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Neurobiology > Exam 2 COPY > Flashcards

Exam 2 COPY Flashcards

1
Q

A

A

Dorsal Root Ganglion

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2
Q

B

A

Quadriceps

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3
Q

C

A

Hamstring

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4
Q

D

A

Sensory

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5
Q

Identify the types of neurons involved in the leg withdraw reflex

A

Motor Neuron
Excitatory Interneuron
Inhibitory Interneuron

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6
Q

A (Sudden Spike in Blood Pressure)

A

Nucleus Tractus Solitarius (NTS)

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7
Q

B (Sudden Spike in Blood Pressure)

A

Carotid Sinus

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8
Q

C (Sudden Spike in Blood Pressure)

A

Aortic Arch

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9
Q

D (Sudden Spike in Blood Pressure)

A

Parasympathetic Ganglion

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10
Q

E (Sudden Spike in Blood Pressure)

A

X (Roman Numeral 10)

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11
Q

F (Sudden Spike in Blood Pressure)

A

IX (Roman Numeral 9)

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12
Q

A (Sudden Drop in Blood Pressure)

A

Nucleus Tractus Solitarius (NTS)

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13
Q

B (Sudden Drop in Blood Pressure)

A

IML

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14
Q

C (Sudden Drop on Blood Pressure)

A

Sympathetic Ganglion

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15
Q

D (Sudden Drop in Blood Pressure)

A

Carotid Sinus

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16
Q

E (Sudden Drop in Blood Pressure)

A

Aortic Arch

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17
Q

F (Sudden Drop in Blood Pressure)

A

X (Roman Numeral 10)

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18
Q

G (Sudden Drop in Blood Pressure)

A

IX (Roman Numeral 9)

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19
Q

A

A

Myosin Head

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20
Q

B

A

Myosin

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21
Q

C

A

Tropomyosin

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22
Q

D

A

Actin

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23
Q

E

A

Troponin

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24
Q

F

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

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25
Q

A

A

Ca Ion

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26
Q

B

A

Myosin Head

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27
Q

C

A

Myosin

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28
Q

D

A

Actin

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29
Q

E

A

Calmodulin

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30
Q

F

A

MLCK

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31
Q

G

A

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

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32
Q

A

A

DCC Receptor

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33
Q

B

A

Commissural Axion

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34
Q

C

A

Netrin

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35
Q

D

A

Floor Plate

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36
Q

E

A

Slit

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37
Q

F

A

Robo Receptor

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38
Q

When the membrane receptor (a) _____________ on the (b) __________________ axon is stimulated
by the guidance molecule (c) _____________, it promotes axon progression towards the midline.

A

a) DCC
b) Commissural
c) Netrin

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39
Q

Therefore, the axon is attracted to the (c) molecule that is secreted by (d) __________________ cells,
setting up a concentration gradient.

A

Floor Plate

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40
Q

The cells from (d) also secrete a secondary molecule called (e) ____________, which can repulse axons

A

Slit

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41
Q

When the (b) axons get to (d), they start expressing the membrane receptor (f) ______________, that
is activated by molecule (e).

A

Robo

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42
Q

When actively expressed (f) receptors have two effects:

5a. (f) receptors represses the (a) _____________ receptors, making the growth cone less
sensitive to (c) _____________.
5b. (f) receptors make the growth cone repulsed by (e) _____________,
Collectively causing the axon to cross the midline and ascend on the other side of the spinal cord.

A

a) DCC
c) Netrin
e) slit

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43
Q

RESULT: As a result of all these molecular interactions, the axons are first ______________ to the floor
plate (______________ chemotaxis), and then ______________ by it (______________ chemotaxis).

A

1) attracted
2) positive
3) repelled
4) negative

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44
Q

An action potential propagates across the _____________ and down the
____________, which triggers the release of the ion _______ into the sarcoplasm
through special calcium channels on the _____________.

A

1) Sarcolemma
2) T-tubules
3) Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

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45
Q

At high ________ levels, Ca2+ binds to ___________.

A

1) Ca ion
2) Troponin

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46
Q

____________ is physically moved aside and the binding site becomes exposed

A

Tropomyosin

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47
Q

The ____________ attach to the binding site, forming a ____________.

A

1) Myosin Head
2) Cross Bridge

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48
Q

In the presence of __________, the myosin head pulls the actin filament.

A

ATP

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49
Q

END RESULT: The _____________ is shortened and the skeletal muscle contracts.

A

Sarcomere

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50
Q

Following an action potential, ______ enters through voltage-gated ______
channels, which (1b) eventually leads to release of internal Ca2+ stores from the
_______________ reticulum

A

1) Ca Ion
2) Ca Ion
3) Sarcoplasmic

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51
Q

When Ca2+ levels rise, Ca2+ binds to __________, creating a ________/__________
complex

A

1) calmodulin
2) Ca Ion
3) calmodulin

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52
Q

This complex activates an enzyme __________

A

MLCK

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53
Q

that phosphorylates the __________. This process of _________________ makes
the myosin heads more likely to bind to adjacent ________ filaments

A

1) myosin head
2) phosphorylation
3) actin

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54
Q

_____________ sense increased blood pressure, causing them to trigger
action potentials at a _________ than normal rate

A

1) Baroreceptors
2) Higher

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55
Q

Information is transmitted from the baroreceptors in the ___________ (via
cranial nerve: ___________) and the aortic arch (via cranial nerve:
___________ ) to a region of the dorsal medulla called the
____________________

A

1) Carotid Sinus
2) Glossopharyngeal n IX
3) NTS

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56
Q

When blood pressure is too high, NTS activates the ________________ system
(and inhibits the ______________).

A

1) Parasympathetic
2) Sympathetic

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57
Q

Parasympathetic _______________ neurons synapse with postganglionic
neurons (in the parasympathetic __________). Postganglionic neurons project
to the _____________, and release the neurotransmitter _______________.

A

1) preganglionic
2) ganglion
3) SA node
4) Acetylcholine

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58
Q

END RESULT : a(n) ____________ in heart rate.

A

decrease

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59
Q

_____________ sense decreased blood pressure, causing them to trigger action
potentials at a _________ than normal rate.

A

1) Baroreceptors
2) lower

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60
Q

Information is transmitted from the baroreceptors in the ___________ (via cranial
nerve: ___________) and the aortic arch (via cranial nerve: ___________ ) to a
region of the dorsal medulla called the ___________________.

A

1) carotid sinus
2) n IX
3) n X
4) NTS

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61
Q

When blood pressure is too low, NTS activates the ________________ system (and
inhibits the ______________).

A

1) Sympathetic
2) parasympathetic

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62
Q

A signal is sent from the NTS to the _____________ in the spinal cord.

A

IML

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63
Q

Sympathetic _______________ neurons synapse with postganglionic neurons (in the
sympathetic __________). Postganglionic neurons project to the
_________________, and release the neurotransmitter _______________.

A

1) pre-ganglionic
2) ganglion
3) SA node
4) nor-epinephrine

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64
Q

After a drop in blood pressure, NTS will also activate the ______________ pathway
to the blood vessels.

A

Sympathetic

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65
Q

Postganglionic neurons release the neurotransmitter _________________, which
here promotes vasoconstriction of the blood vessels, which results in an
____________ in blood pressure.

A

1) nor-epinephrine
2) increase

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66
Q

END RESULT : a(n) ____________ in heart rate.

