EXAM 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

the synthesis of proteins as directed by mRNA templates

A

Translation of mRNA

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2
Q

Translation of mRNA is _____ in the formation of a functional protein.

A

the first step

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3
Q

____________ must fold into appropriate conformations and often undergo various processing steps, sorting, and transport.

A

Polypeptide chains

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4
Q

Gene expression is regulated at the level of _________ in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

A

translation

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5
Q

these ultimately regulate all aspects of cell behavior

A

intracellular proteins

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6
Q

polypeptide chains are synthesized from the __________ to the ___________

A

amino; carboxy terminus

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7
Q

Each amino acid has:

A

3 bases - a codon in the mRNA

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8
Q

tRNAs align amino acids with corresponding _________________________

A

codons on the mRNA template

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9
Q

They are 70–80 nucleotides long and have characteristic cloverleaf structures.

A

tRNAs

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10
Q

All tRNAs fold into:

A

compact L shapes.

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11
Q

Which sequence is at the 3’ terminus

A

CCA

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12
Q

This binds to the appropriate codon by complementary base pairing.

A

anticodon

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13
Q

Attachment of amino acids to specific tRNAs by these enzymes

A

aminoacyl tRNA synthetases.

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14
Q

Each of ___ enzymes recognizes a single amino acid, and correct tRNA.

A

20

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15
Q

Attachment of amino acids to tRNAs occurs in two steps:

A
  1. Amino acid join AMP – form aminoacyl AMP.
  2. Amino acid is transferred to the 3′ CCA terminus of the tRNA and AMP is released.
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16
Q

The amino acid is aligned on the mRNA template by:

A

complementary base pairing.

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17
Q

most amino acids are specified by: (how many codons)

A

more than one

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18
Q

____ different tRNAs for the 20 different amino acids.

A

40

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19
Q

Some tRNAs can recognize more than one mRNA codon, as a result of:

A

nonstandard base pairing (wobble) at the 3rd codon position.

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20
Q

Nonstandard base pairing allows G to pair with __, and inosine (I) to pair with ________.

A

U; U, C or A

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21
Q

Ribosomes are named according to their:

A

sedimentation rates in ultra-centrifugation

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22
Q

bacterial ribosome name

A

70S

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23
Q

eukaryotic ribosome name

A

80S

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24
Q

Amount of ribosomes in growing mammalian cells

A

ten million

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25
Q

Ribosomes have _____ subunits

A

Two

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26
Q

Ribosomal subunits contain:

A

rRNA and proteins

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27
Q

rRNA is responsible for:

A

catalyzing peptide bond formation

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28
Q

The large ribosomal subunit functions as a

A

ribozyme.

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29
Q

mRNAs have noncoding __________ at the ends.

A

untranslated regions (UTRs)

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30
Q

Most eukaryote mRNAs are _________, encoding a single protein.

A

mono-cistronic

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31
Q

Prokaryotic mRNAs are often _________, encoding multiple proteins, each of which is translated from an independent start site.

A

poly-cistronic

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32
Q

In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, translation always starts with:

A

Methionine (encoded by AUG)

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33
Q

Initiation codons in bacterial mRNAs are preceded by a ______________, that aligns the mRNA on the ribosome.

A

Shine-Dalgarno sequence

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34
Q

Eukaryotic mRNAs are recognized by __________________ at the 5′ terminus.

A

the 7-methylguanosine cap

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35
Q

3 stages of translation:

A
  1. Initiation
  2. Elongation
  3. Termination
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36
Q

First step of translation initiation

A

a specific initiator methionyl tRNA and the mRNA bind to the small ribosomal subunit.

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37
Q

Second step of translation initiation

A

The large ribosomal unit then joins, forming a functional ribosome.

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38
Q

A group of ribosomes bound to an mRNA molecule

A

polysome

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39
Q

In eukaryotes initiation is complex, and requires at least ____ proteins, designated eIFs (eukaryotic initiation factors).

A

12

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40
Q

The initiator methionyl tRNA is bound to ____ and the mRNA is brought to the complex by ______.

A

eIF2
eIF4E

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41
Q

Ribosome scan down the mRNA to identify:

A

AUG initiation codon

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42
Q

When AUG is identified, ____ triggers the hydrolysis of GTP bound to _____.

A

eIF5
eIF2

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43
Q

Initiation factors are released, and the ____ subunit joins the complex.

A

60S

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44
Q

In elongation, these are the 3 binding sites on the ribosome:

A

Peptidyl (P)
Aminoacyl (A)
Exit (E)

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45
Q

The initiator methionyl tRNA is bound at the ____ site.

A

P

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46
Q

The next aminoacyl tRNA binds to the ____ site

A

A

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47
Q

Which elongation factor brings the aminoacyl tRNA to the ribosome?

A

eEF1α

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48
Q

Translocation (3 steps)

A
  1. Ribosome moves three nucleotides along the mRNA, positioning the next codon in an empty A site.
  2. This step translocates the peptidyl tRNA from A to P, and the uncharged tRNA from P to E.
  3. A new aminoacyl tRNA binds to the A site and induces release of the uncharged tRNA from the E site.
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49
Q

Translocation requires another elongation factor _______ and is coupled to GTP hydrolysis.

A

eEF2

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50
Q

As elongation continues, the eEF1α (or EF-Tu) released from the ribosome bound to GDP must be:

A

reconverted to its GTP form.

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51
Q

Regulation of eEF1α by GTP binding and hydrolysis is a common method of:

A

protein regulation.

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52
Q

Elongation continues until a _______ is translocated into the A site.

A

stop codon

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53
Q

examples of stop codon sequences

A

UAA
UAG
UGA

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54
Q

___________ recognize the signals and terminate protein synthesis.

A

Release factors

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55
Q

Some translational repressors bind to:

A

specific sequences in the 3′ UTR.

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56
Q

Some translational repressors bind to initiation factor _____, interfering with its interaction with eIF4G and inhibiting initiation of translation.

A

eIF4E

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57
Q

mediated by short double-stranded RNAs, this is used as an experimental tool to block gene expression at the level of translation.

A

RNAi (RNA interference)

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58
Q

RNA interference is mediated by: (2 things)

A

siRNAs produced from double stranded RNAs
miRNAs transcribed by RNA polymerase II

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59
Q

Most miRNAs form:

A

mismatches that repress translation.

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60
Q

siRNAs generally pair perfectly with their targets and induce:

A

cleavage of the mRNA.

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61
Q

These are important in embryonic development, and may play a role to cancer and other diseases.

A

miRNAs

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62
Q

Translation can also be regulated by:

A

modification of initiation factors

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63
Q

Phosphorylation of eIF2 and eIF2B by _______ blocks the exchange of bound GDP for GTP, inhibiting initiation of translation.

A

regulatory protein kinases

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64
Q

In the absence of growth factors, the nonphosphorylated 4E-BPs bind to _____ and inhibit translation.

A

eIF4E

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65
Q

Polypeptide chains must undergo folding and other modifications to become:

A

functional proteins.

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66
Q

3-D protein conformation results from interactions between:

A

the side chains of the amino acids.

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67
Q

act as catalysts that assist the self-assembly process without becoming part of the folded protein.

A

Chaperones

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68
Q

Chaperones bind to and stabilize:

A

unfolded or partially folded polypeptides intermediates.

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69
Q

Chaperones bind to polypeptide chains that are:

A

still being translated on ribosomes.

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70
Q

The chain must be protected from ___________ until synthesis of an entire domain is complete.

A

aberrant folding or aggregation with other proteins

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71
Q

Chaperones also stabilize ___________ during their transport into organelles.

A

unfolded polypeptide chains

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72
Q

Many chaperones were initially identified as ____________, expressed in cells subjected to high temperatures.

A

heat-shock proteins (Hsp)

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73
Q

Hsp70 proteins stabilize polypeptide chains during translation by binding to:

A

short hydrophobic segments.

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74
Q

The polypeptide is then transferred to a _______, where folding takes place

A

chaperonin

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75
Q

Chaperonins consist of:

A

subunits arranged in 2 stacked rings to form a double-chambered structure.

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76
Q

Chaperonin structure isolates the protein from:

A

the cytosol and other unfolded proteins.

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77
Q

catalyzes disulfide bond formation and is abundant in the ER, where an oxidizing environment allows (S—S) linkages.

A

Protein disulfide isomerase (PDI)

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78
Q

catalyzes isomerization of peptide bonds that involve proline residues.

A

Peptidyl prolyl isomerase

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79
Q

Isomerization between the cis and trans configurations of prolyl-peptide bonds could otherwise be a ________ in protein folding.

A

rate-limiting step

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80
Q

Process where cleavage of the polypeptide chain removes portions such as the initiator methionine from the amino terminus.

A

Proteolysis

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81
Q

Proteolytic processing includes formation of ________ by cleavage of larger precursors.

A

active enzymes or hormones

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82
Q

Example of proteolytic processing

A

Insulin is synthesized as a precursor polypeptide that goes through 2 cleavages to produce the mature insulin.

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83
Q

Most enzymes are controlled by changes in conformation, often as a result of:

A

binding small molecules.

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84
Q

Small molecule regulation is common in controlling metabolic pathways by:

A

feedback inhibition.

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85
Q

GDP- bound form of protein is:

A

Inactive

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85
Q

GTP- bound form of protein is:

A

Active

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85
Q

The regulation of translation factors such as ______ by GTP binding is a common mechanism of by which the activities of intracellular proteins are controlled.

A

eEF1α

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85
Q

_________ is reversible; can activate or inhibit proteins in response to environmental signals.

A

Phosphorylation

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86
Q

Phosphorylation is catalyzed by _________, which transfer phosphate groups from ATP to the hydroxyl groups of side chains of serine, threonine, or tyrosine.

A

protein kinases

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87
Q

Phosphorylation is reversed by __________, which catalyze hydrolysis of phosphorylated amino acids.

A

protein phosphatases

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88
Q

Protein kinases are often components of:

A

signal transduction pathways.

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89
Q

Sequential action of a series of protein kinases can transmit a signal from the cell surface to target proteins in the cell, resulting in:

A

changes in cell behavior in response to environmental stimuli.

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90
Q

Interactions between ________ can regulate protein activity.

A

protein subunits

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91
Q

cAMP-dependent protein kinase components

A

2 regulatory subunits
2 catalytic subunits

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92
Q

cAMP acts as an ________ by altering protein-protein interactions.

A

allosteric regulator

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93
Q

Protein levels in cells are determined by:

A

rates of synthesis and rates of degradation.

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94
Q

Many regulatory proteins have _______; this allows levels to change quickly in response to external stimuli.

A

short half lives

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95
Q

The major pathway of protein degradation in eukaryotes

A

ubiquitin-proteasome pathway.

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96
Q

attached to the amino group of the side chain of a lysine residue, then more are added to form a chain.

A

Ubiquitin

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97
Q

The specificity of ________ selectively targets proteins for degradation.

A

E3 enzymes

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98
Q

These are recognized and degraded by a large protease complex, the proteasome.

A

Polyubiquinated proteins

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99
Q

4 stages of Mitosis

A
  1. Prophase
  2. Metaphase
  3. Anaphase
  4. Telophase
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100
Q

Many proteins that control fundamental cellular processes are targets for:

A

regulated ubiquitylation and proteolysis.

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101
Q

Example of regulated ubiquitylation and proteolysis

A

Cyclins regulate progression through the division cycle of eukaryotic cells.

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102
Q

separates the nuclear contents from the cytoplasm

A

Nuclear envelope

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103
Q

The nuclear envelope controls traffic of _______ through nuclear pore complexes, and plays a critical role in regulating gene expression.

A

proteins and RNAs

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104
Q

The nuclear envelope consists of: (3 things)

A

2 nuclear membranes
Nuclear lamina
Nuclear pore complexes

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105
Q

The outer membrane of the nuclear envelope is continuous with:

A

endoplasmic reticulum (ER).

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106
Q

The inner membrane of the nuclear envelope has proteins that bind to the:

A

Nuclear lamina

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107
Q

Nuclear membranes are:

A

phospholipid bilayers

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108
Q

__________ are the only channels for small polar molecules, ions, and macromolecules.

A

Nuclear pore complexes

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109
Q

a fibrous mesh that provides structural support

A

Nuclear lamina

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110
Q

intermediate filament proteins that associate to form higher order structures.

A

lamins

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111
Q

Two lamins interact to form a:

A

dimer

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112
Q

the α-helical regions wind around each other to form a:

A

coil

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113
Q

_____________ associate with each other to form the lamina.

A

Lamin dimers

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114
Q

Lamins bind to:

A

Inner membrane proteins
Chromatin

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115
Q

________ are composed of about 30 different pore proteins (nucleoporins).

A

Nuclear pore complexes

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116
Q

RNAs synthesized in the nucleus must be exported to the ________ for protein synthesis.

A

cytoplasm

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117
Q

Proteins needed for nuclear functions must be imported from:

A

synthesis sites in the cytoplasm.

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118
Q

Molecules pass through pore complexes by two mechanisms:

A
  1. Small molecules and protein (<40kd) pass freely in either direction
  2. Proteins and RNAs are selectively transported; recognized by specific signals.
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119
Q

______ are connected to rings at the nuclear and cytoplasmic surfaces.

A

8 spokes

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120
Q

The spoke-ring assembly surrounds a:

A

central channel.

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121
Q

Proteins that must enter the nucleus have amino acid sequences called:

A

nuclear localization signals.

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122
Q

nuclear localization signals are recognized by:

A

nuclear transport receptors

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123
Q

The amino acid sequence responsible for nuclear localization was determined using:

A

T antigen mutants.

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124
Q

The T antigen nuclear localization signal is a single stretch of amino acids in rich basic amino acid residues – (2 types)

A

lysine and arginine.

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125
Q

The nuclear localization signal of ________ is bipartite, consisting of a Lys-Arg sequence, followed by a Lys-Lys-Lys-Lys sequence located ten amino acids farther downstream.

A

nucleoplasmin

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126
Q

Nuclear localization signals (NLS) are recognized by receptors called _______, which carry proteins through the nuclear pore complex.

A

importins

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127
Q

Importins work in conjunction with the GTP-binding protein _____, which controls directionality of movement.

A

Ran

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128
Q

Importins bind to the NLS of a protein, then to nuclear pore proteins and the complex is:

A

transported across the membrane.

129
Q

In the cytoplasm, Ran GAP ______ the GTP on Ran to GDP, releasing the importin.

A

hydrolyzes

130
Q

The Ran/GDP formed in the cytoplasm is then transported back to the nucleus by its own import receptor, where Ran/GTP is ________.

A

Regenerated

131
Q

Proteins are targeted for export by amino acid sequences called

A

nuclear export signals (NES).

132
Q

NES are recognized by receptors in the nucleus called ________, which direct protein transport to the cytoplasm.

A

exportins

133
Q

Many importins and exportins are members of a family of nuclear transport receptors known as:

A

karyopherins

134
Q

Exportins form stable complexes with ______ in association with Ran/GTP in the nucleus.

A

cargo proteins

135
Q

In the cytoplasm, GTP hydrolysis and release of Ran/GDP leads to:

A

dissociation of the cargo protein.

136
Q

Function of snRNA in nucleus

A

pre-mRNA splicing

137
Q

Function of snoRNA in nucleus

A

RNA processing

138
Q

Karyopherin exportins transport _________ in cytoplasm (3 RNA types)

A

tRNAs, rRNAs, miRNAs

139
Q

mRNA transport does not involve _______ and is independent of Ran.

A

karyopherins

140
Q

________ on the cytoplasm side releases the mRNA and ensures unidirectional transport.

A

helicase

141
Q

In the cytoplasm, the snRNAs associate with proteins to form ___________, which are recognized by an importin and transported back to the nucleus.

A

snRNPs

142
Q

Chromatin becomes highly _______ during mitosis to form the compact metaphase chromosomes.

A

condensed

143
Q

During interphase, most chromatin _______ and is distributed throughout the nucleus.

A

decondenses

144
Q

DNA replication and transcription take place in:

A

clustered regions.

145
Q

Each chromosome occupies a:

A

chromosome territory

146
Q

In interphase cells, the _______ is decondensed and transcriptionally-active, and is distributed throughout the nucleus.

A

euchromatin

147
Q

_________ is highly condensed and not transcribed, and is often associated with the nuclear envelope or periphery of the nucleolus.

A

Heterochromatin

148
Q

LADs

A

lamina-associated domains

149
Q

NADs

A

Nucleolus-associated domains

150
Q

DNA sequences found in NADs substantially ________ those in LADs.

A

overlap with

151
Q

Where does transcription occur?

A

Transcription factories (clustered sites)

152
Q

__________ genes may be transcribed in the same factory

A

Coregulated

153
Q

__________ are organelles within the nucleus that concentrate proteins and RNAs that function in specific nuclear process.

A

Nuclear bodies

154
Q

Nuclear bodies are not:

A

enclosed by membranes

155
Q

The _______ functions in rRNA synthesis and ribosome production.

A

nucleolus

156
Q

Transcription outside the nucleolus occurs by

A

RNA polymerase III

157
Q

Transcription inside the nucleolus occurs by

A

RNA polymerase I

158
Q

rRNA genes that make up nucleolar organizing regions

A

5.8S, 18S, 28S

159
Q

Nucleoli consists of three regions:

A

Fibrillar center
Dense fibrillar component
Granular component

160
Q

Components of ribosome formation: (3 things)

A

pre-rRNA
ribosomal proteins
5S rRNA.

161
Q

_________ are produced in the cytoplasm and imported to the nucleolus.

A

Ribosomal proteins

162
Q

_______ are transcribed outside of nucleolus and produced elsewhere in the nucleus.

A

5S rRNAs

163
Q

Pre-ribosomal particles are then exported to the cytoplasm, yielding the __________

A

40S and 60S ribosomal subunits.

164
Q

________ are involved in assembly of snRNPs and other RNA-protein complexes

A

Cajal bodies

165
Q

The enzyme for _________ is concentrated in Cajal bodies.

A

RNA methylation

166
Q

Following assembly and maturation in Cajal bodies, snRNPs are transferred to ________, which also contain splicing factors.

A

speckles

167
Q

Speckles are recruited to actively transcribed genes where _________ occurs.

A

pre-mRNA processing

168
Q

network of membrane-enclosed tubules and sacs (cisternae) - extends from nuclear membrane throughout cytoplasm.

A

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

169
Q

Rough ER

A

ribosomes on the outer surface.

170
Q

Smooth ER

A

lipid metabolism

171
Q

The secretory pathway (4 parts)

A

Rough ER > Golgi > secretory vesicles > outside of cell

172
Q

Proteins synthesized on ________ stay in the cytosol or are transported to the nucleus and other organelles.

A

free ribosomes

173
Q

Proteins synthesized on _______________ are translocated directly into the ER through translocon.

A

membrane-bound ribosomes

174
Q

Proteins move into the ER during their synthesis on membrane-bound ribosomes. (type of translocation)

A

Cotranslational translocation

175
Q

Proteins move into the ER after translation has been completed on free ribosomes. (type of translation)

A

Posttranslational translocation

176
Q

Ribosomes are targeted to the ER by a signal sequence at the _________ which is removed when the growing polypeptide chain enters the ER.

A

amino terminus

177
Q

The role of signal sequences in targeting proteins to correct locations was determined by in vitro preparations of:

A

Rough ER.

178
Q

Orientations vary—the amino (N) or the carboxy (C) terminus is on the _______ side

A

cytosolic

179
Q

The lumen of the ER is topologically equivalent to the:

A

exterior of the cell.

180
Q

Domains of membrane proteins that are exposed on the cell surface correspond to regions of _______ that are translocated into the ER lumen.

A

polypeptide chains

181
Q

Some proteins have an _______________ signal sequence cleaved by signal peptidase during translocation through translocon.

A

amino terminal

182
Q

a _____________________ in the middle of the protein halts translocation and anchors the polypeptide in the membrane.

A

transmembrane α helix

183
Q

The carboxy terminal portion of the growing polypeptide remains in the:

A

cytosol

184
Q

Many proteins are inserted directly into the ER membrane by:

A

internal transmembrane sequences.

185
Q

Internal transmembrane sequences are recognized by SRP, but not cleaved by ______________

A

signal peptidase.

186
Q

Proteins that span the membrane multiple times are inserted as a result of a series of transmembrane sequences with _______________ orientations.

A

alternating

187
Q

Protein folding and processing can occur here during translocation:
(2 places)

A

across the ER membrane or
within the ER lumen.

188
Q

The primary role of lumenal ER proteins is to
(2 functions)

A

assist folding
assembly of newly translocated polypeptides

189
Q

Formation of _______ bonds is important in protein folding.

A

disulfide

190
Q

In the cytosol, which is a ______ environment, most cysteine residues are in their reduced (—SH) state.

A

reducing

191
Q

In the ER, an _______ environment promotes disulfide (S—S) bond formation, facilitated by protein disulfide isomerase.

A

oxidizing

192
Q

Proteins are glycosylated on specific ________ (N-linked glycosylation) as they are translocated into the ER.

A

asparagine residues

193
Q

____________ helps prevent protein aggregation in the ER and provides signals for subsequent sorting.

A

Glycosylation

194
Q

Some proteins are attached to the plasma membrane by glycolipids called:

A

GPI anchors

195
Q

GPI anchors are assembled in the ______ and added to the carboxy terminus of some polypeptides.

A

ER membrane

196
Q

Misfolded proteins are removed from the ER by

A

ER-associated degradation (ERAD).

197
Q

If an excess of unfolded proteins accumulates, a signaling pathway called the _________ is activated.

A

unfolded protein response (UPR)

198
Q

UPR leads to production of:

A

more chaperones

199
Q

If protein folding can’t be adjusted to a normal level, the cell undergoes:

A

programmed cell death.

200
Q

Unfolded proteins activate 3 receptors in the ER membrane:

A
  1. IRE1
  2. ATF6
  3. PERK
201
Q

Hydrophobic _________ are synthesized in association with already existing membranes rather than the aqueous cytosol.

A

membrane lipids

202
Q

Most lipids are synthesized in:

A

smooth ER

203
Q

Eukaryotic membranes are made of 3 lipid types:

A

phospholipids
glycolipids
cholesterol

204
Q

Most of phospholipids are synthesized on the ___________ side of the ER membrane from water-soluble precursors (glycerol).

A

cytosol

205
Q

New phospholipids are added only to the _______ half of the ER membrane.

A

cytosolic

206
Q

Some phospholipids must be transferred to the other half: requires passage of polar head groups through the membrane, called:

A

flippases

207
Q

_______ is converted to glycolipids or sphingomyelin in the Golgi apparatus.

A

Ceramide

208
Q

abundant smooth ER, where steroid hormones are synthesized, is found in cells of the:

A

testis and ovary

209
Q

Proteins in the lumen of one organelle are packaged into _________________, then released to the lumen of the recipient organelle following vesicle fusion.

A

transport vesicles

210
Q

Membrane proteins and lipids are transported in a similar way; their ________ is maintained.

A

topological orientation

211
Q

Proteins that function within the ER, such as BiP, have a targeting sequence (i.e. _______) at the carboxy terminus that directs retrieval back to the ER.

A

KDEL or KKXX

212
Q

Most glycolipids and sphingomyelin are synthesized in the _____

A

Golgi

213
Q

2 components of the Golgi:

A
  1. cisternae
  2. associated vesicles.
214
Q

Proteins from ER enter at convex ___ face of Golgi and exist from the concave _____ face

A

cis; trans

215
Q

receives molecules from the ERGIC

A

Cis compartment (Golgi)

216
Q

most modifications are done here in the Golgi

A

medial and trans compartments

217
Q

the sorting and distribution center

A

trans-Golgi network

218
Q

model in which proteins are carried between cisternae in transport vesicles.

A

stable cisternae model

219
Q

model in which proteins are carried within the cisternae, which gradually mature and progressively move through the Golgi in the cis to trans direction.

A

cisternal maturation model

220
Q

Vesicles return Golgi resident proteins back to:

A

earlier Golgi compartments.

221
Q

carbohydrates added to side chains of serine and threonine

A

O-linked glycosylation

222
Q

______ is synthesized by transfer of a phosphorylcholine group from phosphatidylcholine to ceramide.

A

Sphingomyelin

223
Q

Addition of carbohydrates to ceramide yields:

A

different glycolipids.

224
Q

Transport from the Golgi to the cell surface can occur by three routes:

A

Direct transport
Recycling endosomes
Regulated secretory pathways

225
Q

In polarized cells of epithelial tissue, plasma membranes are divided into (2 domain types)

A

apical domains and basolateral domains

226
Q

Transport vesicles with secretory proteins are coated with

A

coat proteins.

227
Q

carry proteins from the ER to Golgi apparatus.

A

COPII-coated vesicles

228
Q

bud from the ERGIC or Golgi and carry their cargo back, returning proteins to earlier compartments.

A

COPI-coated vesicles

229
Q

transport in both directions between the trans Golgi network, endosomes, lysosomes, and plasma membrane.

A

Clathrin-coated vesicles

230
Q

Formation of coated vesicles is regulated by small GTP-binding proteins (ARF1 and Sar1) related to:

A

Ras and Ran

231
Q

The _________ recruit adaptor proteins that mediate vesicle assembly by interacting with cargo proteins and with coat proteins.

A

GTP-binding proteins

232
Q

Interaction between transport vesicles and target membranes is mediated by ________ and small-GTP binding proteins (Rab proteins).

A

tethering factors

233
Q

ubiquitous proteins that direct vesicular trafficking and exocytosis

A

SNAREs

234
Q

SNARE proteins have a central _______ domain.

A

coiled-coil

235
Q

___________ pairing of vesicle and target SNAREs; destabilize them and fuse.

A

SNARE-SNARE

236
Q

membrane-enclosed organelles that contain enzymes to break down all types of biological polymers.

A

Lysosomes

237
Q

lysosomal storage diseases result in:

A

undegraded material accumulation.

238
Q

The enzyme deficiency in _____ disease prevents the hydrolysis of glucosylceramide to glucose and ceramide

A

Gaucher

239
Q

To maintain the ______ pH, a proton pump in the lysosomal membrane actively transports protons into the lysosome.

A

acidic

240
Q

Lysosomes digest material taken up from outside the cell by:

A

endocytosis.

241
Q

Types of endosomes: (3 types)

A

early
recycling
late

242
Q

Early endosomes separate molecules targeted for recycling from those destined for:

A

degradation

243
Q

Molecules destined for degradation are transported to multivesicular bodies and then to ___________

A

late endosomes.

244
Q

turnover of the cell’s own components.

A

autophagy

245
Q

A small area of cytoplasm or organelle is enclosed in a vesicle (________) which fuses with a lysosome, and its contents are digested.

A

autophagosome

246
Q

Autophagy can also be regulated during development and in response to _____

A

stress.

247
Q

The cytoskeleton is composed of three main types of protein filaments:

A

Actin filaments
Microtubules
Intermediate filaments

248
Q

Actin polymerizes to form actin filaments called

A

microfilaments

249
Q

All the actin monomers are oriented in the same direction, so actin filaments have

A

polarity.

250
Q

________ is the first step of actin polymerization—a trimer is formed, and monomers are then added to either end.

A

Nucleation

251
Q

Actin polymerization is ________; the filaments can be broken down when necessary.

A

reversible

252
Q

________ has tight binding sites that mediate head-to-tail interactions with two other actin monomers, to form ________

A

G actin, F actin

253
Q

Actin bound to ATP associates with the _______, and the ATP is then hydrolyzed to ADP.

A

plus ends

254
Q

___________ is critical in regulating actin filaments within the cell.

A

Treadmilling

255
Q

_______ is less tightly bound than ATP-actin and dissociates at the minus end

A

ADP-actin

256
Q

______ bind ATP-actin and nucleate initial polymerization of long unbranched actin filaments.

A

Formins

257
Q

________ binds actin monomers and stimulates exchange of bound ADP for ATP, increasing the local concentration of ATP-actin.

A

Profilin

258
Q

initiate growth of branched actin filaments, important in driving cell movement at the plasma membrane.

A

Arp2/3 complex

259
Q

stabilize actin filaments by binding lengthwise along the groove of the filament.

A

Tropomyosins

260
Q

severs filaments, generating new ends which are then available for polymerization or depolymerization.

A

Cofilin

261
Q

Name for filaments that are cross-linked into closely packed parallel arrays.

A

Actin bundles

262
Q

Name for filaments that are cross-linked in arrays that form 3-D meshworks with the properties of semisolid gels.

A

Actin networks

263
Q

The fibroblasts attach to the matrix via binding of transmembrane proteins called

A

integrins

264
Q

Sites of attachment

A

focal adhesions

265
Q

large actin bundles

A

stress fibers

266
Q

Two other proteins, _______ are involved in binding stress fibers.

A

talin and vinculin

267
Q

In sheets of epithelial cells, cell–cell contacts (adherens junctions) form a _________ around each cell.

A

continuous adhesion belt

268
Q

Contact is mediated by transmembrane proteins called:

A

cadherins

269
Q

Cadherins bind to cytoplasmic _____, which anchor actin filaments to the plasma membrane.

A

catenins

270
Q

generate energy from breakdown of lipids and carbohydrates.

A

Mitochondria

271
Q

use sunlight energy to generate ATP and reducing power to synthesize carbohydrates from CO2 and H2O.

A

Chloroplasts

272
Q

contain enzymes involved in a variety of metabolic pathways.

A

Peroxisomes

273
Q

Mitochondria and chloroplasts also have their own

A

genomes

274
Q

Mitochondria are surrounded by a

A

double membrane system

275
Q

The inner membrane of the mitochondria has numerous folds called ______, which extend into the interior (matrix).

A

cristae

276
Q

_______ contains genetic system and enzymes for oxidative metabolism.

A

The matrix

277
Q

The _______ is transported into mitochondria, where its complete oxidation to CO2 yields the bulk of usable energy (ATP) obtained from glucose metabolism.

A

pyruvate

278
Q

_______ from NADH and FADH2 are transferred through a series of carriers in the membrane to molecular oxygen.

A

High-energy electrons

279
Q

The energy derived from this is converted to potential energy stored in a _______, which drives ATP synthesis.

A

proton gradient

280
Q

The inner membrane of mitochondria contains a high percentage of proteins involved in: (2 things)

A

oxidative metabolism and transport.

281
Q

The inner membrane of mitochondria is ________ to most ions and small molecules—this helps maintain the proton gradient.

A

impermeable

282
Q

The outer mitochondrial membrane
is _________ to small molecules.

A

Highly permeable

283
Q

form channels that allow the free diffusion of small molecules through the inner mitochondrial membrane

A

porins

284
Q

Composition of the intermembrane space is similar to:

A

cytosol

285
Q

Mitochondrial genomes consist of _____ DNA molecules, present in multiple copies

A

circular

286
Q

Mitochondrial genomes encode all the rRNAs and most of the tRNAs needed for

A

translation

287
Q

The human mitochondrial genome
encodes ______ proteins involved in electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation.

A

13

288
Q

U in the tRNA anticodon can pair with any of the four bases in the _____ codon position of mRNA

A

third

289
Q

_____ codons are recognized by a single tRNA

A

four

290
Q

causes blindness; mutations in mitochondrial genes for electron transport chain.

A

Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy

291
Q

Most of the mitochondrial proteins are synthesized on

A

free ribosomes

292
Q

______ bind to receptors on the mitochondria: protein complex (translocase of the outer membrane, or Tom complex).

A

Presequences

293
Q

Proteins are then transferred to complex in the inner membrane called

A

Tim complex

294
Q

Presequences in the mitochondria are cleaved by ________ and the polypeptide is bound by other Hsp70 chaperones that facilitate folding.

A

matrix processing peptidase (MPP)

295
Q

Some proteins with multiple trans-membrane domains have _______ instead of presequences.

A

internal import signals

296
Q

Some inner membrane proteins are encoded by the:

A

mitochondrial genome.

297
Q

Some inner membrane proteins are synthesized on ribosomes in the mitochondrial matrix and targeted to the ______ in the inner membrane.

A

Oxa translocase

298
Q

Proteins destined for the outer membrane or intermembrane space pass through the

A

Tom complex.

299
Q

Proteins with single transmembrane domains are inserted via the outer membrane protein called

A

Mim1.

300
Q

Most mitochondria membrane lipids are imported from

A

cytosol

301
Q

________ improves efficiency of oxidative phosphorylation by restricting proton flow across the membrane.

A

Cardiolipin

302
Q

Lipid transfer between ER and mitochondria is mediated by

A

phospholipid transfer proteins

303
Q

Transport of ATP and ADP is mediated by an integral membrane protein, _________.

A

adenine nucleotide translocator. (ANT)

304
Q

ATP carries a more negative charge than ADP (–4 compared to –3), so exchange is driven by the ________ of the electrochemical gradient.

A

voltage component

305
Q

Pi is brought in as phosphate (H2PO4–) in exchange for hydroxyl ions (OH–).
This exchange is electrically _______, but is driven by the proton concentration gradient.

A

neutral

306
Q

_______ within mitochondria corresponds to a higher concentration of hydroxyl ions, favoring their translocation to the outside.

A

Higher pH

307
Q

fatty acids, and lipid components of their own membranes.
Nitrite (NO2–) reduction to ammonia (NH3), essential for incorporation of N into organic compounds, occurs in _______

A

chloroplasts

308
Q

Chloroplasts are bounded by a double membrane called _______

A

the chloroplast envelope

309
Q

An internal membrane system, the _______ membrane, forms a network of flattened discs

A

thylakoid

310
Q

inside the envelope but outside the thylakoid membrane

A

stroma

311
Q

Chloroplast membranes are functionally similar to those of:

A

mitochondria

312
Q

The stroma is equivalent in function to the

A

mitochondrial matrix

313
Q

Electron transport and chemiosmotic generation of ATP takes place in the

A

thylakoid membrane.

314
Q

The chloroplast genes encode both RNAs and proteins involved in (2 things)

A

gene expression
photosynthesis.

315
Q

One subunit of ______ is encoded by chloroplast DNA.

A

rubisco

316
Q

________ (transit peptides), direct translocation across the two chloroplast membranes of the envelope and are then removed by proteolytic cleavage.

A

N-terminal sequences

317
Q

outer stroma membrane

A

Toc complex

318
Q

Inner stroma membrane

A

Tic complex

319
Q

Stroma transit peptide

A

stromal processing peptidase (SPP).

320
Q

Proteins that must cross the thylakoid membrane have a _________, exposed after cleavage of the transit peptide.

A

second signal sequence

321
Q

Proteins are translocated into the thylakoid lumen by two different pathways:

A
  1. Sec
  2. Tat
322
Q

Signal sequences are cleaved by:

A

thylakoid processing protease (TPP).