Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BMS 521 > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What binds to start signal transduction by RTKs?

A

a protein with SH2 domain to a tyrosine on the receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the Ras family composed of?

A

small G-protiens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What drives over 30% of all human cancers?

A

Ras genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do signals pass from activated Ras?

A

Ras to Raf to MEK to MAPK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What regulates the activity of many transcription factors that control early response genes?

A

MAP kinase (MAPK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In unstimulated cells, where is PKB?

A

cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In unstimulated cells, what inhibits PKB activity?

A

catalytic kinase domain bound to pH domain of PKB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What leads to the activation of PI-2 kinase & PKB?

A

hormone stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Disrupted JAK/STAT signaling can lead to what diseases?

A

skin conditions, cancer, immune system disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are cytokines important in?

A

cell signaling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Examples of cytokines?

A

chemokines
interferons
interleukins
lymphokines
tumor necrosis factors
transforming growth factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How can the same signal induce different responses in different cells?

A

different types of cells have different collections of proteins that lead to different cellular events
ex. epinephrine simulates liver for breakdown of glycogen but stimulates heart to contract faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What causes termination of the cell signal?

A
  1. concentration of signal decreases
  2. G-protein hydrolyzes
  3. cAMP to AMP
  4. phosphorylated kinases inactivated
  5. GRK desensitizes receptors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

4 phases of the cell cycle

A
  1. G1 (gap stage 1)
  2. S (synthesis)
  3. G2 (gap stage 2)
  4. M (mitosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What drives cell cycle progression and initiates centrosome splitting?

A

CDK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What drives CDK activity?

A

positive & negative feedback loops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What guarantees each cell cycle step is completed correctly before going to the next step?

A

checkpoint pathway surveillance mechanisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do cells reproduce?

A

cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How do cells produced from mitosis look?

A

identical to their parent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How do cells produced from meiosis look?

A

have half the genetic content of the parent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 main features of cell cycle

A
  1. cell growth & DNA replication
  2. chromosome segregation
  3. cell division
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What cells lack the ability to divide?

A

nerve, muscle & red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What cells have a high level of mitotic activity?

A

stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What cells can be induced to begin DNA synthesis?

A

liver cells & lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which cell cycle phase is the shortest?

A

mitotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is cytokinesis & when does it happen?

A

formation of 2 daughter cells; in M phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the interphase?

A

period between M phases
includes G1 & G2 and S-phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are G0 cells & where do they exist?

A

cells with no ability to receive signals to initiate division; G1 stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

G1 phase

A

first stage within interphase
runs from M phase until the beginning of DNA synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

S phase

A

second stage within interphase
DNA synthesis & chromosome/centrosome replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

G2 phase

A

third stage within interphase
lasts until cell enters mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

M phase

A

duplicated chromosomes separate into 2 nuclei, cytokinesis happens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is a centrosome?

A

move to opposite ends of the cells during division
work with microtubules to assemble a spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are kinetochores?

A

near the centromere of the chromosome, where the spindle attaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What aligns sister chromatid pairs in the spindle?

A

kinetochore-associated tension-sensing mechanism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the stages of mitosis

A

interphase
prophase
prometaphase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase
cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What happens during interphase?

A

chromosome/centrosome duplication & cohesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What happens during prophase?

A

chromosomes condense, nuclear envelope breaks down, formation of mitotic spindle apparatus, kinetochore assembles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What happens during prometaphase?

A

spindle microtubules attache to kinetochores and center the sister chromatid pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What happens during metaphase?

A

chromosomes align at the metaphase plate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What happens during anaphase?

A

spindle microtubules shorten, sister chromatids pulled towards opposite sides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What happens during telophase?

A

each daughter cell reassembles a nuclear membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens during cytokinesis?

A

cells fully separate
contractile ring forms cleavage furrow to split the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

3 classes of microtubules

A
  1. astral (project towards cortex/outside)
  2. kinetochore (connected to chromosomes)
  3. polar (project towards center)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the model organisms for studying cell cycle?

A

saccharomyces cervisiae
schizosaccharomyces pombe
xenopus laevis
drosophila melanogaster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where are the major checkpoints?