A

increase

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67
Q

You just stepped on a tack - OUCH! A signal about this activates mechanoreceptive
axons (of ___________) that innervate the foot, which project to the deep layers
of the spinal cord’s dorsal horn via the ___________________ (a).

A

1) Nociceptors
2) Dorsal root ganglion

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68
Q

There, the sensory axons synapse on excitatory _______________ (e) that then
project to _______________ (f) neurons in the ventral horn.

A

1) Interneuron
2) Motor

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69
Q

These neurons in the ventral horn that received an excitatory signal innervate the
_______________ (c) muscles, which flex your leg and pull your foot away from
the pain source

A

hamstring

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70
Q

The incoming sensory axon branches and also synapses on inhibitory
_______________ (d) that project to additional _______________ (f) neurons in
the ventral horn.

A

1) Interneurons
2) Motor

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71
Q

These neurons that received an inhibitory signal innervate the _____________(b)
muscles, inhibiting contraction of the leg extensors

A

quadracep

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72
Q

END RESULT : Strong stimulation of the foot triggers ____________ of the leg flexors
and ____________ of the leg extensors.

A

1) Excitatory Interneurons
2) Inhibitory Interneurons

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73
Q

Name the two regions of the brain where adult neurogenesis has been documented in
mammals

A

Olfactory bulb and Hippocampus

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74
Q

Using the diagram below, label the major layers beneath the scalp in place to protect the
brain from injury, including the specific meningeal layers.

A
  1. Periosteum
  2. Skull
  3. Dura Mater
  4. Arachnoid barrier (which also includes the subarachnoid space)
  5. Pia Mater
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75
Q

A protein that regulates the migration of young cortical neurons along the
radial processes of radial cells and signals them to disembark

A

Reelin

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76
Q

Experimentally interfering with signaling (ie, very low levels of this molecule)
prevents medulla + spinal cord from forming

A

Retinoic acid

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77
Q

At high levels of expression of this protein, cells leave the cell cycle and begin
neurogenesis

A

Delta-1

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78
Q

In a developing spinal cord, this protein causes cells to adopt a more ventral cell fate

A

Sonic Hedgehog (SHH)

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79
Q

If you artificially increase levels of this protein, you would end up with an abnormally
large brain

A

B-catenin

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80
Q

The myofibrils of skeletal muscles are striped because they contain a
highly regular arrangement of molecules: thin (a) ________ filaments and thick (b) ________ filaments,
that repeat every 2-3μm. Each repeating unit is called a (c) ____________

A

a) actin
b) myosin
c) sarcomere

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81
Q

Pupillary constriction is modulated by which division of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Parasympathetic division

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82
Q

I’m a small star-shaped glial cell that multiplies in response to brain injury, migrates to
the site of injury, secretes inflammatory molecules, and engulfs cellular debris

A

Microglia

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83
Q

I am primarily responsible for setting our circadian and seasonal rhythms. I receive
projections from retinal ganglion cells that express melanopsin and have an inhibitory connection with
the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

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84
Q

I graduated from medical school in Italy when Mussolini published his “Manifesto per la
Difesa della Razza”, which banned of all non-Aryans from having academic careers. So, I set up a secret
lab in my bedroom. I found that if I removed the leg from an embryonic chicken and replaced it with a
sarcoma, the sarcoma actually rescued many limb motor neurons from death. This was the first
evidence of a trophic factor.

A

Rita Levi-Montalcini

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85
Q

I form from aggregates of misfolded Aβ proteins that form in the spaces between nerve
cells and am prevalent in the brain of Alzheimer’s disease patients.

A

Amyloid plaques

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86
Q

I’m a type of non-striated muscle that is spindle-shaped. I’m found in the walls of
internal organs and blood vessels and am associated with involuntary movement.

A

Smooth muscle

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87
Q

I am found in the medulla and my axon is known as a climbing fiber, which wraps
around the Purkinje cell dendrites. I convey error signals to the cerebellum to facilitate motor learning

A

Inferior Olive

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88
Q

Place the following events of neural development in order following fertilization, with 1
being the first event in the process.

chordin and BMP direct formation of neural tissue and skin tissue

formation of neural plate

formation of neural tube

blastocyst

formation of neural groove

A

2 chordin and BMP direct formation of neural tissue and skin tissue
3 formation of neural plate
5 formation of neural tube
1 blastocyst
4 formation of neural groove

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89
Q

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons are in a column between the dorsal and ventral horns, called
the ____________

A

Intermediolateral column (IML)

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90
Q

They exit the spinal cord through the ventral roots of the spinal nerve and terminate in the (a)
____________. There, they release the neurotransmitter (b) ____________

A

2a. sympathetic ganglion
2b. acetylcholine

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91
Q

This neurotransmitter is released onto the dendrites of the ________________

A

postganglionic neurons

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92
Q

These neurons then innervate the smooth muscle surrounding blood vessels and release the
neurotransmitter ________________.

A

norepinephrine

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93
Q

Describe the major steps in the process of chemical transmission at the neuromuscular
junction. Be sure to include the different voltage & ligand gated channels, correct neurotransmitter, &
the ions involved!

A

Step 1: Action potential arrives at axon terminal
Step 2: Voltage gated Ca2+ channels open and Ca2+ enters the axon terminal
Step 3: Ca2+ entry causes synaptic vesicles to move to the presynaptic membrane and release
acetylcholine via exocytosis
Step 4: Acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to the ligand-gated ion
channels on the post-synaptic membrane
Step 5: Binding of ACh opens channels, resulting in Na+ entry and depolarization (EPP)
Step 6: Action potential then propagates along Sarcolemma
Step 7: Reduction of neurotransmitter levels, terminating the signal (via reuptake by the
presynaptic neuron, enzymatic degradation (acetylcholinesterase) and diffusion)

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94
Q

Name TWO WAYS in which chemical transmission at the neuromuscular
junction differs from a normal chemical synapse.

A

DIFFERENCE 1`: At the normal adult neuromuscular junction, the ion influx almost always
triggers a postynaptic action potential. It is very reliable, unlike other synapses.
DIFFERENCE 2: is that we call this depolarization the End Plate Potential (EPP). EPP NOT an
action potential, but can depolarize the membrane of the postsynaptic cell and initiate an
action potential. The end-plate potential looks and behaves much like EPSPs in nerve cells and
is sufficient to trigger an action potential and subsequent contraction of the muscle

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95
Q

Put the following events in order following an action potential, resulting in contraction of
smooth muscle by writing numbers 1-7 on the line:

A

4 The myosin heads are phosphorylated
1 Ca2+ enters through voltage-gated Ca2+ channels and is released from internal stores
from sarcoplasmic reticulum
5 Myosin heads are now more likely to bind to adjacent actin filaments
2 Ca2+ binds to calmodulin, creating a Ca2+/calmodulin complex
3 The enzyme MLCK is activated
6 The muscle contracts

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96
Q

Consider the leg withdrawal reflex after stepping on a sharp object with your left foot. In
this reflex circuit, name the muscle that is excited (contracted) and the one that is inhibited (relaxed) in
the same leg?

A

The leg withdrawal reflex contracts the leg flexors (hamstring) and inhibits the leg extensors
(quads)

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97
Q

Imagine you have a sudden spike in blood pressure. Answer the following question by
circling or highlighting the correct options related to regulation of heart rate when your blood
pressure gets too high

A

Baroreceptors sense increased blood pressure
2. Causing them to trigger action potentials at a higher than normal rate
3. This Information is transmitted from the carotid sinus via the glossopharyngeal (nIX) nerve and
the aortic arch via the vagus (nX)
4. To the nucleus tractus solitarius (NTS)
5. This structure then activates the parasympathetic system and inhibits the (circle one)
sympathetic
6. Postganglionic neurons project to the SA Node
7. And release acetylcholine
8. This results in a decrease in heart rate

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98
Q

Define what is meant by “Excitotoxicity” and explain how astrocytes help to minimize this.

A

Excitotoxicity: Excessive stimulation of neurons (e.g. by glutamate) that leads to excessive
neural firing and, in some cases, cell death.
Some types of astrocytes possess potassium channels that allows K+ to flow INTO the cell
rather than out of it, which allows astrocytes to take up excess potassium (e.g. potassium
buffering). This keeps K+ concentrations lower in extracellular space, which allows K+ will flow
out of a recently depolarized neuron (e.g. repolarization). This process helps to get the cell get
back to its resting membrane potential. Thus, by taking up excess K, astrocytes help prevent a
neuron dying of excitotoxicity

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99
Q

How would you explain the difference between “red meat” and “white meat” to someone
who has never taken a biology class before? Name two key characteristics that we can associate with
dark vs. light meat. Answers can include characteristics related to twitch speed, speed/strength of
contraction, and where they derive their energy

A

Muscle fibers vary in their myoglobin content. Because myoglobin is red, you can visibly see muscle
that has a lot of myoglobin. Can have stated any two of the following:
“Dark Meat” - muscles that contain a high density of myoglobin
* Primarily slow twitch fibers
* More myoglobin means wean ferry more oxygen to the muscle, so this muscle type can stay
contracted for longer (ie, fatigue resistance)
* Slow contractions, more force
* Large, strong muscles (e.g. leg muscles)
* derives most of its ATP from oxidative phosphorylation
“White Meat” – muscle that contains little myoglobin
* Primarily fast twitch fibers
* Fast contractions, less force
* Less oxygen means they can’t stay contracted as long
* Small muscles (e.g. eye muscles, vocal cords)
* Derives most of its ATP from glycolysis

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100
Q

Name the three germ layers of a developing gastrula. Of these three, which is fated to
become nervous system?

A

Ectoderm, Mesoderm, Endoderm - The ectoderm develops mainly into the epidermis (skin) and
nervous system.

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101
Q

If I were to add semaphorin to the upper right corner of a petri dish (at the star in the
figure below), creating a concentration gradient, describe the way that a developing axon might grow
after 60 minutes

A

Semaphorin is a protein that tends to repel growing axons by causing the filopodia of their growth
cones to collapse. Therefore, after 60 minutes, the axon would grow down the concentration gradient
(negative chemotaxis) towards the bottom left corner.

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102
Q

Describe the pathway from nuclei in the
hypothalamus, resulting in the release of vasopressin
into the bloodstream (be specific about neuron types,
hypothalamic nuclei, hormone storage, and location
of capillary bed). Name two ways in which this differs
from the pathway from the hypothalamus to the
anterior pituitary

A
  1. Magnocellular hypothalamic neurons in the
    supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei synthesize vasopressin
  2. Hormones are packaged into vesicles & transported down the magnocellular axons to the
    posterior pituitary
  3. Vasopressin is stored in the axon terminals in the posterior pituitary
  4. When associated hypothalamic neurons fire, action potentials arriving at the axon terminals
    cause vasopressin to be released into the blood into the capillary bed in the posterior pituitary
    Differences (could be any two of the following)
    * Parvocellular neurons in the paraventricular and supraoptic nuclei
    * Anterior pituitary uses releasing hormones
    o Releasing hormones: synthesized in parvocellular neurons, released into upper
    capillary bed
    o Pituitary hormones: synthesized in pituitary cells in anterior pituitary; released into
    lower capillary bed
    * 2 capillary beds: one in upper and lower anterior pituitary
    * Pituitary Hormones released: GH, ACTH, LH, FSH, or TSH
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103
Q

The axons of a commissural neuron in the spinal cord grow ventrally at first because they
are attracted to (a) _____________, but then cross over to the other side of the floor plate and start to
ascend the other side because they are repulsed by (b) ___________.

A

(a) netrin
(b) slit

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104
Q

Name the structure to the left of this neuron’s cell body

A

It is a neuron’s growth cone (ie the tip of a growing axon), regularly extending and retracting slender
protrusions called filopodia. Either growth cone or filopodia would have been an acceptable answer
here.

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105
Q

What do you call an afferent neuron (free nerve ending) preferentially sensitive to noxious
stimuli?

A

Nociceptor

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106
Q

Purkinje Cells Receives Input From

A
  1. Granule cells
  2. Inferior olive/climbing fibers
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107
Q

Granule Cells Receives Input From

A

Precerebellar nuclei

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108
Q

Purkinje Cells Sends info to / Target(s)

A
  1. Vestibular complex
  2. Deep cerebellar nuclei
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109
Q

Granule Cells Sends info to / Target(s)

A

Purkinje cells

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110
Q

The brain is protected from blood-borne threats by three major barriers, each formed by
tight junctions between specific types of cells. Name the barriers and the cell types for each.

A

(1) Blood brain Barrier: barrier to the flow of large hydrophilic molecules from the blood into the
brain. Formed by tight junctions between endothelial cells.
(2) Blood-CSF Barrier: barrier to the flow of large hydrophilic molecules from the blood into the
cerebrospinal fluid. Formed by tight junctions between epithelial cells.
(3) Arachnoid Barrier: A very thin layer of cells between the subarachnoid space and the veins or
sinuses, formed by tight junctions between its arachnoid cells

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111
Q

Of the three muscle types we discussed, which one contracts the slowest?

A

Smooth muscle (contracts 300-500 times slower than skeletal muscle)

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112
Q

Name two parts of the body that are dramatically over-represented in the motor cortex, as
reflected in Penfield’s motor homunculus.

A

There are a few different acceptable options here. You could have said any of the following:
* Hands
* Fingers
* Face
* Tongue

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113
Q

Which of the following contains baroreceptors that are responsible for detecting blood pressure changes in the blood vessels?

a. Nucleus Tractus Solitarius (NTS)

b. Carotid Sinus

c. SA node

d. IML

A

Answer: B carotid sinus

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114
Q

The Vestibulo-ocular reflex helps minimize _________________ .

A

Retinal Image Slipping

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115
Q

If retinoic acid (RA) is artificially increased, what would most likely be the outcome for the embryo?

A: The embryo would most likely develop with no forebrain.

B: The embryonic brain region’s fate will become more caudal.

C: Both A and B

D: None of the above

A

C. Both A and B

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116
Q

There are three major axes that pass through the anterior pituitary gland. Which major axis matches correctly with its purpose?

a. Hypothalamic pituitary adrenal, reproduction

b. Hypothalamic pituitary gonadal, metabolism

c. Hypothalamic pituitary thyroid, stress

d. Hypothalamic pituitary adrenal, stress

A

d

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117
Q

In your neurobiology class, you learned about different muscle fibers and their roles in the human body. What would happen if you, for some reason, decided to switch the type of muscles in your eyes with their “opposite”?

A

A and D

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118
Q

Which of the following is true about smoth muscle

A) they are organized in sarcomeres

B) they have intercalated discs

C) they control actin-myosin binding by calcium-calmodulin-activated phosphorylation of the myosin heads

D) they can’t fire action potentials

A

c

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119
Q

What is the main function of having a leaky section on the blood brain barrier ?

A

Allows lymphocytes in, incase of an attack

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120
Q

What is the section of the brain found within the hypothalamus that is responsible for setting pituitary hormone levels and for setting the circadian rhythm?

A

Suprachiasmatic nucleus

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121
Q

Which binds netrin?

a)BMP

b) ROBO receptor

c)SLIT

d) DCC receptor

A

The answer is DCC

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122
Q

What is the “default” cell fate of ectodermal tissue in early embryonic development?

A

Rostral Nervous System Tissue

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123
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of the parasympathetic nervous system?

A. Connects all up and down the spinal cord

B. Increases intestinal and gland activity

C. Has very little branching

D. Conserves energy

A

A. Connects all up and down the spinal cord

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124
Q

In the process of neurulation which forms first?

A

neural plate

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125
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is primarily secreted by

A

choroid plexus cells

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126
Q

When ___ is released the heart rate is going to increase, and when ____ is released heart rate is going to slow down.

A

norepinephrine, acetylcholine

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127
Q

Which type of muscle below BEST fits this description? This muscle is striated, cylindrical in shape, bundled into fascicles, there are multiple nuclei per muscle fiber, and they are striated.

A. Smooth Muscle

B. Cardiac Muscle

C. Skeletal Muscle

D. None of the above

A

C

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128
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the adrenergic receptors?

A) Adrenergic receptors are G-proteins that bind to epinephrine. Alpha-adrenergic constricts the smooth muscle cells surrounding blood vessels causing the Blood pressure to Increase.

B) Adrenergic receptors are metabotropic receptors that bind to norepinephrine. Beta-adrenergic causes the relaxation of the smooth muscle cells surrounding blood vessels causing a decrease in blood pressure

C)Adrenegeric receptors are G-proteins that bind to epinephrine. Alpha-adrenergic relaxes the smooth muscle cells surrounding the blood vessels causing a decrease in blood pressure

D) Adrenegeric receptors are metabotropic receptors that bind to norepinephrine. Beta-adrenergic causes the smooth muscle cells surrounding the blood vessels to constrict which causes an increase in blood pressure.

A

Adrenergic receptors are metabotropic receptors that bind to norepinephrine. Beta-adrenergic causes the relaxation of the smooth muscle cells surrounding blood vessels, causing a decrease in blood pressure.

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129
Q

What would be the effect of no sonic hedgehog being released during embryonic development?

A

Development of sensory neurons

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130
Q

What is the fate of the neural crest?

A

Some parts of the peripheral Nervous system

131
Q

Which of these repels growing axons by causing filopodia of the growth cones to collapse?

A) Netrin

B) Semaphorin

C) DCC

D) Slit

A

Semaphorin

132
Q

What type of synapse occurs between a motor neuron and a skeletal muscle fiber and what type of synapse is it?

A

neuromuscular junction and chemical synapse

133
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of the types of specialized glial cells?

a. Microglia are the smallest glial cells in the Central Nervous System. Microglia help protect the brain by removing debris and helping control damage to the brain.

b. Astroglia are medium-sized glial cells in the Peripheral Nervous System. Astroglia’s function is to form myelin around the axons of neurons in the brain.

c. Oligodendrocytes are glial cells present in the Peripheral Nervous system. They are asymmetrical and their function is to help provide nutrition and support to the neuronal cells.

d. Schwann cells are star-shaped cells in charge of the removal of waste and toxins from the Central Nervous System.

A

Microglia are the smallest glial cells in the Central Nervous System. Microglia help protect the brain by removing debris and helping control damage to the brain.

134
Q

_____ is the tissue of the brain (excluding ependymal cells and blood vessels).

A

parenchyma

135
Q

An increase in retinoic acid concentrations in an a human embryo primarily stunts growth in what CNS region?

A

Forebrain

136
Q

After receiving a noxious stimulus, during a leg withdrawal reflex, what neuron(s) in the spinal cord is the signal NOT passed through?

A

Sensory Neuron

137
Q

Which neurotransmitter is responsible for the increase in heart rate in response to low blood pressure?

A

Norepinephrine

138
Q

What is the thin membrane of glial cells lining the ventricles of the brain and the central canal?

A

Ependyma

139
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system controls what?

A

Pupillary constriction

140
Q

In response to stress, your pituitary hormone releases adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH). Activation of what axis causes this release of ACTH?

A

HPA

141
Q

Which of the following is a task of the Hypothalamic-Pituitary-thyroid (HPT)?

A

Regulates metabolism

142
Q

How many segments is our spinal cord and brain subdivided into?

A

31:3

143
Q

Which muscle type lines the walls of the intestines, bladder, blood vessels, and bronchial passageways?

A

Smooth muscle

144
Q

If the Bone Morphogenic Protein (BMP) approaches the _______, it will be _______ by chordin and turn the Ectoderm into the Future nervous system.

A

Dorsal Blastopore Lip, Inactivated

145
Q

Which pituitary hormone(s) are released from the Hypothalamic-Pituitary Gonadal (HPG)?

A

Luteinizing hormone (LH) and Follicle-Stimulation hormone (FSH)

146
Q

When information is sent from the baroreceptors by cranial nerve: _____ and cranial nerve: ______ to the region of NTS. What are the two cranial nerves?

A

nX, nIX

147
Q

Which is FALSE regarding Alzheimer’s disease?

A. Neurofibrillary tangles form from misfolded Tau proteins

B. Misfolded Aβ proteins aggregate

C. Decreased expression of cytokines, chemokines and microglia around amyloid plaques

D. Neurons with plaques commit apoptosis

A

C. Decreased expression of cytokines, chemokines and microglia around amyloid plaques

148
Q

What type of cell can turn into neural tissue?

A

Ectoderm

149
Q

Refer to the provided image about the Arachnoid Barrier and its functions. Based on the details of the arachnoid Barrier:

This diagram shows the Arachnoid Barrier’s relation to CSF flow, including arterial blood movement through endothelial cells and tight junctions. It also depicts the collection of CSF from the ventricles and its transport through arachnoid cells into venous blood.

Which of the following statements is FALSE about the CSF and the arachnoid barrier?

A) CSF is primarily collected from the ventricles and then gathers in the Subarachnoid space.
B) The arachnoid barrier is composed of a dense layer of cells separating the ventricles from the subarachnoid space.
C) Within the arachnoid barrier, the CSF is transported to veins using giant vacuoles which float through the arachnoid cells and then release their contents.
D) Tight junctions primarily exist between the cells of the blood-brain barrier and not in the arachnoid barrier.
A

B) The arachnoid barrier is composed of a dense layer of cells separating the ventricles from the subarachnoid space.

150
Q

What are the four pituitary gland hormones?

A

1.) Adrenocorticotropic (ACTH) stimulating hormone
2.) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
3.) Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
4.) Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

151
Q

What is the Blood CSF Barrier formed by?

A

A. Tight junctions between epithelial cells in the choroid plexus

152
Q

What hormone is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?

A

Growth hormone

153
Q

What does the Circle of Willis in the brain do to help with cerebral blood flow?

A

links major arteries feeding the brain and minimizes potential brain damage

154
Q

What lies in the paired cerebral hemispheres?

A

Lateral ventricles

155
Q

In dorsoventral patterning, neurons that ____ their axons to muscles lie ______ and neurons that _____ input from sensory nerves are located______.

A

Send, Ventrally; receive, dorsally

156
Q

What part of the motor cortex has relatively direct projections to motor neurons in the medulla and spinal cord?

A

Primary motor cortex

157
Q

Which glia is present in the PNS?

A

Schwann cells

158
Q

what molecule obstructs the myosin binding site on an actin filament when a muscle is relaxed.

A

Tropomyosin

159
Q

What is not true about reflexes?

A

They are immutable

160
Q

What type of gland secretes its contents (hormones) into the blood?

A

Endocrine

161
Q

A (alpha) Fibers

A

Carry information from proprioceptive
receptors in muscles and tendons

162
Q

A (bravo) Fiber

A

Carry information from the mechanoreceptors
in the skin on pressure and vibration

163
Q

A (delta) Fibers

A

Carry information about pain and temperature

164
Q

C Fibers

A

Carry information about pain, temperature,
and itch

165
Q

A (alpha) Fibers

A
  • Thickest axons (13-20 μm)
  • Myelinated
166
Q

A (bravo) Fibers

A
  • Thick axons (6-12 μm)
  • Myelinated
167
Q

A (delta) Fibers

A
  • Thin axons (1-5 μm)
  • Myelinated
168
Q

C Fibers

A
  • Thinnest axons (0.2-1.5 μm)
  • Unmyelinated axons
169
Q

Both diameter and myelination critically increase __________ of action potential propagation

A

speed

170
Q

_________ (thickest, myelinated)
Conduction speed: 80-120 m/s

A

A (alpha) Fibers

171
Q

_________(thick, myelinated)
Conduction speed: 35-75 m/s

A

A (bravo) Fibers

172
Q

_________ (thin, myelinated)
Conduction speed: 5-30 m/s

A

A (delta) Fibers

173
Q

_________ (thinnest, unmyelinated)
Conduction speed: 0.5-2 m/s

A

C Fibers

174
Q

Spinal Cord

A

a long, thin tubular
structure that comprises part of the
central nervous system

175
Q

Spinal Nerve

A

a mixed nerve, which
carries motor, sensory, and autonomic
signals between the spinal cord and the
body

176
Q

Doral Root

A

A bundle of axons
that enters a segment of the spinal
cord dorsally and consists mainly of
sensory axons

177
Q

Ventral Root

A

A bundle of axons
that exits a segment of the spinal
cord ventrally and consists mainly of
motor axons

178
Q

Dorsal root ganglion

A

A
small swelling in each dorsal
root that contains the cell
bodies of sensory neurons
(afferent)

179
Q

Cell bodies in the dorsal root
ganglia do not have dendrites
and give rise to just ________

A

one axon

180
Q

pseudounipolar

A

Neuron with a single process emerging from the
cell body, which splits into two major branches

181
Q

99.8% of the cell’s
cytoplasm is in the _______

A

axon

182
Q

Dorsal horn

A

a region at the back of the spinal column that
receives input from mechanoreceptors in the skin

183
Q

_______________ fiber tract
ascends to the caudal medulla and
terminates in the Dorsal column
nuclei (DCN)

A

Dorsal column

184
Q

One branch terminates in the
___________ of the grey matter,
close to where the fibers enters
the spinal cord

A

dorsal horn

185
Q

Trigeminal nerve

A

The fifth cranial
nerve (nV) that contains somatosensory
axons coming from the face

186
Q

Aβ fibers in the trigeminal nerve project
to the _________________ of the
trigeminal nerve, which is located in the
caudal pons (hindbrain)

A

principle nucleus

187
Q

Somatotopic Organization

A

Organized in such a way that adjacent
parts of the body (usually the skin) are represented at adjacent
locations in the brain

188
Q

Ascending projections are ______________ organized

A

Topographically

189
Q

Primary somatosensory cortex (S1)

A

A
thin strip of cortex that receives input
from the dorsal thalamus

190
Q

Homunculus

A

a drawing of a “little man” that is a map-like
representation of regions of the body in the brain

191
Q

Somatosensory homunculus

A

A drawing of a “little man”,
showing the degree to which a part of the body is over- or
underrepresented in the somatosensory cortex

192
Q

The overrepresented
regions (e.g. _______&
_________) are areas of
high touch acuity

A

hands; face

193
Q

Barrel Cortex

A

A part of the rodent’s primary somatosensory
cortex (S1) that represents the whiskers

194
Q

Exact ____________ of position of whiskers

A

replica

195
Q

Lateral inhibition

A

The process by which neighboring neurons inhibit
each other

196
Q

Contact between an
object and our skin
activates S1 in a
___________ pattern
that reflects the objects
shape

A

spatial

197
Q

Neuronal rewiring is very common after brain injury and tends to
help restore __________________

A

behavioral function

198
Q

The degree to which the occipital cortex responds to somatosensory stimuli depends on the
________________ at which the person became blind

A

age

199
Q

Loss of input from the hand causes extensive “______________” in
somatosensory cortex

A

Remapping

200
Q

Phantom Limb

A

A pain felt in the region of the body that is no
longer there (eg, due to amputation) or is no longer innervated by
sensory axons (eg, due to spinal cord injury)

201
Q

Somatosensory inputs from the
face are ____________ to the
cortical region used to process
info from the arm or leg lost

A

rerouted

202
Q

Thermoreceptor

A

a sensory receptor that signals
information about changes in skin temperature

203
Q

cold fibers

A

a sensory
nerve fiber that fires when
skin temp decreases

204
Q

warmth fibers

A

a sensory
nerve fiber that fires when
skin temp increases

205
Q

Actual temperature is encoded by comparing __________________ of
warmth and cold receptors and that of nociceptors.

A

relative contribution

206
Q

Thermally-sensitive transient receptor potential (ThermoTRP) channels

A

temperature-sensitive ion channels found in sensory neurons

207
Q

TRP channels are activated over a specific _________ of temperatures

A

range

208
Q

Thermoreceptors fire when we make contact with an object that is
____________________ than our skin

A

warmer or colder

209
Q

Nociception

A

The neural process of encoding and processing
noxious stimuli

210
Q

Noxious stimuli

A

Damages or threatens to damage tissue
(mechanical, thermal, or chemical)

211
Q

Nociceptor

A

Afferent neuron preferentially sensitive to noxious
stimuli

212
Q

Nociceptors have ___________________ that respond to
various types of tissue damage or to stimuli that has the
potential to damage tissue

A

five nerve endings

213
Q

Thermoreceptive and nociceptive axons enter at the __________ of the
spinal cord

A

dorsal horn

214
Q

Substantia gelatinosa

A

a dorsal region of the dorsal horn of
the spinal cord, where nociceptive axons terminate

215
Q

Spinothalamic tract

A

route from the spinal cord to the brain that
carries information about skin temperature & nociceptive signals
*Terminates in dorsal thalamus, midbrain and medulla

216
Q

Conscious perception of painful stimuli occurs in the ______________
Cortex

A

somatosensory

217
Q

Axons of the spinothalamic tract
will synapse with relay nuclei in the
hindbrain and midbrain and
converge in the ______________
nucleus of the dorsal thalamus

A

ventral posterior

218
Q

Congenital insensitivity to pain (CIP)

A

a condition that
inhibits the ability to feel physical pain

219
Q

Analgesia

A

decreasing pain sensation during conscious
experience

220
Q

Exogenous opioids

A

chemical compounds related to opium and
are NOT produced by the organism’s own body (e.g. morphine, heroin)

221
Q

Endogenous opioids

A

chemical compounds that are related to
opium and are produced by the organism’s own body (eg. endorphin)

222
Q

_________ bind to G-protein coupled opioid receptors

A

Opiods

223
Q

Neurons that express the activated opioid receptors become much less
excitable (______________)

A

hyperpolarized

224
Q

Opioid receptors are located in many nociceptive axons that
terminate in the __________________

A

substantia gelatinosa

225
Q

If the signal fails to reach the higher levels of the brain, then
pain is not _______________

A

perceived

226
Q

placebo

A

decreasing pain sensitization when people
think they’re taking an analgesic drug, but aren’t

227
Q

Activating touch sensitive axons
(AB fibers) excite inhibitory
neurons in the spinal cord that
_________ the ability of
nociceptive axons to transmit
signals to higher brain regions

A

reduce

228
Q

Gate control theory

A

a description of the pain-transmitting system
that incorporates modulating signals from the brain

229
Q

Can deliver weak __________________ to a patch of skin close
to the site of the chronic pain

A

electrical current

230
Q

hypersensitivity

A

an increased or heightened
response to a normally painful stimulus

231
Q

What cranial nerve carries sensory information from the face, sinuses, and teeth?

A

Trigeminal

232
Q

Responses to continuous stimulations can include both slaw and rapid adaptation. Mechanoreceptors that are slow adapting (SA) fibers include _____ and _____, while rapid adapting (RA) fibers include _____ and _____

A

Merkel Disks; Ruffini endings; Meissner corpuscles; Pacinian corpuscles

233
Q

What is the term for an individual’s inability to process visual information in their left visual world when an object is present in their right visual world?

A

neglect

234
Q

Which semicircular canal senses the angular motion of nodding your head “yes”?

A

Anterior semicircular canal

235
Q

The vibration of the _____ activates the haircells

A

Basilar membrane

236
Q

If a patient experienced damage to their arcuate fasciculus, what problems would they likely experience?

A

Inability to repear sentences the patient has heard (Conduction aphasia)

237
Q

Your two friends Becky and Sam are arguing over hair cells (as one does). Becky is convinced that hair cells are neurons, but Sam vehemently disagrees, They ask you to settle this once and for all. Who do you side with and why?

A

You side with Sam because hair cells do not generate action potentials and do not have axons.

238
Q

Describe Ames Room

A

A room that creates a forced perspective by angling both the ceiling and floor to trick your eye into thinking both sides of the room are the same.

239
Q

If a person is able to see everything except the current object of attention, they may have what condition?

A

Balint syndrome

240
Q

What causes the release of glutamate in the auditory system.

A

Due to the pressure wave traveling up and down the scala vestibuli and scala tympani, moving the scala media up and down. This deflection pulls the tip links that open the mechanically gated K+ channels allowing for K+ to rush into the cell depolarizing it and this depolarization opens voltage-gated Ca2+ channels that cause the ribbon synapse to release glutamate.

241
Q

Which receptor would best respond if you where to stretch at the gym?

A

Ruffini endings

242
Q

Which carries information about pain and temperature

A

A (delta) Fibers

243
Q

Patients with Broca;s aphasia have the inability or difficulty to _____, whereas in whenicke’s aphasia patients have the inability to _____.

A

produce articulate speech; comprehend speech

244
Q

You and your friend are stuck in standstill traffic on a long road trip. Since you’re in the passenger seat you decide to close your eyes and try to get some sleep. However, as soon as you do, the traffic miraculously clears up and you get the sensation of the car accelerating forward. You notice this sensation due to which vestibular component?

A

Utricular Macula

245
Q

Which of the following is FALSE in regard to the left and right cochlea and their pathways to the lateral superior olive?

A. Lateral superior olive neurons are sensitive to interaural level differences.

B. The lateral superior olive receives excitatory projections from the ipsilateral cochlear nucleus and inhibitory input from the contralateral cochlear nucleus.

C. When the excitation is stronger than the inhibition, neurons in the lateral superior olive will increase in their firing rate.

D. When the inhibition is stronger than the excitation, neurons in the lateral superior olive will increase in their firing rate.

A

D) When the inhibition is stronger than the excitation, neurons in the lateral superior olive will increase in their firing rate.

246
Q

Which of the following descriptions of the type of nerve fibers that transmit somatosensory information to the brain is INCORRECT?

A. A-alpha fibers have the thickest axon diameter, are myelinated, and have the fastest conduction speed. They carry information from proprioceptive receptors that innervate muscles and tendons.

B. A-beta fibers have thick axon diameters and are myelinated, with a fast conduction speed. They carry information from mechanoreceptors in the skin that sense touch, pressure, and vibration.

C. A-delta fibers have thin axon diameters, are unmyelinated, and have a slow conduction speed. They carry information from free nerve endings that can sense pain, temperature, and itch.

D. C-fibers have the thinnest diameter, are unmyelinated, and have the slowest conduction speed. This type carries information that can sense pain, temperature, and itch.

A

C. A-delta fibers have thin axon diameters, are unmyelinated, and have a slow conduction speed. They carry information from free nerve endings that can sense pain, temperature, and itch.

247
Q

The airway above the larynx used for the production of speech is referred to as what…

A

Vocal tract

248
Q

What nerve fiber is characterized by its lack of myelination and slow condcution speed?

A

Node C

249
Q

What is the relationship between sound frequency and the location of maximal basilar membrane vibration?

A

Low frequency is neer the cochlear apex and high frequecny is near the cochlear base

250
Q

Which type of spatial attention involves the superior colliculus

A

Involuntary spatial attention

251
Q

What is the name of the thin filament connecting the sterocilium together in the inner ear

A

Tip links

252
Q

What order does sound wave travel via the cochlea

A

up the scala vestibula, down the scala tympani

253
Q

What is it called when hearing loss occurs due to defects in the cochlea or auditory nerve

A

Sensorineural hearing loss

254
Q

Which of these structures is part of the inner ear?

A. Pinna

B. Tympanic membrane

C. Oval Window

D. Cochlea

A

D the cochlea

255
Q

Which receptor is located at the epidermis.dermis border, detect light, and are responsive to sustained pressure and touch

A

Merkel Disks

256
Q

Which of the following sensory functions is primarily associated with Pacinian corpuscles?

a) Detecting changes in head position and linear acceleration

b) Sensing light touch and texture on the skin’s surface

c) Monitoring muscle tension and joint position

d) Perceiving vibrations and deep pressure in tissues

A

d) Perceiving vibrations and deep pressure in tissues

257
Q

_______ is sensitive to the acceleration/deceleration of the head forwards, backward, and sideways, whereas _____ is sensitive to the acceleration,/deceleration of the head upwards, downwards, and effects of gravity.

A

Utricle; saccule

258
Q

What is the correct order of steps of the triggering of a saccade?

A: a light flashes in your visual field

B: signal goes to the deep layers of the Superior Colliculus

C: visual activity is generated in the superficial layers of the Superior Colliculus

D. eye saccade towards the light is triggered

A

ACBD

259
Q

What is the second tinniest but still myelinated sensory fiber

A

A (delta) Fiber

260
Q

Touch receptors in the mouth and face project information to which area?

A

Priciple Trigeminal Nucleus

261
Q

Yikes, there are flies buzzing all around! Which mechanoreceptors are going to respond to a fly landing on your arm and then crawling down to your hand?

A

Merkel Discs and Meissner Corpuscles

262
Q

Meissner Corpuscles, which respond to frequencies between 3-40hz, specialize in what kind of perception?

A

Pressure

263
Q

What is one part of the ear that could be damaged in sensorineural hearing loss?

A

Cochlea

264
Q

Becky always knows her mother has arrived home when she feels the vibrations from her car in the driveway. Which type of mechanoreceptor and adaptive response is Becky experiencing?

A

Pacinian corpuscle with fast, beginning and ending firings

265
Q

Which nerve fiber type is the fastest?

A

A (alpha) Fiber

266
Q

Which pairing is incorrect?

A. Markel disks - Pressure discrimination
B. Ruffini endings- Continuous pressure
C. Pacinian corpuscles- light pressure sensors
D. Meissner corpuscle- deep pressure sensors

A

C. Pacinian corpuscles- light pressure sensors

267
Q

Which of the following is false about binocular depth cues?

A. The horopter is the location of objects whose images lie on corresponding points.
B. An object on the horopter with corresponding retinal points has a binocular disparity of zero.
C. The shorter the distance in depth of object from the horopter, the larger the binocular disparity.
D. Images of objects fall on corresponding points is they are the same distance from the fovea in both eyes.

A

C. The shorter the distance in depth of object from the horopter, the larger the binocular disparity.

268
Q

Your Brother decided to branch-out with his talents & recently took-up the Drums after hearing TNT by AC/DC as his Baseball Walk-up Song. Although you feel like your Ear Drums are going to burst, you support him hoping he’ll be a professional in either one day - to give him a leg-up at his lessons, you explain to him which Cortices are responsible for how he perceives speech & music:

A

Primary Auditory Cortex (A1) identifies fundamental elements of music like pitch & loudness, Belt Area (A2) is involved in processing Rhythm as well as a difference/anomaly in Melody, & Parabelt Area (A3) is involved in processing Rhythm

269
Q

What information is represented laterally in the DCN?

A

Arms and Upper trunk

270
Q

our cat gently brushes against your arm, and it gives you a slight tickling sensation. What structure– found only in not glabrous skin– is the reason for this phenomenon?

A

Root hair plexus’, which detect the motion of hair cells

271
Q

Which vestibular structure is responsible for sensing vertical acceleration?

A

saccular macula

272
Q

You sat outside without sunscreen for several hours in direct sunlight. Once you got inside, you notice that you feel a sharp pain and then a tingling/chilling sensation once in the shower when water goes over the skin. You get out of the shower and notice that your shoulders and chest are very bright red and starting to blister. A few days later you till get a throbbing/ tingling sensation if someone toucher the area or if you bump into anything. What is the correct order of events that lead your body to deliver the message that you had injured tissue in responce to the severe sunburn you suffered?

A

A-delta channels fire, presenting with a sharp pain, letting you know you have sustained an injury. C-fibers fire and deliver the sensation of tingling/throbbing to let you know that you have sustained an injury and will continue to fire until the injury heals. Because your sunburn is so severe, TRP-A1 and TRP-V2 channels fire, causing you to feel chills in the aftermath of the development of the severe sunburn and your shower.

273
Q

How does changing the vocal tract’s shape affect speech production?

A

Alters energy at different frequencies

274
Q

Which perceptions is correlated with Meissner corpuscle receptors?

A

Pressure

275
Q

Meissner corpuscles perceive…

A

pressure

276
Q

A-alpha fibers are the ________and so the ________transmitting nerve fiber

A

thickest, fastest

277
Q

Utricles are sensitive to the head moving __________ (direction), saccules are sensitive to the head moving ________ (direction)

A

forward/backward/sideways, up/down/gravity

278
Q

Which of the following are true regarding the vestibular system?

A: The semicircular canals are located in the inner ear and are used to detect linear motion and tilt.

B: The ampulla is the part of the otoliths where transduction of linear motion occurs.

C: The otoconia are small stones in the ear which provide inertial mass to sense acceleration.

D: There are 3 semicircular canals and 3 otoliths that make up the vestibular labyrinth.

A

C: The otoconia are small stones in the ear which provide inertial mass to sense acceleration.

279
Q

The 2nd order neuron in the posterior column pathway passes from the:

A

Medulla to thalamus

280
Q

Which of the following is NOT a monocular depth cue?
a. Occlusion
b. RelaEve Height
c. Convergence
d. Texture Gradient
e. Aerial PerspecEve

A

c

281
Q

You are driving, looking ahead. In your peripheral vision, a cyclist suddenly appears. This is
_____ aXenEon.
a. Overt, voluntary
b. Overt, involuntary
c. Covert, voluntary
d. Covert, involuntary

A

b

282
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the superior colliculus?
a. Weak sEmulaEon generates overt shi[s in aXenEon
b. Strong sEmulaEon generates covert shi[s in aXenEon
c. It is closely linked to involuntary shi[s in visual spaEal aXenEon
d. It is involved in compuEng “top down” saliency

A

c

283
Q

The amplitude of a sound is the:
a. amount of sound energy falling on a unit area
b. frequency of the sound
c. magnitude of displacement of a sound pressure wave
d. psychological aspect of sound related to frequency
e. pitch

A

c

284
Q

Which structures are ALL classified as part of the middle ear?
a. Pinna, Ear Canal, Tympanic Membrane
b. Oval Window, Ossicles, Tympanic Membrane
c. Ossicles, Cochlea, Tympanic Membrane
d. Ossicles, Ear Canal, Pinna

A

b

285
Q

If everything except the current object of aXenEon is blocked from conscious percepEon,
this would suggest
a. Balint Syndrome
b. Neglect
c. ExEncEon
d. Le[ parietal lobe damage

A

c

286
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning how sound is transduced?
a. The scala media contains perilymph, creaEng an electrical gradient
b. Movement of the basilar membrane ulEmately causes hair cells to bend
c. Hair cells have voltage-gated K+ channels that open when hair cells deflect
d. When the stereocilia are straight Ep links are pulled taught

A

b

287
Q

Consider the auditory pathway; which structure in the path receives direct informaEon from
the superior olives?
a. inferior colliculus
b. medial geniculate nucleus
c. primary auditory cortex
d. cochlear nucleus

A

a

288
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE when a sound is heard off to your le[?
a. The right lateral superior olive is excited by the le[ cochlear nucleus
b. The medial superior olive is sensiEve to ILDs, & sends the informaEon on
c. ExcitaEon by le[ cochlear nucleus is stronger than inhibiEon from right
d. The sound will be loudest to your right ear

A

a

289
Q

How do we encode sound frequencies?
a. The higher the pitch, the more neurotransmiXer that is released
b. Sound frequencies are only encoded in the primary auditory cortex
c. The lower the frequency, the fewer the # of hair cells are acEvated
d. Sound frequencies vibrate at different areas of the basilar membrane

A

d

290
Q

If someone can produce speech but can’t comprehend words, what region of the brain do
you predict is impaired?
a. Broca’s area
b. Wernicke’s area
c. Primary auditory cortex (A1)
d. Arcuate fasciculus

A

b

291
Q

An octave is the
a. amplitude of a piece of music
b. interval between two sound frequencies having a raEo of 2:1
c. frequency range of a parEcular piece of music
d. musical distance between two chords
e. absolute frequency difference between two notes in the same interval

A

b

292
Q

Which five organs make up the vesEbular system?
a. One semicircular canal and four otolith organs
b. Two semicircular canals and three otolith organs
c. Three semicircular canals and two otolith organs
d. Two semicircular canals, two otolith organs, and one cochlea

A

b

293
Q

If you close your eyes and nod your head “yes”, you are experiencing _______, which is
registered by your _____.
a. angular moEon; otolith organs
b. linear moEon; otolith organs
c. linear moEon; semicircular canals
d. angular moEon; semicircular canals
e. Elt; otolith organs

A

d

294
Q

If, for some unfortunate reason, your utricular maculae was destroyed, what do you predict
the impact would be?
a. You would struggle to sense gravity
b. You would not sense when a car accelerates without visual cues
c. Your vesEbulo-ocular reflex would be impaired
d. You would not sense when an elevator starts to ascend without visual cues

A

b

295
Q

The two mechanoreceptors with large recepEve fields (and therefore low touch acuity) are:
a. Meissner corpuscles & Pacinian corpuscles
b. Pacinian corpuscles & Ruffini endings
c. Ruffini endings & Merkel disks
d. Merkel disks & Meissner corpuscles

A

b

296
Q

Which funcEonality would be most affected if you lost your Meissner touch receptors?
a. Texture and high-resoluEon paXern percepEon, like for reading Braille
b. SensiEvity to stretching the skin to hold an object
c. The ability to feel the vibraEons from a car driving by
d. The ability to sense cold and warmth of objects touching the skin

A

a

297
Q

If you stand sEll in one place for awhile without moving, you eventually won’t feel the
boXom of your feet. This is mostly due to:
a. The large recepEve fields of Merkel disks
b. The rapid adapEng response of Pacinian corpuscles
c. The small recepEve fields of Ruffini endings
d. The slow adapEng response of Meissner corpuscles

A

b

298
Q

Which statement is FALSE concerning touch receptors in the mouth and face?
a. They are represented laterally in the dorsal column nucleus
b. They project to the principal trigeminal nucleus via the trigeminal nerve
c. Info converges with body touch informaEon in the dorsal thalamus
d. Info is conveyed to the contralateral primary somatosensory cortex

A

a

299
Q

You are looking at axon conducEon velocity and can’t find any axons that conduct APs faster
than 2 m/s. They are likely:
a. A-alpha fibers
b. A-beta fibers
c. A-delta fibers
d. C fibers

A

d

300
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the dorsal root ganglion (DRG)?
a. It contains the cell bodies of motor neurons
b. The cell bodies within the DRG are pseudounipolar in shape
c. Cell bodies in the DRG do not have axons and give rise to just one dendrite
d. Sensory axons from the DRG enter the spinal cord ventrally

A

b

301
Q

Name the region of a rodent’s somatosensory cortex that represents the whiskers.

A

Barrel cortex

302
Q

A small and rapid movement, most often of the eyes, is called a

A

Saccade

303
Q

Consider the “bottom up” neural circuits for this: Name any three brain regions that are
responsible for controlling this movement.

A

a. Superior Colliculus
b. Saccade Generator region (either midbrain, pontine, or medullary reticular
formation)
c. Eye muscle motor neurons: (either oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nuclei)

304
Q

I am a region of the medulla where the first convergence of auditory information occurs.
Specifically, I am responsible for measuring interaural time differences (ITDs)

A

Medial superior olive

305
Q

I am a cortical area that lies anterior to the premotor cortex. I play a major role in
controlling attention, specifically voluntary shifts in visual spatial attention. In particular, I am critical in
helping to determine the location of your next saccade….

A

Frontal eye fields

306
Q

I am an encapsulated nerve ending located deep in the dermis, among the sub-
cutaneous fat. I have a large receptive field and, if you’ve been standing in one place for a while, you
no longer feel sensation on the bottom of your feet because of me. But, when someone jumps nearby,
causing vibrations in the floor, I will quickly respond.

A

Pacinian corpuscle

307
Q

I’m a sensory nerve ending embedded in the tendon that can sense changes in muscle
tension. I provide critical information about the force with which a muscle pulls on a tendon. If there’s
too much tension, I will inhibit the muscle from creating any force to prevent injury.

A

Golgi tendon organ

308
Q

I was a Canadian neurosurgeon who was performing brain surgery on patients to try to
alleviate epilepsy. Because there are no pain receptors in the brain, I was able electrically stimulate
regions of the cortex and ask awake patients where they felt sensations. I used this information to
create a map-like representation of regions of the body in the brain.

A

Wilder Penfield

309
Q

I am a region of the cortex, found directly adjacent (in a concentric ring) to A1. My
neurons respond best to more complex characteristics of sounds, including processing rhythm and
detecting a difference or anomaly in a melody.

A

Belt area (A2)

310
Q

Following activation of a hair cell in the cochlea, information is going to travel along the (a)
_____ branch of the (b) _____ cranial nerve to the brain.

A

(a) auditory nerve (or cochlear nerve) (b) vestibulocochlear (nVIII)

311
Q

An opioid binds to a (a) _______ -coupled opioid receptor, which dissociates and activates the enzyme,
(b) _______. This enzyme reduces production of the second messenger (c) _______ which causes Ca2+
channels to (d) (choose one) open / close and K+ channels to (e) (choose one) open / close. This change
in ion flux causes a membrane (f) _______ when activated by an opioid

A

(a) g-protein (b) Adenylate cyclase
(c) cAMP (d) close
(e) open (f) hyperpolarization

312
Q

What is the name for a long cilium that sits next to the tallest stereocilium of a vestibular
hair cell?

A

Kinocilium

313
Q

If you met a patient who could produce speech, but had lost the ability to comprehend it,
what region of the brain in the language circuit do you predict has been damaged?

A

Wernicke’s area

314
Q
  1. Fluid inside the scala media is called (a) ___________ which has a (b) ______ concentration of
    K+ ions
  2. Fluid inside surrounding the body of the hair cell is called (a) ___________ which has a (b)
    ______ concentration of K+ ions
A

1a. Endolymph 1b. High
2a. Perilymph 2b. Low

315
Q

At high temperatures (43ºC) or when in contact with capsaicin, the _________
channel is activated.

A

TRP-V1

316
Q

If nociceptors are activated following a sharp cut to your skin, information on the first pain
will likely travel to the brain from via (a) ________ fibers along the (b) ____________ tract

A

a. Ad fibers b. Neospinothalamic tract

317
Q

In a hair cell of the inner ear, what is the name for a type of chemical synapse in which
numerous synaptic vesicles are arranged around a central electron dense structure that can tether 100
or more vesicles ready to be released?

A

Ribbon Synapse

318
Q

Occlusion:

A

a cue relative to depth order in which one object obstructs the view of part of
another object. If an object is closer to you, it will obstruct your view of the object behind it

319
Q

Texture Gradient:

A

A depth cue based on the geometric fact that items of the same size form
smaller images when they are further away. So, our visual system assumes objects of
decreasing size are increasingly further away.

320
Q

Relative Height

A

A depth cue where objects further away will be seen as higher on the
image. So, the smaller image of a more distant object will be projected higher in your visual
field

321
Q

Aerial Perspective

A

a depth cue based on our implicit understanding that light is scattered
by the atmosphere. More light is scattered when we look through more atmosphere, so
objects farther away are subject to more scatter and appear fainter and less distinct

322
Q

Linear Perspective

A

depth cue based on the fact that lines that are parallel in the 3D world
will appear to converge in a 2D image as they extend into the distance towards a vanishing
point

323
Q

What is the term for an auditory distance cue based on the sound absorbing qualities of
air, which dampen high frequencies more than low frequencies?

A

Spectral Composition

Neurobiology (4 decks)

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