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Neurobiology > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Suppose you are at a party, standing by yourself for a moment. The group next to you is having an interesting conversation, full of gossip, and you are listening in. If you do not give any external signs that you are paying attention to their conversation, and do not move your eyes or your head towards them, what kind of attention are you using?

A

Covert

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2
Q

Why is our innate ability to notice salient stimuli more acutely than background stimuli beneficial?

A

It alerts us of potential benefits and threats

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3
Q

A subject’s EEG ____________ in amplitude when individuals are aroused compare to when they’re drowsy or asleep.

A

decreases

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4
Q

Visual System

A

Comprises the eye and the parts of the CNS which gives organisms the ability to detect and process visual stimuli

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5
Q

Visual system sensors

A

photoreceptors

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6
Q

somatosensory

A

A system of neurons and sensory cells that provide an organism with information about physical state of its body (temperature, limb position, and pressure)

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7
Q

Somatosensory sensors

A

Mechanoreceptors

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8
Q

Spatial Receptive Field (RF)

A

The region of physical space in which stimuli elicit neural responses that help to localize objects within that space.

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9
Q

What is a two point threshold?

A

How far apart two points of stimuli need to be for mechanoreceptors to differentiate between them.

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10
Q

Information from the arms and upper trunk are represented…

A

laterally in the Dorsal Column Nuclei

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11
Q

Information from the legs and lower trunk are conveyed…

A

medially through the Dorsal Column Nuclei

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12
Q

Touch sensors in the mouth and face project to the …

A

principal trigeminal nucleus of the medulla

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13
Q

Primary Somatosensory Cortex (S1)

A

A thin strip of cortex that receives input from the dorsal thalamus, it is the main processing region for the sense of touch and contains a map of the entire body surface.

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14
Q

somatosensory humunculus

A

A drawing of a “Little man” showing the degree to which a part of the body is over or underrepresented in the somatosensory cortex and runs parallel to the motor cortex humunculus.

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15
Q

Barrel Cortex

A

A part of the rodent’s primary somatosensory cortex (S1) that represents the whiskers.

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16
Q

Lateral Inhubition

A

The process by which neighboring neurons inhibit each other.

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17
Q

Fovia

A

A small region of the retina that contains a very high density of photoreceptors and is the central aiming point of the visual field

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18
Q

The superior colliculus plays a role in…

A

eye movement

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19
Q

The Lateral Geniculate Nucleus is involved in…

A

conscious visual perception

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20
Q

Photoreceptors are overrepresented in the

A

V1

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21
Q

Mechanoreceptors are overrepresented in the

A

S1

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22
Q

Neurons of the superior colliculus are…

A

Binocular

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23
Q

Neurons of the Lateral Geniculate Nucleus are…

A

monocular

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24
Q

The primary visual cortex is laminar which means

A

that it is made up of multiple layers specifically in this case 6 layers

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25
Q

Layer 4 of the V1 neurons are

A

monocular

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26
Q

Layers 1-2 and 5-6 of the V1 neurons are

A

Binocular

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27
Q

What is Binocular depth perception?

A

The ability to estimate the distance to a visual object by comparing the inputs to both eyes.

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28
Q

What happens in the first step of the V1 Schematic?

A

Sensory input comes into layer 4 of the primary visual cortex (V1) from the LGN and synapses on satellite neurons.

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29
Q

What is the second step in the V1 schematic

A

Stellate neurons project mainly to the pyramidal neurons radially above them in layers 2 and 3.

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30
Q

What is the third step in the V1 schematic

A

The majority of layers 2-3 pyramidal neuron axons terminate on dendrites of pyramidal neurons with cell bodies in layers 5-6

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31
Q

What is the fourth step in the V1 schematic

A

Deep layer pyramidal neurons then project onto the other subcortical targets.

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32
Q

Canonical Cortical Circuit:

A

The idea that all cortical areas contain a fundamentally conserved intracortical circuit.

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33
Q

Allocentric:

A

World-centered representations

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34
Q

Egocentric:

A

eye, head, or body centered representations

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35
Q

Cognitive map:

A

A map-like representation of the external world that organisms use to calculate novel routes.

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36
Q

Where in the brain is the allocentric cognitive map?

A

Hippocampus

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37
Q

Place cells:

A

A type of neuron that increases its firing rate when the organism is in a specific spatial location, irrespective of body position.

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38
Q

Saccades

A

small rapid movements most often the eyes

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39
Q

Focusing attention on one set of stimuli thoughts or actions will…

A

come at the expense of attention on other things.

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40
Q

Attentional spotlight

A

Permitting attention one one stimulus at a time.

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41
Q

Overt attention:

A

Aims you rental fovea at the attended location and involves eye and often head movement.

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42
Q

Covert attention:

A

A form of visual spatial attention that can be shifted from one location to another with out movement of the eyes or head.

In covert attention eyes and ears don’t move but perception does.

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43
Q

Visual search

A

A search for a target in a display containing distracting elements.

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44
Q

Involuntary attention:

A

A form of attention in which external stimuli “grab” a person’s attention without them having conscious control

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45
Q

Salient:

A

Grabbing attention

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46
Q

Does the visual system process colors and orientation separately or all at once.

A

All at once

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47
Q

The time it takes for a salient stimulus to pop out of the background _____ increases significantly as the number of background distractors goes up.

A

Does not

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48
Q

Stimulus salience is likely computed by neurons that receive _____ input about multiple stimulus features.

A

Convergent

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49
Q

Frontal Eye Field (FEF):

A

A cortical area that lies at the anterior edge of the premotor cortex and is involved in the control of eye movement.

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50
Q

What are the 2 functions of the FEF?

A

1 To select a target for the next saccade
2 To retain information about planned saccades in memory

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51
Q

FEF guides _____ spatial attention followed by eye movement.

A

voluntary

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52
Q

Parietal Eye Field (PEF):

A

a region of the posterior parietal cortex that plays an important role in the control of visual attention.

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53
Q

Is the Superior Colliculus associated with involuntary attention or voluntary attention?

A

Involuntary

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54
Q

Is the FEF associated with involuntary attention or voluntary attention?

A

Voluntary

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55
Q

Behavioral Arousal =

A

Heightened attention

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56
Q

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

A

Recordings of cortical activity made through large electrodes placed on the scalp each of which averages the electrical activity of thousands of neurons.

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57
Q

EEG has a _____ amplitude when individuals are aroused than when they’re drowsy or relaxed.

A

Lower

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58
Q

EEG Desynchronization

A

A decrease in the amplitude of the EEG that is typically associated with behavioral arousal.

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59
Q

Locus coeruleus

A

A small group of neurons near the fourth ventricle that project throughout most of the brain.

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60
Q

What neurotransmitter does the Locus coeruleus use?

A

Norepinephrine

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61
Q

What activates locus coeruleus?

A

1 Arousing stimuli
2 Boring stimuli that has been associated with reward or punishment.
3 Epinephrine secreted in response to stress

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62
Q

Whenever the LC neurons increase their firing rate substantially the EEG _____.

A

Desynchronize

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63
Q

As an individual falls asleep the EEG amplitude _____ and the frequency _____.

A

Increases; Decreases

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64
Q

What are the tree stages of sleep?

A

Light-intermed sleep
Deep sleep
REM sleep

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65
Q

What is slow wave sleep?

A

The part of sleep associated with the first 2 stages of sleep

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66
Q

Mammals spend most of their time in _____ sleep, interrupted by brief bouts of REM sleep and occasional transitions to wakefulness.

A

Slow-Wave sleep

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67
Q

Thalamocortical neuron:

A

Neuron in the dorsal thalamus with connections to the neocortex

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68
Q

Thalamocortical neurons fire _____ bursts of action potentials in synchrony with the slow oscillations of the cortical EEG.

A

Rhythmic

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69
Q

Thalamic Reticular Nucleus:

A

A cell group in the thalamus that receives input from both the dorsal thalamus and the neocortex.

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70
Q

Postinhibitory rebound:

A

The tendency of some neurons to fire a burst of action potentials after they are free from inhibition.

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71
Q

Bursts of thalamic reticular activity _____ thalamocortical neurons

A

inhibits

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72
Q

What neurotransmitter does Cholinergic neurons use?

A

Acetylcholine

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73
Q

Cholinergic Peribranchial Neurons

A

A cell group that contains cholinergic neurons with projections to the thalamus

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74
Q

Dorsal Thalamic neurons stop bursting rhythmically and the EEG becomes _____.

A

Desynchronized

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75
Q

Cholinergic Basal Forebrain:

A

Neurons in the basal forebrain that use acetylcholine as their neurotransmitter

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76
Q

Waking up depends in part on activating _____ neurons.

A

Cholinergic

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77
Q

Tuberomammillary Nucleus (TuMa):

A

Small group of neurons in the posterior hypothalamus whos activity promotes the waking state.

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78
Q

What neurotransmitter does TuMa use?

A

Histamine

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79
Q

Histamine:

A

Neurotransmitter that promotes wakefulness

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80
Q

Hypocretin:

A

Neuropeptide used by subset of neurons in the hypothalamus

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81
Q

_____: The tendency to fall asleep more often than normal, often falling into REM sleep without prior warning.

A

Narcolepsy

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82
Q

Humans with narcolepsy have last 90% of what neurons?

A

Hypocretin

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83
Q

Ventrolateral Preoptic Area (vIPOA):

A

A small cell group in the preoptic area whose neurons exhibit increased activity during sleep

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84
Q

Toggle Switch:

A

The two regions that promote wakefulness and sleep inhibit each other creating a clean stable transition between waking and sleep.

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85
Q

Rapid Eye Movement (REM):

A

A period in-between slow wave sleep where the EEG becomes desynchronized, accompanied by rapid jerky eye movements and a desynchronized EEG

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86
Q

How many REM cycles does the typical adult human have during a nights sleep?

A

3-4 episodes

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87
Q

EEG desynchronization is caused primarily by the _____

A

Cholinergic neurons

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88
Q

Muscle Atonia:

A

Loss of muscle tone during REM that causes most muscles to go limp; caused by hyperpolarization of skeletal motor neurons.

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89
Q

Prolonged sleep deprivation leads to…

A

Irritability
hallucinations
disorientation

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90
Q

Cetacean (Dolphins and whales) can sleep with _____ at a time

A

one hemisphere

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91
Q

A crucial function of sleep is to conserve _____.

A

Metabolic energy

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92
Q

(Due to sleep) Memory Consolidation:

A

Newly formed memories grow stronger over time, because memory traces in the brain take longer to stabilize.

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93
Q

Procedural Learning

A

Various forms of skill learning that can occur without conscious awareness

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94
Q

Episodic Memories

A

A memory for what happened when and where

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95
Q

This patient had part of his anterior medial temporal lobe (including part of the hippocampus and amygdala) removed

A

H.M.

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96
Q

Anterograde Amnesia

A

The inability to form new long term memories

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97
Q

Retrograde Amnesia

A

Loos of old memories

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98
Q

H.M could not form new long term _____ memories, but remained capable of _____ _____.

A

episodic; procedural learning

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99
Q

DNMST

A

Delayed Non-Match to Sample Tasks

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100
Q

The subject is presented with one item (the sample)

After a delay, subjects are presented with a pair of objects that includes the old item as well as a new one.

A

DNMST or Delayed Non-Match to Sample Tasks

101
Q

Monkey’s with lesions to the medial temporal lobe are severely _____ in DNMST.

A

Impaired

102
Q

Object recognize memory

A

The ability to recognize an object as being familiar

103
Q

Entorhinal Cortex

A

A cortical area that serves as a bottle neck for information flowing into or out of the hippocampus

104
Q

Perirhinal Cortex

A

A cortical area that has reciprocal connections with the entorhinal cortex.