A
  1. G1 checkpoint
  2. G2 checkpoint
  3. mitotic checkpoint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the checkpoint proteins?

A

CDK
protein phosphatases
ubiquitin-protein ligases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does the activity of CDK depend on?

A

cyclins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What cyclin-CDK complexes promote entry into cell cycle?

A

G1 cyclin-CDK
G1/S phase cyclin-CDK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What cyclin-CDK complex triggers S phase

A

S phase cyclin-CDK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What cyclin-CDK complex initiates mitosis?

A

mitotic cyclin-CDK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How can you regulate CDKs?

A
  1. cyclin binding
  2. CDK phosphorylation
  3. CDK inhibitors
  4. controlled proteolysis
  5. sub cellular localization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What cyclins can CDK1 act on?

A

cyclins A & B
for mitosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What cyclins can CDK2 act on?

A

cyclins E & A
for entry into cell cycle & S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What cyclin can CDK4 act on?

A

cyclin D
for G1 entry into cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What cyclin can CDK6 act on?

A

cyclin D
for G1 entry into cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What dephosphorylates CDK1?

A

Cdc25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What phosphorylates CDK1?

A

Wee1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What inhibits the S phase CDK complex & prevents the cell from entering the S phase?

A

Sic1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In order for the cell to enter the next phase what must be done?

A

everything must be done correctly & the cyclin that blocks it must be degraded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

5 basic steps of genome replication

A
  1. recognition of replicate origins
  2. assembling replication initiation factors
  3. recruitment of helicase cofactors
  4. activation of helicase
  5. DNA polymerase copies each strand
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What CDKs get phosphorylated to then phosphorylate MCM helicases to make them active?

A

S phase CDKs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What glue sister chromatids together?

A

cohesive molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What do aurora proteins do?

A

stop mitotic process until the correct tension is formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What does chromosome condensation result in?

A

dramatic reduction in chromosome length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is sister chromatid resolution & what is is mediated by?

A

untangling of sister chromatids; topoisomerase II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What triggers chromosome condensation?

A

CDK1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What inhibits separase?

A

binding of securin or by phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are some steps checked at each checkpoint?

A

damage to chromosomal DNA
incomplete DNA replication
incomplete chromosomal alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the 2 categories of surveillance genes?

A

genes promoting cell proliferation genes (encode of proteins that promote division)
anti proliferation genes (encode for checkpoint proteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Daughter cells for mitosis

A

2 that are diploid (genetically identical)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Daughter cells for meiosis

A

4 that are haploid (genetically different)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which cells does mitosis happen in?

A

somatic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Which cells does meiosis happen in?

A

germline cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What hormone stimulates red blood cell formation?

A

erythropoietin (Epo)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When & where is erythropoietin synthesized?

A

synthesized in the liver & kidney in response to low OXYGEN levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What transcription factor coordinates many cellular responses to low O2?

A

Hif-1alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

When is Hif-1alpha protein present?

A

only at low O2 levels
(gets degraded at high O2 levels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Defime chronobiology

A

the study of the biology of circadian rhythms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What organisms exhibit circadian rhythms?

A

all eukaryotes & some prokaryotes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is the most powerful external cue for the circadian rhythm?

A

dark-light cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are other cues that impact circadian rhythms?

A

medication
temp
social interactions
exercise
eating / drinking
weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

In mammals, what functions as the master clock or pacemaker for circadian rhythms?

A

suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Melatonin production is inhibited by what?

A

light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Melatonin production is stimulated by what?

A

darkness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What secretes melatonin?

A

pineal gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When is cortisol hormone the highest?

A

during daytime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the primary disease of circadian rhythms?

A

narcolepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are some other diseases accompanied by alterations to circadian rhythms?

A

alzheimers & autism spectrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Cells respond to tension across what?

A

intercellular adherents junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What modulates cell growth & differentiation?

A

hippo pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How does hippo signaling & YAP-TAZ look when there are actin stress fibers?

A

hippo signaling is off
YAP-TAZ is ACTIVE in nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

How does hippo signaling & YAP-TAZ look when there are NO actin stress fibers?

A

hippo signaling is on
YAP-TAZ is INACTIVE in cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is required for YAP nuclear localization?

