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BMS 191 (Microbio) > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

Lectures 12-16

1
Q

How is secondary syphilis most reliably detected?

A

non-treponemal tests (VDRL)

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2
Q

What is a secondary syphilis symptom?

A

rash

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3
Q

What type of borrelia infections cause epidemic relapsing fever?

A

Borrelia Recurrentis

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4
Q

What type of borrelia infections cause endemic relapsing fever?

A

Borrelia Spp.

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5
Q

What type of borrelia infections cause lyme disease?

A

Borrelia Burgdorferi

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6
Q

What is the reservoir for Borrelia Recurrentis?

A

Humans

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7
Q

What is the reservoir for Borrelia Spp.?

A
  1. Rodents
  2. Soft ticks
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8
Q

What is the reservoir for Borrelia Burgdorferi?

A
  1. (Deer mice) Rodents
  2. Deer
  3. Pets
  4. Hard ticks
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9
Q

What is the vector for Borrelia Recurrentis?

A

Body louse (perdiculus humanus)

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10
Q

What is the vector for Borrelia Spp.?

A

Soft-shelled tick (Ornithodoros spp.)

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11
Q

What is the vector for Borrelia Burgdorferi?

A

Hard-shelled tick (Ixodes spp.)

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12
Q

What disease will have “Bullseye rash” or Erythema Chronicum migrans rash? What causes it?

A
  1. Lyme Borreliosis (Lyme Disease)
  2. Borrelia Burgdorferi
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13
Q

What is the most severe form of Leptospirosis?

A

Weil’s disease

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14
Q

What causes Leptospirosis?

A

Leptospira Interrogans

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15
Q

When and where are leptospires usually detected?

A

In the urine, several weeks after the first infection
(difficult to find in the blood after the first week)

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16
Q

What is Lymphogranuloma Venerium (LGV)?

A

a sexually transmitted disease caused by the invasive serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis

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17
Q

Where does lymphogranuloma Venerium (LGV) cause infection?

A

lymphatics and lymph nodes

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18
Q

What are the two forms of Chlamydia?

A
  1. Elementary body
  2. Reticulate body
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19
Q

Which is the “infectious particle” between the two forms of clamydia?

A

elementary body

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20
Q

What is the most reliable detection method for Chlamydia trachomatis?

A

Nucleic acid probes

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21
Q

What is transovarian transmission?

A

a infected parent will pass on the infection to their offspring

(infected parent –> infected baby)

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22
Q

What disease can be transmitted by transovarian transmission?

A

Rickettsia Rickettsia

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23
Q

What is the vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) or Rickettsia Rickettsii?

A

Ticks or Dermacentor andersoni

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24
Q

What is the vector for Riskettsia Prowazekii (Epidemic Typhus)?

A

Human Body Louse

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25
Q

What is the vector for Riskettsia Typhi (Endemic typhus)?

A

Rat flea

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26
Q

What is the cause of epidemic typhus (fatal)?

A

Rickettsia Prowazekii

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27
Q

What is the cause of endemic typhus (milder)?

A

Rickettsia Typhi

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28
Q

What is the acronym for Anaplasma phagocytophilum?

A

HGA

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29
Q

In Anaplasma phagocytophilum patients, they will have morulae in what type of cell?

A

the cytoplasm of granulocytes

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30
Q

In Ehrilichia (HME) patients, they will have morulae in what type of cell?

A

MONOCYTES

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31
Q

What medium does Vibrio Cholera grow on/recovery?

A

Thiosulphate citrate bile sucrose (TCBS) agar

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32
Q

What is an alternate way for testing oxidase?

A

Can test for oxidase by dropping oxidase reagent directly onto agar growth except for MacConkey Agar

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33
Q

Does vibrio cholera occur in humans, animals, or both?

A

humans

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34
Q

Does stomach acidity play a part in V. cholera susceptibility?

A

YES, if you have a more alkaline than normal stomach acid… you are more susceptible to V. cholerae infection

(Alkaline = more likely V. Cholera infection)

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35
Q

Mechanism of Action (MOA) of V. Cholera toxin is similar to what bacterium?

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

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36
Q

Why does Vibrio Cholera come up pink on MacConkey if it isn’t lactose fermenting?

A

Vibrio Cholera itself is pink (omg girlie pop), so it looks pink despite not being lactose fermenting

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37
Q

What does V. vulnificus have that gives them the ability to evade destruction by stomach acid?

A

capsular polysccharide

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38
Q

What type of Vibrio is most likely to be isolated from blood culture?

A

Vibrio Vulnificus

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39
Q

What does Aeromonas look like on blood agar?

A

Grey, shiny, big (puffy), and just grows well

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40
Q

Why is Aeromonas overlooked in stool cultures?

A

b/c aeromonas is lactose positive
(which is usually not significant)

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41
Q

What is useful in identifying vibrio and aeromonas?

A

O/129 disk susceptibility testing

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42
Q

What characteristics are commonly found in patients diagnosed with an Aeromonas hydrophila infection?

A
  1. oxidase positive
  2. indole positive
  3. beta hemolytic
  4. gram negative bacteria
  5. No growth in 6.5% NaCl
  6. O/129 resistant
  7. found in stool of a gastroenteritis patient
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43
Q

What is the most common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis?

A

Campylobacter

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44
Q

What species of Campylobacter is found in stool?

A

Camplobacter jejuni

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45
Q

What species of Campylobacter is found in blood?

A

Camplobacter Fetus

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46
Q

What are the characteristics of Campylobacter bacteria?

A
  1. small comma-shaped
    1a. Greek Campylo = curved
  2. Motile
  3. Microaerophilic atmosphere (inc. CO2, redu. O2)
  4. grows best at 42C
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47
Q

What illness can develop after getting Campylobacter food poisoning?

A

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

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48
Q

Helicobacter is identified by it’s rapid production of _______

A

urease

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49
Q

What test is used to diagnose helicobacter?

A

Campylobacter-like organism (CLO) test (using an invasive mucosal biopsy specimen)

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50
Q

What does P. mallei produce?

A

glanders

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51
Q

What does P. pseudomallei produce?

A

melioidosis

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52
Q

Is pseudomonas aeruginosa motile?

A

yes

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53
Q

How is Pseudomonas Aeruginosa differentiated from other Non-Fermenting Gram Negative Bacteria?

A

pyoverdine production

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54
Q

What does pyoverdine do?

A

it’s a siderophore that functions as a toxin by removing iron from the mitochondria (damaging the organelle)

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55
Q

If this patient get’s localized Pseudomonas Aeruginosa infection, it’s fatal.

A

Cystic fibrosis

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56
Q

What does Pseudomonas Aeruginosa look like?

A

Grows slow, faintly stained, cells are similar in size/shape

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57
Q

If Acinetobacter Baumannii is gram-NEGATIVE why does it get mistaken as gram-positive?

A

it naturally retains crystal violet
(purple usually = gram positive)

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58
Q

Why is Acinetobacter Baumannii confused for E. coli?

A

Acinetobacter Baumannii oxidizes lactose
E. coli ferments lactose on MacConkey

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59
Q

What does Burkholderia Pseudomallei cause?

A

Meliodosis/Whitmore’s disease

60
Q

Where is Burkholderia Pseudomallei commonly found?

A

Southeast Asia and Australia

61
Q

What is the morphology of B. pseudomallei?

A

Look crinkly
Look like corn flowers

62
Q

What two organisms are commonly isolated in cystic fibrosis patients?

A

Pseudomonas Aeruginosa and B. Cepacia

63
Q

What is the difference between burkholderia and Stenotrophomonas?

A

Stenotrophomonas is Non-fermenting GNB that is oxidase negative
Burkholderia is Non-fermenting GNB that is oxidase positive, O/129 Resistant, motile, etc.

64
Q

Which one is resistant/susceptible to amoxicillin clavulanate?
1. B. cepacian
2. B. pseudomallei

A
  1. resistant
  2. susceptible
65
Q

What are names for Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A
  1. walking pneumonia
  2. atypical pneumonia
  3. community-acquired pneumonia
66
Q

What is the morphology of Mycoplasma pneumonia colonies?

67
Q

What virulence factor(s) does Mycoplasma pneumonia produce?

A
  1. Community Acquired Respiratory Distress Syndrome (CARDS) toxin
  2. hydrogen peroxide
68
Q

What is the rapid and effective way to determine the presence of M. pneumoniae?

69
Q

Does PCR indicate the activity or viability of the cells present w/ M. pneumoniae?

70
Q

How does Mycoplasma Pneumonia differentiate from Ureaplasma Urealyticum?

A

Mycoplasma Pneumonia: urease negative
Ureaplasma Urealyticum: urease positive

71
Q

How is Ureaplasma Urealyticum transmitted?

A

from mother to infant during birth or sexually

72
Q

What makes Mycobacteria that gorl?

A

Mycolic acid is found in the cell wall

73
Q

What Runyon group is called “rapid growers”?

A

Group IV, because it grows in 7 days or less

74
Q

What two bacterium are Niacin negative and aerobic?

A
  1. M. Bovis
  2. M. tuberculosis (in asians)
75
Q

What does M. scrofulaceum cause?

A

cervical lymphadenitis in children

76
Q

What is Mycobacterium ulcerans aka?

A

Bairnsdale or Buruli ulcer

77
Q

What is the morphology of Mycobacterium kansasii?

A

Acid fast stain: cells are long, rectangular and beaded,
larger than TB, resemble a Shepherd’s crook

78
Q

How is Mycobacterium kansasii different from pulmonary TB?

A

does not disseminate – predisposition to diseased lung

79
Q

Why does Mycobacterium leprae not grow on artificial media?

A

it’s not evolved enough to survive w/o it’s natural reservoir (armadillo)

80
Q

What does Mycobacterium leprae cause?

A

Leprosy – also known as Hansen’s disease

81
Q

What is the percentage of people that are susceptible to Mycobacterium leprae?

82
Q

What are the two types of leprosy?

A
  1. Lepromatous leprosy
  2. Tuberculoid leprosy
83
Q

What are the characteristics of Lepromatous leprosy?

A
  1. low CMI
  2. Th2 response
  3. high bacterial load
  4. may lethal
  5. lepromin test is non-reactive
84
Q

What are the characteristics of Tuberculoid Leprosy?

A
  1. high CMI
  2. Th1 response
  3. low bacterial load
  4. may heal on their own
  5. lepromin test is reactive
85
Q

You are more susceptible to getting Leprosy if you have ______

A

NRAMP1 gene

86
Q

What are the five primary drug panels for TB?

A
  1. Rifampin
  2. Isoniazid
  3. Pyrazinamide
  4. Ethambutol
  5. Streptomycin
87
Q

T or F, Both IGRA and TST can distinguish active from latent tuberculosis.

A

False, Neither IGRA nor TAT can distinguish latent tuberculosis

88
Q

What are the characteristics of TST test for TB?

A
  1. Low specificity in certain populations
  2. Two visits
  3. Variability in test interpretation by reader (not consistant)
89
Q

What are the characteristics of IGRA test for TB?

A
  1. High specificity in certain populations
  2. One visits
  3. Low Variability in test interpretation by reader (consistant)
90
Q

What bacteria(s) can get false positives due to ESAT and CRP species specificity?

A
  1. Mycobacterium szulgai
  2. Mycobacterium kansasii
  3. Mycobacterium marinum.
91
Q

What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for head and neck?

A
  1. tissue fluid aspirate
  2. cerebrospinal fluid
92
Q

What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for respiratory tract?

A
  1. Pleural fluid
  2. broncho alveolar
  3. lavage fluid
93
Q

What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for Abdomen?

A

Peritoneal (ascitic fluid) abscess aspirate

94
Q

What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for Urinary tract?

A

Suprapubic aspirate (syringe to the bladder broooo)

95
Q

What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for bone and joint?

A
  1. Bone Marrow
  2. Synovial fluid
96
Q

What are suitable Anaerobic specimens for Genital tract?

A
  1. Endoscopy specimen
  2. Endometrial Aspirate
97
Q

What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for head & neck?

A
  1. throat swab
  2. Nasopharayngeal swab
98
Q

What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for respiratory tract?

A
  1. Expectorated sputum
  2. nasal swab
99
Q

What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for abdomen?

A
  1. Gastric lavage
  2. rectal swab
  3. colostomy drainage
100
Q

What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for urinary tract?

A
  1. voided urine
  2. catheterised urine
  3. urethral swab
101
Q

What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for genital tract?

A
  1. Vag swab
  2. cervical swab
102
Q

What are NOT suitable Anaerobic specimens for soft tissue?

A

superficial material swab

103
Q

What bacterium are non-spore forming bacilli, GPB, and clostridium?

A
  1. Actinomycetes
  2. Bifidobacterium
  3. Propionibacerium
104
Q

What are bacterium non-spore forming bacilli, GNB, and clostridium?

A
  1. Bacteroides
  2. Fusobacterium
  3. Prevotella
  4. Porphyromonas
105
Q

What bacterium are non-spore forming cocci, GPB, and clostridium?

A
  1. Peptococcus
  2. Pepto-streptococcus
  3. Streptococcus
106
Q

What bacterium are non-spore forming cocci, GNB, and clostridium?

A

Veilonella

107
Q

What type of Clostridium has a double zone of hemolysis (beta + alpha) on blood agar and egg yolk agar?

A

Clostridium Perfringens

108
Q

What is the morphology of Actinomyces israelii?

A
  1. 0.5-2mm in diameter
  2. white or grey white smooth
  3. entire or lobulated
  4. resembling a molar tooth
  5. looks like bread crumbs or non-uniformly turbid in thioglycollate broth
109
Q

What mediums is Actinomyces israelii inoculated on?

A

sheep blood agar, brain-heart infusion agar, glucose broth and enriched thioglycollate broth

for 14 days

110
Q

If you got infections in the joints ESPECIALLY THE SHOULDER, it means it’s probably

A

Cutibacterium acnes

111
Q

Bacteroides fragilis can grow in ____ and resistant to _____

A

Can grow in the presence of bile (duh gut bacteria) and also resistant to kanamycin vancomycin

112
Q

What does porphyromonas look like under UV light?

A

brick-red fluorescence

113
Q

What bacteria is saccharolytic (can ferment carbohydrates)?

A

Prevotella

114
Q

What bacteria is asaccharolytic (can’t ferment carbohydrates)?

A

Porphyromonas

115
Q

What looks like a fried egg?

A

fusobacterium necrophorum (Lemiere’s syndrome)

116
Q

What are common characteristics found with Lemiere’s Syndrome?

A
  1. infected blood clots that function as seeds
  2. (young adult males [20y/o])
  3. looks like strep throat
  4. can kill patient from 48-72 hrs (stiff neck, headache, throat can’t swallow)
117
Q

What is the morphology of Bacteroides ureolyticus?

A

agar pitting

118
Q

What is the morphology of Porphyromonas?

A

black or tan pigment

119
Q

What is the morphology of fusobacterium varium?

A

greening of the medium

120
Q

What is upper respiratory?

A
  1. throat
  2. pharynx
  3. middle ear
  4. sinuses
121
Q

What is lower respiratory?

A
  1. trachea
  2. bronchi
  3. lung
122
Q

What is the morphology of Strep. Pyogenes (Strep throat)?

A
  1. GPB, cocci, chains
  2. fastidious
  3. beta hemolysis
  4. catalase negative
  5. bacitracin sensitive
  6. PYRase positive
  7. CAMP negative
122
Q

What is the morphology of Strep. Pyogenes (Strep throat)?

A
  1. GPB, cocci, chains
  2. fastidious
  3. beta hemolysis
  4. catalase negative
  5. bacitracin sensitive
  6. PYRase positive
  7. CAMP negative
  8. virulent lol
123
Q

Why do you need to perform a gram stain for Arcanobacterium hemolyticum throat samples?

A

b/c it looks like streptococcal pharyngitis

124
Q

What are the stages of B. pertussis (whooping cough) and how long is each stage?

A
  1. Incubation (7-10 days)
  2. Catarrhal (1-2 weeks)
  3. Paroxysmal (2-4 weeks)
  4. Convalescent (3-4+ weeks)
125
Q

What are the symptoms of B. pertussis Incubation?

126
Q

What are the symptoms of B. pertussis catarrhal?

A

rhinorrhea, malaise, fever, sneezing, anorexia

127
Q

What are the symptoms of B. pertussis paroxysmal?

A

whooping cough, vomiting, leukocytosis

128
Q

What are the symptoms of B. pertussis convalescent?

A

less coughing, secondary complications

129
Q

When is the highest bacterial culture of B. pertussis?

130
Q

When does the bacterial culture count start to drop for B. pertussis?

A

paroxysmal

131
Q

What is the characteristics of Epiglottitis?

A
  1. fastidious
  2. capsulated GNB bacilli
  3. oxidase positive
132
Q

What bacterium causes Epidlottitis?

A

Haemonphilus influenzae type B

133
Q

What is epiglottis?

A

Swelling of the epiglottis (uvula)
Life threatening –> can block the trachea and prevents swallowing

134
Q

What is otitis externa?

A

swimmer’s era (survives chlorine)

135
Q

What is the bacterium that causes Lemiere’s Disease?

A

Fusobacterium Necrophorum

136
Q

How does Lemiere’s Disease pathology?

A

Septic shock –-> passes thru the jugular –-> RBC aggregation –-> clots –-> clots on the move (septic emboli)

137
Q

In the winter, what is the most frequent pathogen in ELDERLY patients? (esp. smokers)

A

S. pneumoniae

138
Q

In the winter, what is the most frequent pathogen in children?

A

H. influenzae

139
Q

What is the incubation time for Hospital Acquired Pneumonia (HAP) or Ventilator Associated Pneumonia (VAP)?

A

48 hrs (if less than that it was acquired outside)

140
Q

What is the most common pulmonary microorganism?

A

Strep. Pneumoniae

141
Q

What are the five most common pulmonary microorganism?

A
  1. Strep. Pneumoniae
  2. Haemophylus influenzae
  3. Influenza virus
  4. Satphylococcus aureus
  5. Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
142
Q

What organisms cause Hospital Acquired Pneumonia (HAP)?

A
  1. S. Aureus
  2. P. aeroginosa
143
Q

What organism is the most common cause of Ventilator Associated Pneumonia (VAP)?

A

Acinetobacter baumannii

144
Q

What would you see if the patient is aspirating?

A

mixed GPB and GNB flora field

145
Q

What specimens are suitable oral flora (respiratory infection)?

A
  1. percutaneous aspiration
  2. protected bronchial brush
146
Q

What organisms would you report as nosocomial (caught in the hospital) infections, if found in SIGNIFICANT amounts (b/c found normally in the body)?

A
  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia
  3. Acinotobacter spp.
  4. Burkholderia spp.

BMS 191 (Microbio) (3 decks)

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