105
Q

Monkeys with large bilateral lesions of the amygdala and hippocampus performed the DNMTS task _____ intact monkeys did.

A

as well as

106
Q

Perirhinal and postrhinal cortices, but not the hippocampus, and needed for ________.

A

Object recognition

107
Q

Hippocampus lesions, but not perirhinal cortex lesions, impair performance on a _____ task.

A

spacial memory

108
Q

_____ lesions impair their ability to remember the sequence in which various odor cues where presented (rats).

A

Hippocampal

109
Q

Relational memory hypothesis

A

The general function of the hippocampus is to form memories of relationships

110
Q

Olfactory cortex

A

A set of cortical areas that receives highly divergent input from neurons in the olfactory bulb (involved in odor discriminations)

111
Q

Hebb’s Rule

A

Neurons that fire together wire together

112
Q

Cell Assemblies

A

Weakly interconnected group of neurons that is repeatedly co-activated will over time become strongly interconnected.

113
Q

When one of these neurons is later activated by a partial stimulus the excitatory connections between the activated assembly members can activate the _________.

A

Whole assembly

114
Q

Memory formation involves changes in synaptic strength and the growth of new connections (_____-LTP)

A

Long Term Potentiation

115
Q

Memory formation and recall is centered oin the _____ and its interactions with the neocortex

A

hippocampus

116
Q

A

A

Peririhnal Cortex

117
Q

B

A

Entorhinal Cortex

118
Q

C

A

Dentate Gyrus

119
Q

D

A

CA3

120
Q

E

A

CA1

121
Q

Autoassociated Network

A

A neural network in which most neurons project to many other neurons in the same network.

122
Q

Cell Assemblies

A

Weakly interconnected group of neurons that is repeatedly co-activated will over time become strongly interconnected

123
Q

Each cell assembly is a potential _____, or memory trace.

A

Engram

124
Q

Partial input can activate all of the _____ neurons that had been activated by the original complete input.

A

CA3

125
Q

Pattern Completion

A

Presenting just one part of a complex stimulus to a neural network will cause that network to “complete the pattern”

126
Q

information flows from the neocortex to the hippocampus during ______.

A

Memory encoding

127
Q

Information flows from the hippocampus to the neocortex during subsequent _____.

A

Memory recall

128
Q

Retrograde Amnesia Gradient

A

Some brain lesions impair recently formed long term memories more severely than very old memories.

129
Q

Memory Relocation Hypothesis: Memories are initially stored in the _____ but then relocated to the _____.

A

Hippocampus; Neocortex

130
Q

Systems Consolidation

A

Consolidation of memories involves a relocation of memories from the hippocampus to the neocortex

131
Q

Emotions

A

a neuro-physiological response to certain kinds of stimuli

132
Q

Feelings

A

A self-perception of specific emotions

133
Q

Strong hippocampal assemblies in turn are likely to drive _____ neurons strongly enough to form their own assemblies.

A

Neocortical

134
Q

The stronger the sensory input pattern the more likely it is to cause the formation of robust _____ assemblies.

A

hippocampus

135
Q

Arousal activated the locus coeruleus and release _____.

A

Norepinephrine

136
Q

__________ improves performance in a range of neuronal computations, from processing to problem-solving and memory.

A

Norepinephrine

137
Q

Basolateral Amygdala complex

A

Part of the amygdala that is activated by strongly arousing stimuli

138
Q

Norepinephrine affects _____ rather than perception, memory formation, or recall

A

Memory consolidation

139
Q

Pavlovian Condition

A

The organism, after one or more exposures to a neutral stimuli followed by a reward or threat, learns to associate that stimulus with a reward or threat.

140
Q

Freezing response

A

Immobility (except for breathing)n while having all four feet resting on the ground

141
Q

Central Nucleus of the amygdala and basolateral amygdala inactivation _____ the freezing response.

A

reduces

142
Q

Central nucleus of the amygdala

A

Projects to the autonomic contro9l regions involved in the fight or flight response.

143
Q

Basolateral amygdala complex

A

Part of the amygdala that is activated by strongly arousing stimuli

144
Q

Social Transmission of Food Preference (STFP)

A

Learning what’s safe to ear by smelling what their social companions have eaten.

145
Q

Large _____ lesions impair this socially transmitted food preference

A

Hippocampus

146
Q

Inactivating the _____ amygdala during the sniffing phase but not during testing, eliminates STFP

A

Basolateral

147
Q

Conditioned taste aversion

A

Learning not to eat a food that previously made you sick

148
Q

Lesions of the _____ amygdala impair conditioned taste aversion

A

basolateral

149
Q

Frontostriatal System

A

A set of interconnected brain regions that includes the frontal lobes and the basal ganglia

150
Q

Basal Ganglia

A

A collection of subcortical structures that lie underneath the neocortex. Includes striatum, palladium, substantia nigra, and subthalamic nucleus

151
Q

Dorsal striatum is involved in …

A

the learning and control of stereotyped movements

152
Q

Ventral striatum is involved in …

A

cravings for food water sex and drugs

153
Q

The frontal cortex and striatum are connected to each other through a series of _____ connections.

A

looping

154
Q

Frontostriatal loop

A

Neocortex>Striatum>Pallidum>Thalamus

155
Q

Disinhibition

A

The release of neurons from inhibition, which often causes the disinhibited neurons to generated a burst of action potentials

156
Q

Corticostriatal Projections

A

A set of axons that project from the neocortex to the striatum

157
Q

Medium spiny neurons

A

The most common type of neuron in the striatum that are covered in numerous dendritic spines

158
Q

The frontostriatal loop contains two ______ and two _____ synapses.

A

Excitatory; Inhibitory

159
Q

The striatum is well-suited for _____

A

behavioral selection

160
Q

Direct pathway

A

A pathway through the basal ganglia that starts with neurons in the striatum and projects directly to the pallidum

161
Q

Firing of the striatum _____ the pallidum, which allows the thalamus to fire.

A

inhibits

162
Q

Indirect pathway

A

A pathway through the basal ganglia that starts with neurons in the striatum and projects to other nuclei before projecting to the pallidum.

163
Q

External segment of the globus pallidus (GPe)

A

Part of the basal ganglia with inhibitory connections to the subthalamic nucleus

164
Q

Subthalamic nucleus (SN):

A

small nucleus in the diencephalon with excitatory projections to the pallidum

165
Q

The direct pathway provides the pallidum with tightly focused _____.

A

Inhibition

166
Q

The indirect pathway provides diffuse _____ to the pallidum

A

Excitation

167
Q

Huntington’s Disease

A

Lethal neurodegenerative disorder caused by changes in the huntingtin gene that kill striatal neurons projecting into the indirect pathway.

168
Q

Huntington’s patients have difficulty suppressing …

A

unwanted, functionally inappropriate behaviors

169
Q

The striatum also receives substantial input from neurons that use _____ as their main neurotransmitter

A

Dopamine

170
Q

D-1 type receptors

A

promote depolarization of their postsynaptic targets

direct pathway

171
Q

D-2 type receptors

A

promote hyperpolarization of their postsynaptic targets

indirect pathway

172
Q

Dopamine tends to _____ the direct pathway and inhibit the indirect pathway

A

excite; inhibit

173
Q

Striatal dopamine release tends to decrease the firing rate of pallidal neurons and _____ the thalamus

A

disinhibit

174
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

A neurodegenerative disease caused mainly by the loss of dopaminergic neurons from the substantia nigra (SNc)

175
Q

Without positive feedback loops in the frontostriatal system, no _____ can be selected

A

Actions

176
Q

Contaminated with MPTP: a toxin that kills _____ neurons in primate

A

dopaminergic

177
Q

L-Dopa:

A

An immediate precursor of dopamine

178
Q

Striatal dopamine is required for _____ and _____

A

goal; action selection

179
Q

Cocaine: Blocks _____ reuptake

A

dopamine

180
Q

Amphetamines: Cause _____ dopamine to be released from presynaptic terminals.

A

excessive

181
Q

Consider the circuit below, which shows four
hypothetical brain structures and the excitatory (+) and inhibitory
(-) connections between them. Based on this circuit, what do you
predict Structure 3 will do after Structure 1 fires?

A

If Structure 1 fires, it will inhibit Structure 2. Structure 2 then
cannot inhibit Structure 3, which will be disinhibited, firing on (and
exciting) Structure 4. Two inhibitory connections in a row
effectively “cancel” each other out!

182
Q

Imagine you are looking at brain slices of the hypothalamus in the lab, and notice there are
about 90% fewer hypocretin neurons in the slice you are looking at compared to other brains you have
examined. Based on this pathology, what might you diagnose this patient with?

A

Narcolepsy

183
Q

Striatal dopamine release tends to _____ the firing rate of pallidal and _____ the thalamus.

A

Decrease; Disinhibit

184
Q

Burst of action potentials from the SNc/VTA neurons result in rapid increases in striatal _____.

A

Dopamine

185
Q

If someone were to ask you, what scientific explanation would you give to differentiate an
Emotion from a Feeling? Are they the same thing – why or why not?

A

They are not the same thing. An emotion is a neuro-physiological response to certain kinds of stimuli
(external or internal), while a feeling is self-perception of specific emotions. Emotion is measurable,
while a feeling is subjective.

186
Q

Phasic Dopamine Bursts

A

A brief rapid increase in dopamine release withing the striatum

187
Q

Compare and define covert and overt attention.

A

Overt Attention: aims your retinal and acoustic fovea at the attended location (ie, moves eye
and head)
Covert Attention: a form of visual spatial attention that can be shifted from one location to
another without movement of the eyes or head (ie, perception shift)

188
Q

Phasic bursts of dopamine can _____ a reward

A

predict

189
Q

Consider the actions below. Determine whether they are an example of covert or overt attention

  1. Turning your head when you hear a loud crash
  2. Keeping your head facing forward while driving, but still paying attention to a
    cyclist approaching your car from a side street
  3. Chatting with your friend in a coffee shop, but secretly listening to a
    conversation happening at the next table.
  4. Diverting your attention back and forth from a Powerpoint slide to the lecturer
    giving the presentation
A
  1. Overt
  2. Covert
    3.Covert
  3. Overt
190
Q

Craving:

A

A strong desire for something combined with the motivation to do something about it

191
Q

Phasic bursts of dopamine serve as _____ signals

A

Teaching

192
Q

Dopamine signals will cause some sort of _____ withing the stratum.

A

Synaptic plasticity

193
Q

Drug-Condition place preference

A

The behavioral preference of an animal to be in a place where it has previously received a pleasure inducing drug.

194
Q

Name 3 major benefits of sleep

A
  1. To conserve metabolic energy (10% O2 savings, 30-40% less glucose utilization)
  2. REM and slow-wave sleep are critical for memory consolidation
  3. Enhanced clearance of potential toxins from the brain (interstitial space increases in volume as
    we sleep, allowing CSF to flow more quickly, collecting potentially harmful metabolites)
195
Q
A
196
Q

Rats receiving infusions of amphetamine directly into the _____ causes massive dopamine release.

A

Ventral striatum

197
Q

This place preference does not emerge when the amphetamine is infused into the _____

A

Dorsal Striatum

198
Q

Prefrontal Cortex:

A

The most anterior portion of the neocortex, which plays a major role in many cognitive functions including planning and decision making

199
Q

Who gave himself a prefrontal lobotomy while working as a foreman of a rail line construction crew?

A

Phineas Gage

200
Q

Repotent responses

A

a behavioral response that individual performs habitually and automatically

201
Q

Monkeys with _____ lesions had trouble letting go of the behavior that had previously earned them rewards

A

orbital prefrontal

202
Q

Stroop Task

A

A task that involves subjects either reading a color word or naming the color of the ink in which a word is printed

203
Q

Sensory receptors in the face and mouth send projec@ons through which nuclei in the
hindbrain?

A

principal trigeminal nuclei

204
Q

Which of the following is the best explana@on of the region of space more represented in
the primary visual cortex, V1?

A

The fovea has a high density of photoreceptors & is overrepresented in V1

205
Q

In Tolman’s cross maze, what happens if you inject lidocaine into the hippocampus in your
rats aPer training?

A

You would disrupt allocentric learning but not egocentric learning

206
Q

What two thalamic nuclei form an oscillatory feedback loop and fire rhythmically during
slow wave sleep?

A
207
Q

In rats, what effect would inactivating the basolateral amygdala have on socially transmitted food learning?

A

It would stop STFP if inactivated during the sniffing phase

208
Q

Which of the following species is not a cartilaginous vertebrate with a first confirmed true cerebellum?
A. Rat fish

B. Spiny Dog fish

C. Hagfish

D. Smoothhound

A

Hagfish

209
Q

What type of evolution is described by individual brain regions increasing beyond what is expected?

A

Mildly mosaic evolution

210
Q

What is one possible result of a damaged hippocampus in humans?

A

Impaired place learning

211
Q

Which is true of D-2 Type Receptors?

a. they are located in the pallidum

b. when dopamine binds they promote hyperpolarization of their post synaptic targets

c. they are involved in the direct pathway

d. they are located in the neocortex

A

b. when dopamine binds they promote hyperpolarization of their post synaptic targets

212
Q

When looking at the species Hydrolagus (Rat Fish), how is this species different than the others in the shark brain structure evolution?

A

They have the first confirmed true cerebellum

213
Q

I am a star-shaped neuron formed by dendritic processes radiating from the cell body. What am I?

A

stellate neurons

214
Q

I am sitting around and deciding to go work out or go to the movies via either driving my bike or driving my car. What steps are taking place to make this decision?

A

First, I am accessing my orbital/polar prefrontal cortex, then lateral/medial prefrontal cortex, and finally premotor and motor cortices to make the movement.

215
Q

What are the key differences between overt, covert, and involuntary attention?

A

With overt attention, there is physical movement, aiming your retinal fovea at the attended location whereas covert attention is visual spatial attention which can be shifted from one location to another without the physical movement. In contrast, involuntary attention involves a salient without conscious control allowing for parallel search.

216
Q

The locus coeruleus (LC) plays an important role in neural attention mechanisms. Given its function and connections, what statement best describes the LC’s role in regulating attention and arousal states?

A

LC neurons increase their firing rate substantially in response to arousing stimuli, contributing to EEG desynchronization and behavioral arousal in an awake state.

217
Q

________ rats would turn away from the food, whereas ________ rats would turn toward the food.

A

Egocentric, Allocentric

218
Q

What happens when you have a loss of muscle tone turning REM sleep that causes your muscles to go limp?

A

Muscle Atonia

219
Q

Which group of neurons in the posterior hypothalamus whose activity promotes a waking state?

A

Tuberomammillary Nucleus TuMa

220
Q

What part of the brain is needed for impulse control?

A

Prefrontal Cortex

221
Q

Indirect path will eventually lead to ….. as an end goal?

A

Disinhibition of Thalamus

222
Q

Cholinergic neurons use what as their neurotransmiter?

A

acetylcholine

223
Q

In a normal, healthy human, the firing of the striatum excites the pallidum and inhibits the thalamus. In a patient with huntingtons disease, there is a loss of medium spiny neurons in the striatum along the indirect pathway. Which BEST explains the mechanism for the pathway in a Huntington’s patient?

A

The SN can no longer excite the pallidum, and the thalamus will fire uncontrollably.

224
Q

In the neurobiology of sleep lecture we learned about the waking up and sleeping cycle which includes the Tuberomamillary Nucleus (TuMa). Which region does the TuMa NOT send histamine to?

A

basal forebrain

225
Q

In slow wave sleep, busts of thalamic reticular activity ____ thalamocortical neurons

A

inhibit

226
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about D1 type receptors?

a. norepinephrine is released from the SNc/VTA to excite the striatum.

b. dopamine is released from the SNc/VTA to excite the indirect pathway.

c. dopamine is released onto the striatum where the D1 receptors are located to excite the direct pathway.

d. there is no such thing as D1 receptors, there are only D2 receptors.

A

dopamine is released onto the striatum where the D1 receptors are located to excite the direct pathway.

227
Q

Parkinson’s Disease causes

A. Decreased excitatory input to the neocortex

B. Increased activity of the striatal neurons in the direct pathway

C. Increased activity of the striatal neurons in the indirect pathway

D. A & B

E. A & C

A

E. A & C

228
Q

Which is True regarding D-1 Receptors?

A

Promote Depolarization of their postsynaptic targets

229
Q

Question: How many types of Fear Conditioning are there?

A

3

230
Q

The first confirmed true Cerebellum is attributed to which species of vertebrae?

A

Ratfish

231
Q

Which of the following accurately describes mosaic evolution?

A

Brain regions grow in size independently from one another.

232
Q

What neurotransmitter is released from an aroused locus coeruleus and what are its effects?

A

Norepinephrine; increases sensory responses, motor skills, and overall performance

233
Q

What is the main diffrence between the two types of brain scaling Evolution theories (Concerned Evolution and Mosaic Evolution)?

A

Concerned Evolution says that each part of the brain increases in size at the same rate. While Mosaic is all parts of the brain increases independent of other parts of the brain.

234
Q

______ learning is the understanding of spacial relationships of the environment and its features relative to one another rather than relative to the body, it is an example of ________ learning

A

Place, allocentric

235
Q

In a direct pathway, the striatum ________ the pallidum, resulting in the _______ of the thalamus.

A

inhibits, inhibition

236
Q

Where in the brain does memory recall happen once consolidation has been completed?

A

Neocortex

237
Q

Which part of the amygdala is activated by strongly arousing stimuli?

A

Basolateral complex

238
Q

What do the Polar and Orbital divisions control?

A

Goals

239
Q

The Locus Coreulus is associated with what two brain regions?

A

The upper pons and basal forebrain

240
Q

Visual sensory systems use ______________, whereas somatosensory systems use __________________.

A

photoreceptors & mechanoreceptors

241
Q

Which of the following structures does not belong?

A

amygdala

242
Q

Suppose you are deciding how to spend your Friday night. Along the process of decision making, your brain goes through three hierarchal levels of thought. First your brain first decides to stay in the house to watch tv, then you decide to browse Netflix, and finally your body will act out the series of movements to select the most enticing tv show. Which of the following answers correctly matches the level of behavior control in this situation with the part of the frontal lobe utilized.

A. Staying in the to watch tv - lateral and medial

B. Browsing Netflix - premotor and motor cortices

C. Movements to select the tv show - lateral and medial

D. Staying in to watch tv - polar and orbital

A

D. Staying in to watch tv - polar and orbital

243
Q

What neurotransmitter affects memory consolidation?

A

Norepinephrine

244
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for vIPOA?

A

Hypocretin

245
Q

What does a telencephalon involve?

A

Spatial learning and memory in the higher cognitive function

246
Q

What can be associated with increase in Encephalization?

A

Metabolic Rate

247
Q

Preparing for a behavior and shifting attention to task related stimuli are related to what part of the prefrontal cortex?

A

Lateral

248
Q

Cephalochordates lack a ……?

A

Telencephalon

249
Q
A

Neurobiology (4 decks)

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