A

actin stress fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Where is YAP-TAZ in the outer cells of morula?

A

in nucleus because cells are dividing (hippo pathway is off)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Where is YAP-TAZ in the inner cells of morula?

A

in cytoplasm because cells are not dividing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What 2 systems make up the nervous system?

A

central & peripheral nervous system
(CNS & PNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What 4 areas make up the CNS?

A

spinal cord, brain stem, cerebellum, cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What does the spinal cord do?

A

relays sensory & motor info

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What does the brainstem do?

A

controls basic functions such as breathing & HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

coordinates movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What does the cerebrum do?

A

controls higher functions like language, learning, memory, & emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What do glial cells do?

A

provide support to nerve cells
theres more of them than neurons in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How much of the total body energy does the brain consume?

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What 4 lobes make up the cerebrum (brain)?

A

frontal, temporal, parietal, occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What does the frontal lobe do?

A

involved in analytical stuff such as problem solving, language, & impulse-control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What does the temporal lobe do?

A

involved in auditory processing, memory, & emotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What does the parietal lobe do?

A

involved in sensations such as touch, taste, temp, & movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What does the occipital lobe do?

A

involved in vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What does the PNS consist of?

A

somatic & autonomic systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What does the somatic system do?

A

involved with the conscious control of the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What does the autonomic system do?

A

controls body functions that happen without us thinking about it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What are the two types of the autonomic nervous system?

A

sympathetic & parasympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system do?

A

stimulates the fight or flight response
regulates HR, respiration rate, & pupillary response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What does the parasympathetic nervous system do?

A

stimulates the rest & digest response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Where is the sympathetic nervous system located?

A

near the thoracic & lumbar regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Where is the parasympathetic nervous system located?

A

between the spinal cord & the medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What 2 cells make up the nervous system?

A

neurons & glia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Types of glial cells in CNS

A

astrocytes
oligodendrocytes
microglia
ependymal glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Types of glial cells in PNS

A

Schwann cells
satellite cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

What glial cells produce myelin sheaths in CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What glial cells produce myelin sheaths in PNS

A

Schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What are the 3 functional classes of neurons

A

sensory (afferent) neurons
interneurons
motor (efferent) neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Describe sensory (afferent) neurons

A

detect stimuli & conduct signals TOWARDS the CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Describe interneurons

A

lie within the CNS
receives signals & decides where it goes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What class are the majority of neurons?

A

interneurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Describe motor (efferent) neurons

A

lead to muscle cells
sends signals from CNS to the muscle or gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Describe multipolar neurons

A

have 1 axon & multiple dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What is the most common type of neuron?

A

multipolar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Describe bipolar neurons

A

have 1 axon & 1 dendrite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Examples of bipolar neurons

A

olfactory cells
sensory neurons
retina neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Describe unipolar (pseudounipolar) neurons

A

have a SINGLE process leading away from the soma
gets divided into dendrites later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Describe anaxonic neurons

A

have NO axon but multiple dendrites
do NOT produce action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Where are anoxic neurons found?

A

brain
retina
adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What cells secrete & circulate CSF in the CNS?

A

ependymal cells

136
Q

What cells engulf things & destroy them in the CNS?

A

microglia

137
Q

What cells provide nutrients to cells in the CNS?

A

astrocytes

138
Q

What cells provide electrical insulation in the PNS?

A

satellite cells

139
Q

What is the myelin sheath?

A

insulation around a nerve fiber that aids in fast movement of APs

140
Q

What is the neurilemma of the Schwann cell?

A

the thick outermost coil (bulging body) that contains the nucleus of the Schwann cell

141
Q

What is the endonceurium of the Schwann cell?

A

a basal lamia & a thin sleeve of fibrous connective tissue

142
Q

What is a node of Ranvier?

A

gap between segments of the myelin sheath

143
Q

What are internodes?

A

myelin covered segments of the nerve

144
Q

What is the initial segment?

A

the short section of nerve between the axon hillock & the first glial cell

145
Q

What makes up the trigger zone?

A

axon hillock & initial segment

146
Q

What are unmyelinated fibers enveloped in in the PNS?

A

enveloped in Schwann cells

147
Q

The speed that the signal travels along a nerve fiber depends on what 2 factors?

A

diameter of the fiber
presence or absence of myelin

148
Q

Commands to the skeletal muscle or signals for vision & balance use what kind of fibers?

A

fast myelinated fibers

149
Q

Dilating the pupil & secreting stomach acid use what kind of fibers?

A

slow unmyelinated fibers

150
Q

What are diseases of the myelin sheath & what do they cause?

A

multiple sclerosis (MS) & tay-sachs disease
cause a disruption of nerve conduction

151
Q

Describe multiple sclerosis (MS)

A

oligodendrocytes & myelin sheaths of the CNS deteriorate & are replaced by scare tissue

152
Q

Describe tay-sachs disease

A

there is an abnormal accumulation of ganglioside in the myelin sheath

153
Q

What does the blood brain barrier do?

A

prevents free flow of substances
is the sight of a lot of signal transduction

154
Q

Brain tumors (gliomas) are composed of what?

A

a mass of glial cells

155
Q

What does a tumor consist of?

A

a mass of rapidly dividing cells

156
Q

What are the 3 main components of the cytoskeleton?

A

microtubules
intermediate filaments
microfilaments

157
Q

Describe microtubules

A

longitudinal structures that give neuritis their structure

158
Q

Describe intermediate filaments

A

strong structures that consist of long proteins

159
Q

Describe microfilaments

A

thin structures that are important for motility

160
Q

When Tau proteins over phosphorylate, what does it cause neurons to form?

A

NFTs (neuron fiber tangles)

161
Q

Describe axoplasmic transport

A

transport along the INTERIOR of the axon

162
Q

What direction is anterograde axonal transport

A

from cell body (soma) to nerve ends

163
Q

What direction is retrograde axonal transport

A

from nerve ends to cell body (soma)

164
Q

What proteins are involved in transport along neurons-tubules?

A

kinesin & dynein

165
Q

Fast axonal transport occurs in what direction?

A

both anterograde & retrograde

166
Q

What transport moves organelles, synaptic vesicles, & small molecules?

A

fast ANTEROGRADE transport
(soma to nerve ending)

167
Q

What transport returns uses synaptic vesicles to the soma & is used by pathogens?

A

fast RETROGRADE transport
(nerve endings to soma)

168
Q

Slow axonal transport occurs in what direction?

A

anterograde (soma to nerve ending)

169
Q

What transport moves enzymes & cytoskeletal components & renews worn-out axoplasmic components?

A

slow axonal transport

170
Q

What is a disorder of peripheral nerves?

A

tetanus

171
Q

During a tetanus infection, what transmitters get blocked & what does that cause?

A

blocks GABA & glycine (muscle contraction inhibitors)
causes uncontrollable muscle contractions

172
Q

What is risus sardonicus?

A

face has a fixed smile
early sign of tetanus

173
Q

What is opisthotonus?

A

muscle spasms

174
Q

What is tetany?

A

prolonged muscular action that causes painful contractions, fractures, & muscle tears

175
Q

What happens during early nerve regeneration?

A

a regeneration tube forms

176
Q

What happens during late nerve regeneration?

A

the regeneration tube guides the growing sprout back to the original target cells, reforming synaptic contact; soma shrinks & muscle fibers regrow

177
Q

Nerve regeneration can only happen if what is still intact?

A

the soma (cell body)

178
Q

What maintains intracellular Na+ & K+ concentrations?

A

Na/K pump (ATPase)

179
Q

E1 conformation of Na/K ATPase

A

releases K+
high affinity for Na+

180
Q

E2 conformation of Na/K ATPase

A

releases Na+
high affinity for K+

181
Q

How does Na/K ATPase go from E1 to E2 conformation?

A

conformational change

182
Q

What does the K+ channel use to push K+ out?

A

the electrochemical gradient made from the Na/K pump

183
Q

The Na/K pump sends how many Na+ out & brings how many K+ in?

A

3 Na+ out, 2 K+ in

184
Q

What is the resting membrane potential?

A

-70 mV

185
Q

What are the 4 properties of a local (graded) potential?

A
  1. graded: vary in magnitude bases on stimulus strength
  2. decremental: get weaker the further they travel
  3. reversible: returns to RMP when stimulus stops
  4. can be excitatory OR inhibitory
186
Q

Excitatory local potentials do what?

A

depolarize the cell (more Na+ in) thus producing an action potential
ex. acetylcholine

187
Q

Inhibitory local potentials do what?

A

hyperpolarize the cell (makes it more negative)
ex. glycine

188
Q

What causes depolarization?

A

stimulus open Na+ channels allowing Na+ into the cell thus depolarizing it

189
Q

Local potentials are produced by what?

A

LIGAND GATED channels

190
Q

Action potentials are produced by what?

A

VOLTAGE GATED channels

191
Q

Steps of an action potential

A
  1. local stimulus depolarizes membrane
  2. Voltage gated Na+ channels open at threshold (-55mV)
  3. Na+ enters cell, depolarizing it
  4. At 0 mV, Na+ channels close
  5. At +35 mV, K+ channels open
  6. K+ channels repolarize cell
  7. K+ channels remain open hyperpolarizing the cell
  8. RMP is restored
192
Q

Characteristics of an action potential

A
  1. not graded: strong stimulus does not produce a stronger action potential
  2. non-decremental: do not get weaker with distance
  3. irreversible: once fired goes to completion
193
Q

Why aren’t all nerve fibers large, myelinated, & fast?

A

it would make the nervous system very bulky & inefficient

194
Q

A nerve signal is what?

A

a chain reaction of action potentials

195
Q

Refractory membrane ensures what?

A

that the action potential travels in ONE direction

196
Q

Unmyelinated nerve fibers have what kind of conduction?

A

continuous conduction

197
Q

Myelinated nerve fibers have what kind of conduction?

A

saltatory conduction
signal “jumps” from node to node

198
Q

On myelinated nerve fibers, where can action potentials occur?

A

only at nodes of Ranvier
this is what gives the appearance of the signal “jumping”

199
Q

How does myelin speed up signal conduction?

A

by minimizing leakage of Na+ out of the cells & separating the inner positive ions from attraction of outside negative ions

200
Q

What is a synapse?

A

where pre & post synaptic neurons meet

201
Q

A presynaptic neuron can synapse with what 3 things?

A

dendrites
the soma of a postsynaptic neuron
the axon of a postsynaptic neuron

202
Q

What are the types of synapses based by site of contact?

A

axodendritic synapse
axosomatic synapse
axoaxonic synapse

203
Q

What are the types of synapses based by transmission mechanisms?

A

electrical & chemical synapses

204
Q

What do electrical synapses have that chemical synapses do not?

A

gap junctions

205
Q

Define electrical synapses

A

has gap junctions between pre & postsynaptic membranes that allow direct flow of current

206
Q

Define chemical synapses

A

has no direct flow of current
rely on neurotransmitters

207
Q

What is a synaptic cleft?

A

a gap between pre & post synaptic cells

208
Q

How are neurotransmitters released into the cleft?

A

via exocytosis

209
Q

Define neurotransmitters

A

molecules that are released when a signal reaches a synaptic cleft that binds to a receptor on another cell & alters its physiology

210
Q

What are the major chemical categories of neurotransmitters?

A

acetylcholine
monoamines
amino acid neurotransmitters
purines

211
Q

What do neuromodulators do?

A

modulate the activity to neuron groups in various ways

212
Q

How can neuromodulators modulate the activity of neuron groups?

A
  1. increasing release by presynaptic neurons
  2. adjusting sensitivity of postsynaptic neurons
  3. altering rate of breakdown
213
Q

What are 2 neuromodulators?

A

gases (nitric oxide)
neuropeptides (endorphins)

214
Q

Who was awarded the Nobel prize in 1936?

A

Loewi & Dale

215
Q

What does an excitatory cholinergic synapse use as its neurotransmitter?

A

acetylcholine

216
Q

Describe the process of an excitatory cholinergic synapse

A
  1. signal arrives & opens voltage gated Ca2+ channels
  2. Ca2+ enders cell
  3. ACh released & binds to postsynaptic receptors
  4. Na+ & K+ diffuse into cell
  5. action potential generated
217
Q

What proteins are involved in neurotransmitter release?

A

v-SNARE & t-SNARE (SNARE complex when bound together)

218
Q

Influx of what triggers the release of neurotransmitters?

A

Ca2+

219
Q

What prevents membrane fusion?

A

complexin protein & synaptotagmin without bound Ca2+ binding to the SNARE complex

220
Q

What does an inhibitory GABA-ergic synapse use as its neurotransmitter?

A

game-aminobutyric acid

221
Q

GABA receptors are what kind of channels?

A

chloride channels

222
Q

An excitatory adrenergic synapse uses what as its neurotransmitter?

A

norepinephrine
acts through second messengers like cAMP

223
Q

For an adrenergic synapse, what is the receptors?

A

GPCR
(G-protein coupled receptor)

224
Q

Describe the process of an excitatory adrenergic synapse

A
  1. norepinephrine binds to G-protein
  2. G-protein dissociates & binds to adenylate cyclase
  3. cAMP is released
  4. ligand-gated channels open
  5. cell depolarizes
225
Q

Define neural integration

A

the ability of neurons to process info, store & recall it, & make decisions

226
Q

Define excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

A

any voltage change above resting membrane potential that makes a neuron more likely to fire

227
Q

EPSPs usually result from what?

A

Na+ flowing INTO the cell

228
Q

What excitatory brain neurotransmitters produce EPSPs?

A

glutamate & aspartate

229
Q

Define inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)

A

when a neurotransmitters hyperpolarizes the postsynaptic cell & makes it less likely to fire

230
Q

IPSPs usually result from what?

A

chloride flowing INTO the cell or K+ flowing OUT

231
Q

What are inhibitory brain neurotransmitters that produce IPSPs?

A

glycine & GABA

232
Q

Where does summation occur?

A

in the trigger zone

233
Q

Describe summation

A

the process of adding up postsynaptic potentials & responding to their net effect

234
Q

Describe temporal summation

A

a SINGLE synapse generates EPSPs so fast that the one before has not finished

235
Q

Describe spatial summation

A

EPSPs from MULTIPLE synapses add up

236
Q

Define neural coding

A

nervous system converts QUALITATIVE info to a meaningful pattern of APs

237
Q

What is the most important mechanism for transmitting qualitative info?

A

labeled line code
(brain interprets based on the labeled neuron that the signal comes from)

238
Q

In neural coding, qualitative info is..

A

where the stimulus is coming from

239
Q

In neural coding, quantitative info is..

A

how strong the stimulus is

240
Q

What are the 4 types of neural circuits

A

diverging
converging
reverberating
parallel after-discharge

241
Q

Describe a diverging circuit

A

ONE neuron sends signals to multiple neurons
signals going OUT of the brain

242
Q

Describe a converging circuit

A

signals from MULTIPLE neurons all come together at one point
signals coming back to the brain

243
Q

Describe reverberating circuit

A

neurons stimulate each other in a linear sequence but some send signals back to neurons earlier in the path
is a loop (positive feedback) stopped by inhibitory signal

244
Q

What neural circuit can play a role in seizures?

A

reverberating circuit

245
Q

Describe parallel after-discharge circuit

A

ONE neuron stimulates several CHAINS

246
Q

Describe mechanoreceptors

A

sensory structures that respond to touch, pain, & temp
are Na+/Ca2+ channels

247
Q

What organism is used for research of mechanoreceptors?

A

C. elegans & heier MEC proteins

248
Q

What receptor is used for salty & sour tastes?

A

channel proteins

249
Q

What receptor is used for sweetness & bitterness?

A

GPCR

250
Q

Describe the structure of an olfactory receptor neuron

A

have 1 dendrite that ends in a dendritic knob that has cilia extending into the nasal mucus

251
Q

What catalyzes cAMP from ATP?

A

adenylyl cyclase

252
Q

What hydrolyzes cAMP?

A

cAMP phosphodiesterase

253
Q

Describe memory trace

A

memory pathway where new synapses form or existing synapses are modified

254
Q

The ability of synapses to change is called what?

A

synaptic plasticity

255
Q

Define immediate memory

A

ability to hold a memory in mind for a few seconds

256
Q

What circuit is immediate memory based on?

A

reverberating

257
Q

Define working memory

A

a form of short term memory that allows you to hold an idea long enough to perform an action

258
Q

Define post-tetanic potentiation

A

memories lasting for a few hours

259
Q

How long does short term memory last?

A

few seconds to a few hours

260
Q

What taste can directly depolarize the membrane?

A

salt taste

261
Q

What taste uses H+ to block K+ channels to depolarize the membrane?

A

sour taste

262
Q

What tastes use GPCRs to elevate Ca2+ levels that open Na+ channels to depolarize the cell?

A

sweet, bitter, umami tastes

263
Q

Describe the signal transduction from olfactory GPCRs

A
  1. odorant binds & releases active Galpha-GTP
  2. AC3 produces cAMP
  3. influx of Na+ & Ca2+
  4. cell depolarizes
264
Q

What are the 2 forms of long term memory?

A

explicit & implicit

265
Q

Describe explicit memory

A

retention of events that you can put into words
“physical memories”

266
Q

Describe implicit memory

A

retention of emotions or motor skills
“emotional & procedural memories”

267
Q

What is long term potentiation?

A

a process involving persistent strengthening of synapses
involves NMDA receptors

268
Q

What blocks NMDA receptors?

A

magnesium ions

269
Q

What is the model organism for studying synaptic plasticity & memory?

A

Aplysia californica
(sea slug)

270
Q

Sensitization is accompanied by what?

A

the growth of new connections between the sensory & motor neurons

271
Q

Habituation is accompanied by what?

A

a decrease in the number of connections between the sensory & motor neurons

272
Q

What erases long term memories?

A

long term depression (LTD)

273
Q

What is required for memory formation?

A

the hippocampus

274
Q

How does long term depression affect receptors in the post synaptic?

A

decreases the number of receptors, decreasing the response
(long term potentiation does the opposite)

275
Q

Mutation in FMRP (proteins) causes what mental disorder?

A

fragile X syndrome

276
Q

Mutation in FMRI gene causes what?

A

autism

277
Q

What are the 2 types of immunity?

A

innate & adaptive

278
Q

Describe innate immunity

A

body recognizes any pathogen
dos not require previous exposure

279
Q

Describe adaptive immunity

A

immune system specifically targets CERTAIN pathogens
has specific recognition of antigens

280
Q

Describe plasma

A

blood without cells

281
Q

Describe serum

A

blood without cells or proteins

282
Q

What are platelets?

A

cell-like bodies that clump to prevent blood from leaking out when vessels are damaged

283
Q

Describe erythrocytes

A

RBCs
have no nucleus & carry O2

284
Q

All white blood cells (leukocytes) start as what & where?

A

start in bone marrow as stem cells

285
Q

3 classes of leukocytes

A

granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils)
monocytes (macrophages, dendritic cells)
lymphocytes (B & T cells)

286
Q

What is lymph?

A

fluid with WBCs that bathes tissues

287
Q

What are the primary lymphoid organs?

A

bone marrow & thymus

288
Q

What are the secondary lymphoid organs?

A

lymph nodes, spleen, MALT

289
Q

What are the functions of the lymphatic system?

A

absorption of fat & excess fluid, immunity

290
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

in bone marrow

291
Q

Where do T cells mature?

A

in thymus gland

292
Q

What are lymph nodes & what do they do?

A

nodules in lymphatic veins
function to filter & purify lymph fluid

293
Q

What is the function of the spleen?

A

to filter blood

294
Q

What mediates innate immunity?

A

physical & chemical barriers
phagocytes
cytokines

295
Q

Describe cell mediated immunity (CMI)

A

LYMPHOCYTES recognize specific antigens

296
Q

Describe humoral immunity

A

ANTIBODIES recognize the antigen

297
Q

What are the 2 types of cells involved in innate immunity?

A
  1. neutrophils
  2. monocytes & macrophages
298
Q

How do neutrophils work for innate immunity?

A

they circulate through the blood & bone marrow & migrate to sites of infection causing an inflammatory response

299
Q

How do monocytes & macrophages work for innate immunity?

A

monocytes circulate through the blood & lymph & have macrophages on their surface to present the antigen

300
Q

What are PAMPs?

A

pathogen-associated molecular patterns
structural components on a particular PAHTOGEN

301
Q

What are PRRs?

A

pattern recognition receptors
HOST proteins that interact with PAMPs on pathogens

302
Q

What is an example of PRR?

A

TLR

303
Q

During innate immunity, what are released by host cells in response to PRR binding to PAMP?

A

interferons which activate immune cells

304
Q

How do macrophages & phagocytes take action during innate immunity?

A
  1. recognition & engulfment of pathogen
  2. produce antigen
  3. antigen presented on macrophage cell surface
  4. antigen presented to T & B cells
  5. immune response
305
Q

How can phagocytes kill bacteria?

A

acid attack
phagocyte stimulation
toxic oxygen

306
Q

How can pathogens fight against phagocytes?

A

production of anti-oxidants (to give resistance)
production of leucocidins (to kill phagocytes)
capsules (to block adherence of phagocyte)

307
Q

What are the 3 fundamental characteristics of adaptive (specific) immune response?

A

specificity
memory
tolerance (protects host cells from immune response)

308
Q

What do T-cells have that allow them to recognize a specific antigen?

A

antigen specific T cell receptors (TCRs)

309
Q

What part of a TCR binds to the antigen?

A

variable region

310
Q

What part of a TCR is integrated in the membrane & very specific?

A

constant region

311
Q

What cells are responsible for producing antibodies?

A

B cells

312
Q

What do antigens (from pathogens) interact with?

A

antibodies or TCRs

313
Q

Antigens are what?

A

immumnogens

314
Q

What are immunogens?

A

substances that induce an immune response

315
Q

What are haptens?

A

antigens that bind to antibodies but cannot induce an immune response unless bound to a large carrier

316
Q

What INTRINSIC factors affect the ability of an antigen to induce an immune response?

A

molecular size
complexity
form (more insoluble, better immunogen)

317
Q

What EXTRINSIC factors affect the ability of an antigen to induce an immune response?

A

dose size
route of entry
foreign nature (more foreign better response)

318
Q

What are ineffective immunogens?

A

small molecules
sugars
nucleic acids

319
Q

What are effective immunogens?

A

proteins

320
Q

What are epitopes?

A

the part of the antigen that directly binds to the antibody or TCR

321
Q

What is a homologous antigen?

A

epitope that antibody recognizes to stimulate an immune response

322
Q

What is a heterologous antigen?

A

epitope where the antibody ACCIDENTALLY binds
interaction is a cross reaction

323
Q

What are the 2 kinds of adaptive immunity?

A

cell mediated
antibody mediated

324
Q

What is cell mediated immunity?

A

pathogen infected host cells are immediately killed after recognized

325
Q

What is antibody mediated immunity?

A

pathogen is recognized & antibodies are developed
effective against bacteria & extracellular pathogens

326
Q

What cells process antigens?

A

antigen presenting cells

327
Q

What do antigen presenting cells have to have on their surface to present the antigen?

A

major histocompatibility complex (MHC)

328
Q

What do cytotoxic T cells (TC cells) do?

A

invade infected cells & destroy them

329
Q

What do T helper cells (TH cells) do?

A

interact with the antigen & secrete cytokines that activate host defense OR stimulate B cells to produce antibodies

330
Q

Antigen presentation requires what 2 things?

A

T cell receptors (TCRs)
MHC (on antigens)

331
Q

What class of MHC proteins presents antigens to cytotoxic T cells?

A

class I

332
Q

What class of MHC proteins presents antigens to helper T cells?

A

class II

333
Q

Cytotoxic T cells have what kind of receptors?

A

CD8+

334
Q

Helper T cells have what kind of receptors?

A

CD4+

335
Q

What transporter delivers degraded pathogens to the interior of the ER to get loaded onto MHC protein?

A

TAP

336
Q

Successful recognition of an antigenic peptide-MHC complex by a T cell receptor requires what?

A

a good fit among the receptor, antigen, & MHC molecule

337
Q

What do class II MHC proteins have that prevent it from binding cellular peptides?

A

invariant chain

BMS 521 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions