Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NUR-210 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is ventilation

A
  • inflow & outflow of air from the aveoli
  • chest wall movement
  • work of breathing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What drug is an example of oral steroid therapy?

A

Cortisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the general uses of oral steroid therapies like cortisone?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis
systemic lupus erythematosus
inflammatory bowel disease
allergies
prevention of allograft rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is compliance referring to ineffective airway slearance

A
  • ability to expand bronchioles & let air in
  • ability to expand alveoli & bronchioles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Primary - anti-inflammatory uses for cortisone?

A

Immunosuppressive actions
sodium retention
potassium loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cortisone- Adverse Effects

A

-adrenal insufficiency
-osteoporosis
- infections
- diabetes
-muscle wasting
-cushing’s syndrome
-fluid retention
-growth retardation
-mood swings
-cataracts/glaucoma
-peptics ulcers
-hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Nursing interventions for cortisone Adverse effects

A

-monitor K+ levels, blood sugars, fluid retention, osteoporosis,
gastric ulcers, infection
-nursing actions- increase k+ intake, prevent infection, increase calcium intake
- teaching- DO NOT STOP ABRUPTLY, inform ab mood swings, take with food, no NSAIDS, may need to increase dose during times of increased physiological stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What factors affect compliance?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What factors affect ventilation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is diffusion

A

movement of gases from GREATER pressure to DECREASED pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What factors affect diffusion

A
  • decreased surface area
  • thickness of alveoli membrane
  • perfusion to the alveoli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a methylxanthine?

A

bronchodilator that relaxes smooth muscle of bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe transportation of Co2 & Co2

A

O2 combines w/ hemoglobin & carried to the tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What factors affect transportation of O2 & Co2

A
  • decreased cardiac output
  • decreased hemoglobin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are you looking for when you are assessing respiratory status

A

chest wall expansion, breathing pattern & lung sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Considerations for methylxanthine administration

A

remember caffeine is in this category (their cousin)
-not administered by inhalation, not active via this route
- theophylline: oral
-aminophylline: IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Symptoms of acute hypoxia

A

vital sign changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is total lung volume

A

volume of air the lungs can move

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is total lung capacity

A

how much more air you can get in if you try

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the narrow TI (therapeutic index) and toxicity of methylxanthines?

A

don’t give very often due to narrow TI

NTI: plasma level 10-20mcg/ml, as low as 5 mcg/ml
toxicity: above 30 mcg can have arrhythmias& seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an xray looking for

A
  • fluid in chest
  • mass
  • broken ribs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is normal body flora?

A

bacteria inhibit healthy humans- bowel, upper respiratory, skin, vaginal vault

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the lung scans?

A

CT, VT - airflow & blood flow in lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a lung scan looking for

A

embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is and endoscopy

A
  • pt sedated
  • scope down trachea w/ camera - diagnostic or therapeutic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is thoracentesis

A

removal of fluid in pleural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are ABGs (arterial blood gases) drawn for

A

to see how much oxygen & carbon are in the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are Sputum Specimens

A
  • collected in AM
  • before eating
  • looking for bacteria causing the issue to see if theres an infection
  • can do sensitivity - which antibiotics to give pt
  • hard to obtain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the expected range of pulse oximentry

A

95-100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is an acceptable level of pulse oximetry

A

91-100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What affects a pulse ox reading

A
  • temp of pt
  • nail polish
  • poor perfusion to extremities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If pulse ox is below 91& what interventions should the nurse do

A
  • check the pt
  • check the sensor
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Nursing interventions for Respiratory System

A
  • monitor & check S&S of hypoxia
  • check lung sounds
  • do diagnostic tests
  • check breathing pattern
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are the lines of defense against infection?

A
  • individual immunity
  • nutrition
  • anatomical
  • biochemical
  • mechanical
  • immune system status
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is white blood cell function in infections?

A

WBC (leukocyte) = 6,000-9,000
neutrophils: first acute infections within 24hr
eosinophils: allergies
basophils: healing
Lymphocytes: late (weeks)
Monocytes: chronic (months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the local reaction for an inflammatory (itis) reaction?

A

redness& warmth, edema, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What percentage is an emergency for pulse ox

A

below 86%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What percentage is life threatening for pulse ox

A

below 80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Nursing actions for the Respiratory System

A
  • airway maintenance : open airway
  • positioning pt: ambulate, elevate HOB
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What pt teaching would you do to a patient who has decreased breathing pattern/lung sounds

A
  • stop smoking
  • do breathing exercises
  • increased effective cough
  • med usage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the major causes of airway obstruction

A
  • bronchial smooth muscle contraction
  • mucous hypersecretion
  • inflammation
  • infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Meds that improve respiratory function

A
  • antibiotics to treat bacterial infections
  • bronchodilators
  • glucocorticoid steroids
43
Q

Bronchodilators: Beta-2 agonists

A

Route: metered dosed inhaler (MDI), nebulizer

MOA:
- dilate the bronchi for increased airflow

“RELIVERS”
- short acting beta agonists (SABA): albuterol (Ventolin)
“CONTROLLERS”
- long acting beta agonists (LABA): salmeterol (Serevent)

Think B for BUTEROL for Brutal asthma attack

ADR: 3 T’s
tachycardia, tremor, tossing & turning

44
Q

Glucocorticoids routes

A

oral, IV, inhaled

45
Q

Inhaled Glucocorticoids

A

MOA:
- suppress bronchial inflammatory response
- decrease airway mucus production

ADR:
- oropharyngeal candidiasis
- dysphonia (hoarseness)

46
Q

Patient education for inhaled glucocorticoids

A
  • gargle after EACH admin
  • use a spacer
  • calcium supplement
47
Q

Spacer Device Impact on Inhaled Med

A

WITH spacer
57% inhaler device
22% mouth & throat
21% lungs

WithOUT spacer
10% inhaler device
81% mouth & throat
9% lungs

48
Q

Define diffusion

A

exchange of oxygen & carbon dioxide from alveoli & RBC in the blood

49
Q

Define perfusion

A

exchange of oxygen & carbon dioxide between RBC & tissues

50
Q

What are the top 5 causes of antibiotic treatment failure

A
  1. wrong diagnosis
  2. resistance of pathogens
  3. defective immune system of host
  4. wrong dose or dosing interval (dose not high enough or interval not long enough)
  5. interference of antibiotic absorption
51
Q

-itis means

A

inflammation

52
Q

LOCAL inflammatory reaction S&S

A
  • redness
  • warmth
  • edema
  • pain
53
Q

SYSTEMIC inflammatory reaction

A
  • leukocytosis
  • general malaise & fatigue
  • fever
  • confusion especially in older adults
  • enlarged lymph nodes
54
Q

What are health care associated infections caused by?

A
  • invasive provedures
  • antibiotic admin
  • exposure to mutidrug resistant organisms
  • failure to adhere to infection
  • prevention control activities
55
Q

What were health care associated infections previously called

A
  • nosocomial or health care acquired infections
56
Q

How do you select antibiotics

A
  • identify the organism
  • drug sensitivity of organism
  • host factors
  • allergy
  • penetration to site of infection
57
Q

General Principles of Antibiotic Therapy

A
  • obtain cultures before starting antibiotic
  • given at regular intervals
  • continue even when symptoms subside
58
Q

Nursing Interventions for Antibiotic Therapy

A
  • monitor for allergic reactions
  • monitor renal funtion
  • observe for superainfection
  • check for oral contraception use
59
Q

Types of penicillin allergy

A
  • immediate: will occur in 2-30 mins
  • accelerated: will occur in 1-72 hrs
  • late: will occur in days or weeks
60
Q

Treatment for a Penicillin allergy

A
  • stop the med
  • respiratory support

Meds: epinephrine & antihistamines

61
Q

MOA Peni”cillins”

A
  • bactericidal
  • weaken cell wall
  • prone to bacterial resistance
62
Q

MOA Cephalosporins (CEF-)

A
  • Beta-lactam antibiotics/bactericidal
  • similar to penicillin structure
  • grouped in 4 generations
63
Q

ADRs for Cephalosporin

A
  • allergy
  • bleeding
  • thrombophlebitis
64
Q

MOA Tetracyclines (-cyclines_

A
  • BROAD spectrum antibiotic
  • bacterialstatic
65
Q

Absorption elements for Tetracyclines

A
  • calcium
  • iron
  • magnesium
  • aluminum
  • zinc
66
Q

ADRs for Tetracyclines

A
  • photosensitivity
  • stained teeth
  • contradicted in pregnant women & children less than 8 yrs old
67
Q

MOA Macrolides

A
  • BROAD spectrum antibiotic
  • use if allergic to penicillin
68
Q

ADRs for Macrolides

A
  • erythromycin
  • GI
  • CYP3!4: liver injury
69
Q

MOA Aminoglycosides (mycin)

A
  • NARROW spectrum antibiotic
  • bactericidal
70
Q

Whats the typical use for Aminoglysides

A
  • aerobic gram-negative bacilli
71
Q

ADRs for Aminoglycosides

A
  • nephrotoxicity
  • ototoxicity
72
Q

MOA Sulfonamides & Trimethoprim (Bactrim)

A
  • BROAD spectrum antibiotic
  • suppress bacterial growth
  • inhibiting of folic acid
73
Q

Whats the typical use for Sulfonamides & Trimethoprim (Bactrim)

A
  • UTIs caused by E.Coli
  • community acquired MRSA (CA-MRSA)
74
Q

ADRs for Sulfonamides & Trimethoprim (Bactrim)

A
  • hypersensitivity reactions
  • blood dycrasias
  • rash
75
Q

What will you monitor with aminoglycosides (-mycin)

A
  • blood levels (peak & trough)
76
Q

Types of Aminoglycosides

A
  • genta micin (Garamycin)
  • tobra mycin (Nebcin)
  • netil micin ( Netromycin)
  • neo mycin
  • kana mycin (Kantrex)
  • strepto mycin
77
Q

Classification of Cephalosporins

A

1st Gen: Gram +
- CEFazolin (aNcef)

2nd Gen: Gram +/-
- CEFacllor (Ceclor)

3rd Gen: Gram -/+
CEFoperazone (Cefobid)

4th Gen: Gram +
- CEFepine (Maxipime)

78
Q

Antibiotics treat what

A

bacterial infections

79
Q

Asthma appears when

A

it is triggered by an allergen

80
Q

What med is for a chronic condition & whats the time it takes for it to take effect

A
  • long acting beta agonists (LABA)
    30-60 mins
81
Q

What med is for acute condition & whats the time it takes to take effect

A

short acting beat agonists (SABA)
15 mins

82
Q

What other med should ppl take if they are prescribed a glucocorticoid

A

calcium since it promotes bone loss

83
Q

Why should a spacer be used

A

more med can reach your lungs instead of your mouth

84
Q

Why no NSAIDs if someone is on a steroid

A

b/c it increases gastric irritation

85
Q

What is normal body flora

A

probiotic
health bacteria

86
Q

What kills normal body flora (good bacteria)

A

antibiotics

87
Q

What should you take if you take an antibiotic

A

probiotic or something like yogurt

88
Q

Whats a microorganism

A

microorganism that can cause a disease

89
Q

What cell is part of a CBC

A

leukocytes

90
Q

If you have LESS than 6,000 WBC you have

A

leukopenia

91
Q

If you have MORE than 9,000 WBC you have

A

leukocytosis

92
Q

What do monocytes do

A

clean the site

93
Q

What factors increased your changes of being a compromised host

A
  • medical conditions: HIV, cancer, AIDS,
  • stress: cortisol levels increase…so does glucose
  • age
  • heredity
  • nutritional deficiencies
94
Q

What do you do when a pt has an infection

A

targeting the pathogens
getting a culture

95
Q

Nursing Interventions for infections

A

-Monitor
- LOC
- decreased immune response
- increase

96
Q

Define bacteriocidal

A
  • kill/destroy bacteria
  • lisis of the cell wall menbrane
97
Q

Define bacteriostatic

A

limits growth of bacteria & body does the rest (growth suppression)

98
Q

Define narrow spectrum antibiotic

A

affects SINGLE bacteria

99
Q

Define specific spectrum antibiotic

A

affects VARIETY of bacteria

100
Q

What differentiates gram + from gram -

A

gram - has an extra membrane meaning its harder to kill

101
Q

How long should be extra careful with conception use while on antibiotics

A
  • while on the antibiotic
  • 7 consecutive days after med has been finished
102
Q

Which generation of Cephalosporins can reach CSF

A

4th generation

103
Q

As you go further down in generations of Cephalosporins…

A

the less effective they are with gram+

104
Q

What med should you not mix with penicillin

A

aminoglycosides

NUR-210 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions