
Q

________ bacteria and parasites pose the highest risk for human disease from animals in public settings.

A

enteric

233
Q

Many enteric diseases contracted from public settings have a (low/high) infectious dose.

A

low

234
Q

In 2014, Minnesota officials traced a petting zoo to human infections with:

A

E. coli 0157:H7

235
Q

(T/F) Removing ill animals is necessary but not sufficient to protect animal and human health in public settings.

A

True

236
Q

Salmonellosis outbreaks in MN & MA have occurred due to dissection of ______ ______.

A

owl pellets

237
Q

Toxoplasma gondii is a(n) (facultative/obligate) intracellular parasite.

A

obligate

237
Q

Definitive host for Toxoplasmosis.

A

felids

238
Q

List 3 ways felids can become infected with Toxoplasma gondii.

A
  1. congenital (vertical)
  2. ingest sporulated oocysts (feces)
  3. ingest tissue cysts (intermediate host)
239
Q

Fish, amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals can all act as ________ hosts for Toxoplasmosis.

A

intermediate

240
Q

(T/F) Humans can become infected with Toxoplasmosis from oocysts in fresh feces from poorly sanitized litter boxes.

A

False (fresh feces NOT infective)

241
Q

Toxoplasma gondii oocysts in feces take how long to sporulate?

A

1-5 days

242
Q

Toxoplasma gondii is most commonly transmitted to humans via contaminated _______ or _______.

A

soil
water

243
Q

(T/F) Cats themselves are rarely sources of infection for human toxoplasmosis.

A

True

244
Q

(T/F) Humans infected with Toxoplasma gondii postnatally are usually asymptomatic.

A

True

245
Q

Congenital Toxoplasmosis is (more/less) severe than acquired.

A

more

246
Q

List a few clinical signs from Congenital Toxoplasmosis.

A

ocular infection / blindness
hepatosplenomegaly
hydrocephalus
jaundice
cerebral palsy
seizures
miscarriage

247
Q

Toxoplasmosis can be prevented in humans by cleaning the litter box daily and by not feeding cats __________.

A

undercooked meats

248
Q

(T/F) Microwaving infected meat will kill Toxoplasma gondii cysts.

A

False (doesn’t penetrate evenly)

249
Q

One way to avoid Toxoplasmosis is to NOT adopt or handle stray cats while ________.

A

pregnant

250
Q

Leishmaniasis is transmitted via:

A

sand flies

251
Q

List 2 forms of Leishmaniasis.

A
  1. cutaneous
  2. visceral
252
Q

What clinical sign is seen in humans with Visceral Leishmaniasis?

A

splenomegaly

253
Q

In the US such as TX & OK, there are usually (cutaneous/visceral) cases of Leishmaniasis.

A

cutaneous

254
Q

Canine Leishmaniasis infection is caused by Leishmania _________.

A

infantum

255
Q

(T/F) Dogs have severe clinical signs due to Leishmania infantum infection.

A

True

256
Q

The primarily route for transmission of Canine Leishmaniasis is (vertical/horizontal).

A

vertical

257
Q

(T/F) Canine Leishmaniasis is transmitted by sand flies in the US.

A

False

258
Q

Canine Leishmaniasis has been reported in ________ in the US.

A

foxhounds

259
Q

Chaga’s Disease is caused by ________ _______.

A

Trypanosoma cruzi

260
Q

How is Chaga’s Disease transmitted?

A

kissing bugs (feces in bite)

261
Q

List 3 animal reservoirs for Chaga’s Disease.

A

dogs, cats, rodents

262
Q

In addition to flu-like signs, hepatosplenomegaly, and swollen lymph nodes, two characteristic signs are seen in humans with Chaga’s Disease:

A

Chagoma
Romanas sign

263
Q

________ is the swelling of the eyelid that occurs with Human Leishmaniasis.

A

Romanas sign

264
Q

________ is a local swelling where Trypanosoma cruzi enters the human body.

A

chagoma

265
Q

If left untreated, Chaga’s Disease can progress to enlarged _______, ______, or ______.

A

heart, colon, esophagus

266
Q

In warmer climates, _________ larvae from the soil with contaminated feces can cause a “creeping eruption” or Cutaneous Larva Migrans in humans.

A

hookworm

267
Q

List 3 hookworm species which can cause Cutaneous Larva Migrans in humans.

A
  1. Ancyclostoma caninum
  2. Ancyclostoma braziliense
  3. Uncinaria stenocephala
268
Q

(Children/adults) are most greatly affected by Cutaneous Larval Migrans.

A

children

269
Q

(T/F) Cutaneous Larval Migrans in humans due to hookworm larvae is usually self-limiting.

A

True

270
Q

(T/F) Cutaneous Larval Migrans can progress to Atypical human hookworm infections.

A

False (different types of infections!)

271
Q

What rare, atypical infection can occur with hookworms in humans?

A

Human Eosinophilic Enterocolitis

272
Q

List the 3 parasites that can cause Visceral and/or Ocular Larval Migrans in humans.

A
  1. Toxocara canis
  2. Toxocara cati
  3. Baylisascaris procyonis
273
Q

Roundworms which cause Visceral Larval Migrans (often/rarely) cause death in humans.

A

rarely

274
Q

Term for a white mass in the pupillary region which occurs in Ocular Larval Migrans in humans.

A

leukocoria

275
Q

Visceral & Ocular Larval Migrans is associated with what other human disorder that may cause infection?

A

pica

276
Q

Baylisascaris ________ is the raccoon roundworm.

A

procyonis

277
Q

Humans are a(n) _________ host for Baylisascaris.

A

accidental

278
Q

_________ are asymptomatic or subclinical when infected with Baylisascaris.

A

raccoons

279
Q

Young children playing in dirt can ingest embryonated Baylisascaris eggs from infected raccoon feces. The larvae then penetrate the GI wall and can migrate several places, causing ________, _______, or ________ Larva Migrans.

A

visceral
ocular
cerebrospinal

280
Q

(T/F) Baylisascaris infection in humans is likely underdiagnosed.

A

True

281
Q

(Toxocara/Baylisascaris) infections in humans are more severe.

A

Baylisascaris

282
Q

________ ________ is the most common tapeworm of dogs & cats in the US.

A

Dipylidium caninum

283
Q

Humans with Dipylidium caninum infection serve as a(n) __________ host.

A

definitive!!! (rather than intermediate or dead-end)

284
Q

Intermediate host for Dipylidium caninum.

A

flea

285
Q

Dipylidium caninum can be diagnosed by seeing ________ in feces or proglottids around the perineum.

A

egg packets

286
Q

Fill-in the blanks for the life-cycle of Dipylidium caninum:

A flea ingests eggs –> ________ develops –> penetrates intestinal wall –> becomes _______ which is infective to definitive hosts.

A

oncosphere
cysticercoid

287
Q

Echinococcus causes _________ Disease.

A

Hydatid

288
Q

Echinococcus granulosum uses _______ as their definitive hosts and most mammals as intermediate hosts.

A

canids

289
Q

Humans serve as ________ hosts for Echinococcus granulosum.

A

intermediate

290
Q

(T/F) Echinococcus granulosum eggs are immediately infectious after becomes hydatid cysts or bladder worms.

A

True

291
Q

Echinococcus multilocularis uses _________ as definitive host and _________ as intermediate hosts.

A

foxes
rodents

292
Q

There are 2 biotypes of Hydatid Disease in North America.

__________ form is northern and seen in wolves, bison, and cervids.

__________ form is southern European and seen in domestic ungulates and dogs.

A

Sylvatic
Pastoral / Domestic

293
Q

Hydatid Disease in humans is mostly seen in (rural/urban) areas.

A

rural

294
Q

Which 2 locations are hydatid cysts in humans primarily located?

A

liver
lungs

295
Q

Hydatid cysts can appear as slow-growing tumors. However, what diagnostic finding would indicate this over a neoplastic disease?

A

eosinophilia

296
Q

Hydatid Disease can be disinfected via (chemicals/heat).

A

heat (NOT chemicals)

297
Q

Hymenolepiasis is caused by two ________.

A

cestodes

298
Q

Hymenolepsis _______ is known as the dwarf tapeworm.

A

nana

299
Q

Hymenolepsis _________ is known as the rat tapeworm.

A

diminuta

300
Q

Which species of Hymenolepsis has a direct AND indirect life cycle?

A

H. nana

301
Q

For Hymenolepiasis:

Definitive host?

Intermediate host?

A

DH: rodents
IH: cockroach, beetle, flea

302
Q

(T/F) H. nana eggs are immediately infective in fresh stool.

A

True

303
Q

(T/F) Most humans with Hymenolepiasis are asymptomatic.

A

True

304
Q

Which parasite is known as a canine and feline roundworm and thought to be an EMERGING disease in the US?

A

Onchocera lupi

305
Q

For Onchocerciasis:

Definitive host?
Vector?

A

DH: dogs
Vector: blackflies

306
Q

Onchocerca _________ causes River Blindness in tropical climates and not currently seen in the US.

A

volvulus

307
Q

Reverse zoonoses are from _______ to _______.

A

human to animal

308
Q

Which 2 animal species are particularly susceptible to Reverse Zoonoses?

A

swine
ferrets

309
Q

White Pox Disease in _______ _______ is an example of reverse zoonoses.

A

coral reefs

310
Q

List the 3 main diseases discussed which can be considered Reverse Zoonoses.

A
  1. influenza
  2. measles
  3. tuberculosis
311
Q

Measles is a morbillivirus which commonly affects _________, usually from human contact via respiratory droplets.

A

nonhuman primates

312
Q

Measles in humans causes a viremia which leads to _________ immunity which causes a ________ to develop due to hypersensitivity reaction.

A

T cell
rash

313
Q

List 3 complications that Measles in humans can progress to.

A
  1. pneumonia
  2. encephalitis
  3. death
314
Q

Which group of animals can develop a skin rash or respiratory, GI, or neurologic signs due to Measles contracted from human transmission?

A

non-human primates

315
Q

Recent Measles cases in the US are likely due to __________ people and those that travel to countries with outbreaks.

A

unvaccinated

316
Q

Which species is highly susceptible to reverse zoonoses Tubcerculosis infection?

A

elephants

317
Q

Tuberculosis is more common in (captive/wild) elephants.

A

captive

318
Q

(T/F) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is often the cause of death in elephants with the disease.

A

False (incidental)

319
Q

________ Disease in humans is potentially associated with Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis.

A

Crohn’s

320
Q

Crohn’s Disease is a chronic inflammatory __________ disease.

A

bowel

321
Q

(T/F) No connection between M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis and Johne’s Disease has been established.

A

True

322
Q

Crohn’s Disease is characterized by a thickened small intestine due to __________ infiltrate.

A

macrophage

323
Q

There are 5 presentations of Crohn’s Disease based on the location and clinical signs. List them.

A
  1. ileocolitis
  2. ileitis
  3. gastroduodenal
  4. jejunoileitis
  5. granulomatous colitis

Public Health (3 decks)

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