Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

z F1: Phys Chem > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Periodic Table flashcards Chemistry 101 flashcards AP® Chemistry flashcards Organic Chemistry 101 flashcards
1
Q

Closing and opening the vestibule in voltage gated mechanisms are by what

A

Voltage sensors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are three common ions in chemically gated channels

A

Na
K
Ca

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Nicotinic if AcChRs are _________ and binds two ACh molecules which opens the channel. All 5 subunits contribute to forming the ion channel

A

Pentamers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the three states of channels

A

Resting (closed)
Open
Desensitized (closed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the 4 important second messengers

A

Ca
cAMP
DAG
IP3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 6 important classes of receptors

A

GCPR
Receptor Tyrosine Kinases
Receptor guanyl kinases
Chemically gated ion Chanel’s
Nuclear steroid hormone receptor
Adhesion receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many receptors are in GCPRs

A

Several hundred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are GCPRs used for

A

Mediate signaling by photons, odorants, tastants, hormones, NTs, inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What receptor responds to the “stress hormone” epinephrine, and initiates the “flight or fight” response

A

Beta-adrenergic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What does Gs do

A

Beta-adrenergic R
Stimulate Adenylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does Gi/o do

A

a2-adrenergic R
Inhibit adenylate cyclase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does Gq/11 do

A

some muscarinic ach Rs
a1-adrenergic R muscle contraction
Increase IP3 and intracellular calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does G12/13 do

A

Angiotensin II, serotonin, thrombin
Activates RhoGEF -> Rhokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PLC generates ____ and _____ from PIP2

A

IP3 and DAG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What kind of receptor is insulin

A

Tyrosine Kinase Receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the name of the GTP-binding protein that is activated by the insulin receptor

A

IRS-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the three members of families of kinases

A

MEK
Raf-1
ERK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are nucleic acids made out of

A

sugar
phosphate
base

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What bond link sugars together

A

Phosphodiester bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What makes DNA more stable than RNA

A

DNA has an H on the 2’ instead of an OH like RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Nucleic acids are always written and read in what direction

A

5’ to 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is on the 5’ end of a nucleic acid and what is on the 3’ end

A

5’ : Phosphate
3’ : Hydroxyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How many rings do purines have and which bases are present

A

2 rings
A and G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How many rings do pyrimidines have and which bases are present

A

1 rings
T, U, and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the difference between a nucleotide and a nucleoside

A

nucleotide: phosphate
nucleoside: no phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Watson and Crick model of DNA structure

A

Double helix
Stands run in opposite directions
Phosphates point outwards and bases point inward
Have major and minor grooves
~10 bases per turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is chargaff rule

A

Amount of A = amount of T
Amount of C = amount of G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What stabilizes a helix

A

Hydrogen bonds
Base Stacking
Hydrophobic Interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why does DNA have major and minor grooves

A

N-glycosidic bonds between the bases and sugar do not point into exactly opposite diections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A-form: handedness, shape, groove, occurrence

A

handedness: Right-handed
shape: Broad
minor: Deep but narrow
major: Shallow and broad
occurrence: Double-stranded RNA, some DNA-RNA hybrids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

B-form: handedness, shape, groove, occurrence

A

handedness: right-handed
shape: intermediate
major: deep and wide
minor: deep and narrow
occurrence: very common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Z-form: handedness, shape, groove, occurrence

A

handedness: left-handed
shape: narrowest
major: flat
minor: deep and narrow
occurrence: rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Physical characteristics of DNA

A

Melting: separates strands by using heat
Anneal: cooling allows strands to come back together
Absorbance at 260nm if single strand is higher than A260 of double strand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If there is sequences similarity between two samples duplexes between DNA1 and DNA2 will form also called ________

A

Hybrids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hybridization increases with _____________ similarity between DNA1 and DNA2

A

sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Palindromic sequences form __________ when single stranded and cruciforms when double stranded

A

hairpins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

RNA structure

A

Single-stranded
Helical
Can form double helix with RNA or DNA
Self-complementary regions of DNA usually exist in the right-handed A-form
Unpaired nucleotides form bulges or internal loops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the sequence of information processing in genetic copying

A

DNA -> RNA -> Protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The base complementary of the double helix allows each strand to act as a _________ for the synthesis of the other

A

template

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the nucleophile and electrophile in the nucleotides

A

3’ - OH acts as the nucleophile which attacks the alpha phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

_____ encodes the sequence of proteins and then ____ is used as an intermediate produced by transcription

A

DNA
RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the three sequences of strands when creating new genetic informaiton

A

mRNA (5’-GCU-3’)
template DNA (3’CGA-5’)
coding DNA (5’-GCT-3’)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What starts transcription

A

-DNA bind the RNA polymerase enzyme and direct it to the start site
-The promoter directs RNA polymerase to start synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How is transcription ceased

A

-Repressor bind promoter sequence and block transcription (operator sites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the start codon for prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

A

prokaryotic: fMeT
eukaryotic: H2N-Met

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the 5 characteristics of the genetic code

A

3 nucleotides encode 1 AA
Codons are read sequentially
Genetic code is degenerate (some AA have more than one codon)
Genetic Code contains start and stop signals for protein synthesis
Genetic code is universal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What encapsulates the genetic code

A

tRNA

48
Q

Each tRNA contains a template recognition site an _________ and carried one specific amino acid

A

Anticodon

49
Q

What is polycistronic

A

More than one protein are encoded by a single mRNA

50
Q

What is monocistronic

A

mRNA encodes for one AA
Have a cap and poly A tail
Eukaryotes

51
Q

The non-coding intervening sequences are called what

A

Introns

52
Q

What is recombinant DNA technology

A

Segments of DNA are detected, rearranged, added, deleted, introduced into the genomes of other cells

53
Q

What are 4 important products if recombinant DNA technology that are in therapeutic use

A

Human insulin
Therapeutic growth factors
Therapeutic monoclonal antibodies
Blood clotting factors
Therapeutic interferons
Vaccines

54
Q

What are the 6 steps of cloning

A

-Vector carding piece of DNA
-Cutting DNA of interest using restriction endonueases
-Joining two pieces of DNA covalently
-Introducing recombinant DNA into a host cell
-Selectivity propagating transformed cells
-Identifying host cells that contain recombinant DNA

55
Q

If two pieces of DNA were cleaved with the same restriction enzyme they can be ___________

A

Recombined

56
Q

What do vectors do

A

They allow a piece of DNA to be propagated

57
Q

What are plasmids

A

Cloning vectors
Occur in bacteria
Exchanged between bacteria
Extrachromosomal circular DNA
Self-replicating
Resistance to antibiotic drug

58
Q

pBR has _____ antibiotic resistance genes, inserting a gene into one of them will disrupt its antibiotic resistance

A

two

59
Q

Bacteria that contains a plasmid is sensitive to what and if it does not contain a plasmid it is sensitive to what

A

with: sensitive to Amp and Tet
w/o: sensitive to Amp

60
Q

What is a bacteriophage

A

viruses that infect bacteria

61
Q

What is bacteria artificial chromosomes (BAC)

A

circular pieces of DNA and contain bacterial origin of replication

62
Q

What are yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC)

A

used to introduce DNA into yeast cells as hosts

63
Q

Rank the size of bacteriophage, bacteria artificial chromosomes (BAC), yeast artificial chromosomes (YAC)

A

bacteriophage < BAC < YAC

64
Q

Mammalian genes contain _______ and cannot be processed by bacteria

A

introns

65
Q

what is cDNA

A

complementary DNA

66
Q

If a mixture of mRNA is used as a starting material, a library of _______ can be made

A

cDNA

67
Q

What is southern blotting

A

use DNA to probe / detect DNA

68
Q

What is northern blotting

A

use nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) to probe / detect RNA

69
Q

What is western blotting

A

use antibodies to detect proteins

70
Q

What ingredients are needed for di-dioxy-sequencing

A

DNA template
DNA polymerase
Primer
dNTPs
ddNTPs

71
Q

What is the process of ddNTP sequencing

A

-3’-OH of ribose attacks alpha phosphate of next nucleotide for chain elongation
-ddNTPs lack the 3’-OH when ddNTPs are used and reaction stops

72
Q

How much variations is found in human genomes

A

0.1%

73
Q

Groups of genes inherited together are called

A

Haplotypes

74
Q

Oligonucleotides up to ______ long can be synthesized

A

120 bp

75
Q

What are the ingredients of PCR reaction

A

Amplified DNA
Primers
Nucleotides
Tac Polymerase
Thermocycler (PCR machine)

76
Q

What are the three steps in the cycle of PCR

A

Strand separation (highest temp)
Annealing of primers (lowest temp)
DNA synthesis (intermediate temp)

77
Q

What is RT-PCR

A

Reverse transcriptase using mRNA to get cDNA

78
Q

What is the procedure of site directed mutagenesis

A

Grow plasmid containing gene
Isolate plasmid
Separate strands of plasmid
Hybridize strands
Synthesize strands
Introduce DNA into bacteria clone
Harvest plasmid with mutated gene

79
Q

In E. Coli what is the start site

A

Ori C

80
Q

How many origins of replication are in eukaryotes

A

multiple

81
Q

4 processes of pre-priming complex

A

DnaA binding to OriC
helicase DnaB separates strands
DNA topoisomerase II relieving topological stress
Primase DnaG synthesizing RNA primer

82
Q

What does helicase do

A

separates strands

83
Q

What does DNA polymerase do

A

proofreading activity

84
Q

What does RNA polymerase do

A

can start process without a primer

85
Q

What does primase do

A

RNA primer to start DNA synthesis

86
Q

What are Okazaki fragments

A

they help lagging strand by being small pieces so it can start backwards

87
Q

What does single strand binding proteins do (SSB)

A

separation of strands generates naked single strand which are protected by that

88
Q

What does DNA polymerase I do

A

removal RNA and replacement with DNA

89
Q

5’ -> 3’ endonuclease activity

A

remove bases in forward direction

90
Q

3’ -> 5’ endonuclease activity

A

remove bases in backward direction for proofreading

91
Q

What does DNA topoisomerase II do

A

relieves topological stress produced by strand seperation

92
Q

What does ligase do

A

joins together the gaps between Okazaki fragments

93
Q

The synthesis of leading and lagging strands are synthesized by two subunits in the same direction how does this work

A

The lagging strand is looped around to align with the leading strand

94
Q

When does termination of DNA replication occur

A

When the two replication forks meet ter sites

95
Q

In eukaryotes DNA is what

A

linear (causing shortening of DNA in synthesis)

96
Q

What are telomeres and what do they do

A

Consist of repetitive DNA
Telomerase is reverse transcriptase and uses its own terminal RNA template

97
Q

Similarities between RNA synthesis and DNA replication

A

RNA made 5’ to 3’
Nucleophilic attack of 3’-OH on 5’-phosphate of incoming base
DNA strands must be opened to synthesize

98
Q

Differences between RNA synthesis and DNA replication

A

No primer required
No proofreading occurs

99
Q

What enzyme catalyzes RNA synthesis

A

RNA polymerase

100
Q

What are the three stages of transcription

A

Initation
Elongation
Termination

101
Q

What are two ways in which termination can occur

A

dependent on rho protein or independent of rho proteins

102
Q

What are the key differences between eukaryotic and prokaryotic transcription

A

-Eukaryotes have a nucleus
-Eukaryotes transcription in nucleus, prokaryotes in cytosol
-Eukaryotes transcription and translation are separated in space and time which allows mRNA to be modified
-Prokaryotes transcription and translation occur in the same compartment simultaneously

103
Q

Which eukaryotic RNA polymerase synthesizes mRNA

A

Type 2

104
Q

Initial binding of transcription factors leads first to the formation of a _______ complex

A

Closed

105
Q

Proteins with help add activity facilitate the formation of a transcription bubble causing a __________ complex

A

Open

106
Q

What is the complex order for initiation

A

Closed -> open -> elongation complex

107
Q

Pol II has a ______________ domain that becomes phosphorylated during transcription initiation

A

Carboxyterminal this then forms a elongation complex

108
Q

What are the 4 processes in mRNA processing

A

5’ cap added
Introns spliced out
Poly A tail added
RNA editing at certain bases

109
Q

How is the 5’ cap added

A

5’ to 5’ linkage instead of 5’ to 3’ linkage

110
Q

Splicing is directed by __________ __________ and can occur either before or after the cleavage and polyadenylation steps

A

Splice signals

111
Q

Synthesis of the cap is carried out be enzymes tethered to the carboxyterminal domain of ________

A

POL II

112
Q

Most introns begin with a ___ and end with an _____

A

GU
AG

113
Q

U1 and U2 are RNA compounds of _________ which contain both RNA and proteins

A

snRNP (small nuclear ribonucleoproteins)

114
Q

The 2’-OH of the A in the branch site is the attacking __________ in the first reaction. It attacks the phosphorus at 3’-OH of G at the 5’ splice site. This process yields the loop intermediate called what

A

Nucleophile
Lariate intermediate

115
Q

The complex of mRNA and snRNP is known as a ____________

A

Splicesome

z F1: Phys Chem (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions