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Physiology > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

RBC function

A

carry O2 bound to Hb
transport CO2, waste, nutrients,hormones

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2
Q

WBC function

A

host immune defense
consists granulocytes, lymphocytes and monocytes

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3
Q

platelet function

A

primarily hemostasis (clotting) wound healing via growth factors such as IGF-1

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4
Q

identify the lineage of erythroid cells in the bone marrow

A
  1. erythroblast/rubriblast
  2. prorubicyte
  3. rubricyte
    4.metarubricyte
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5
Q

describe a metarubricyte

A

nucleated RBC
last stage before a mature RBC
round, condensed nucleus with pale cytoplasm

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6
Q

describe a neutrophil

A

granules stains neutrally
nucleus basophilic either segmented or band

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7
Q

describe a eosinophil

A

granules stain eosinophilic (pink)
segmented nucleus

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8
Q

describe a basophil

A

granules stain basophilic
segmented nucleus

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9
Q

describe lymphocytes

A

basophilic nucleus take up majority of the cytoplasm
no granules

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10
Q

describe monocytes

A

basophilic cytoplasm but has clear staining vacuoles
segmented nucleus
no granules

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11
Q

identify the lineage of myeloid cells in the bone marrow

A
  1. myeloblast
  2. promyelocyte
  3. myelocyte
  4. metamyelocyte
  5. band neutrophil
  6. segmented neutrophil
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12
Q

if there is a chronic bacterial infection, which neutrophil are you more likely to see?

A

band neutrophils

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13
Q

describe a metamyelocyte

A

basophilic bean shaped nucleus with slight indentation
clear cytoplasm

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14
Q

describe a megakaryocyte

A

precursor to platelets
much larger than RBC, basophilic and have nuclear mass

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15
Q

explain the general principles of maturation of blood cells from bone marrow to peripheral blood

A
  1. pluripotent stem cell - capable of self renewal and differentiation
  2. progenitor - lineage committed, colony forming units
  3. blast cell (precursors) - e.g. erythroid, myeloid, megakaryocyte
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16
Q

describe a reticulocyte and explain its significance in peripheral blood of increased numbers of them

A

anucleate RBC recently released from bone marrow, has RNA, remnant golgi, ER and mitochondria
stains basophilic
increased # of them correlates with body’s appropriate response to anemia due to more production of RBC

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17
Q

how do reticulocytes differ in dogs/cats, horses and cows

A

dogs/cats: 1-2% of RBC are reticulocytes
horses: reticulocytes never present
cows: reticulocytes not present in health

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18
Q

describe platelets

A

anucleate
disks/oval/elongated
fine purple granules
smaller than RBC

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19
Q

list the differences between aspiration cytology and bone marrow core biopsy

A

aspiration cytology is liquid marrow as a thin smear

bone marrow core biopsy is a piece of intact tissue + formalin/paraffin + sectioned

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20
Q

where are the most common sites for a bone marrow core biopsy

A

proximal ends of long bones and ribs in adults
pelvis and sternum in horses
other sites include scapulae and skull

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21
Q

what are the three positive regulators of hematopoiesis

A
  1. granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
  2. erythropoietin
  3. thrombopoietin
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22
Q

what does an aspiration cytology tell you? bone marrow core biopsy?

A

aspiration cytology tells you an estimation of cells

core biopsy tells you cellular accuracy

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23
Q

function of the lymphatic system

A

transport of fluid (lymph)
innate immunity
adaptive immunity

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24
Q

describe the lymphatic fluid drainage from peripheral tissues to circulatory system

A

afferent lymphatic vessel
cortex
paracortex/medulla
efferent lymphatic vessel
vessels (capillaries/lacteals)
trunks

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25
Q

what are lacteals

A

lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine that absorb digestive fats and carry chylomicrons to lymph

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26
Q

what are the two types of ducts? what do they drain?

A

tracheal duct - drains head/forelimbs
thoracic duct - drains hindlimb/GI

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27
Q

what is the cisterna chyli

A

headquarters of the thoracic duct where fluid of the periphery drains into

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28
Q

what is chylous fluid? what happens if the thoracic duct ruptures due to trauma?

A

chylous fluid - fluid directly from the thoracic duct
if the TD ruptures, chylous fluid enters the peritoneal cavity “chylothorax/abdomen”

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29
Q

what is lymphangiectasia

A

lymph fluid leaks into interstitial space due to dilated lacteals or hypoproteinemia

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30
Q

what are the components of the lymphatic system

A

primary lymphoid organs
secondary lymphoid organs
diffuse lymphatic tissue
lymphatic vessels

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31
Q

list the primary lymphoid organs

A

bone marrow
thymus
cloacal bursa in birds
gut associated lymphoid tissues (GALTs)

32
Q

list the secondary lymphoid organs

A

lymph nodes
spleen
mucosal associated lymphoid tissues (MALTs) such as the tonsils
hemal node in ruminants

33
Q

what are the main lymph nodes

A

submandibular node
cervical/prescapular node
axillary node
superficial inguinal node
popliteal node
abdominal node
sternal node
cranial mediastinal
tracheobronchial
lumbar

34
Q

name the type of lymphocytes that occupy the follicles or diffuse lymphoid tissues

A

nodular/follicular = B cells
–> primary nodule = inactive B cells
–> secondary nodules = germinal center with activated B cells

diffuse = T cells and macrophages

cortex has nodular and diffuse tissue; medulla diffuse only

35
Q

describe a tissue section of the thymus

A

lobules with dark cortex and light medulla
contains no nodules (no B cells)
diffuse tissue only

36
Q

what organ filters lymph and what organ filters blood

A

lymph nodes

spleen - red pulp/white pulp, no cortex or medulla, contains PALS (T cells)

37
Q

what does chylomicrons contain

A

triglycerides from gut absorption
cholesterol
phospholipids

38
Q

what is the hilus of a lymph node

A

where the efferent lymphatic vessel and artery/vein are

39
Q

describe components of the spleen

A

nodules = B cells
PALS = T cells
marginal zone = macrophages
red pulp = macrophages, reticular cells, stored RBC
stroma = reticular cells

40
Q

what is unique about the spleen in the horse

A

stores RBC

41
Q

List the 3 contributors to end-diastolic volume

A

preload
ventricular compliance
diastolic filling time

42
Q

State the 2 determinants of end-systolic volume

A

afterload
contractility of myocardial cells (extrinsic)

43
Q

examples of increased afterload

A

aortic stenosis
pulmonary hypertension
systemic hypertension

44
Q

Contributors of myocardial oxygen supply

A

diastolic blood pressure (increase in diastolic bp = increase flow to the heart)
coronary resistance in diastole (coronary resistance needs to be decreased to increase flow to the heart)
Arterial oxygen content (arterial oxygen content needs to be stable from normal pulmonary function)

45
Q

Contributors of myocardial oxygen demand (cardiac work)

A

wall stress/tension (increased wall stress/tension requires more O2)
heart rate (increased HR requires increased O2 demand)
inotropic state (contractility) (increased contractility requires increased O2 demand)

46
Q

Myocardial work can be reduced clinically

A

reduced contractility via Ca channel blockers
decreased heart rate
decreased wall stress or tension

47
Q

what is the difference between laminar flow and turbulent flow

A

laminar - silent, occurs up to a critical velocity
turbulent - creates sound, occurs with increased velocity or direction change; examples include regurgitation or stenosis, murmurs

48
Q

what is the S1 sound due to

A

closer of AV valves
ventricular systole

49
Q

what is the S2 sound due to

A

closer of semilunar valves
ventricular diastole

50
Q

what is the S3 sound due to

A

rapid ventricular filling
associated with canine dilated cardiomyopathy

51
Q

what is the S4 sound due to

A

atrial contraction
associated with canine hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

52
Q

Describe how capillary structure makes this class of vessels uniquely suited to participate in exchange of fluid and molecules between intravascular and interstitial compartments

A

extensive branching
narrow capillary lumen
single layer of endothelial cells with thin, semipermeable walls
large surface area
slow velocity due to branching and large cross sectional area

53
Q

List the key functions of the endothelium

A

Regulation of vascular tone
leukocyte adhesion and diapedesis
coagulation and fibrinolysis
vascular permeability & transport
angiogenesis
smooth muscle cell proliferation

54
Q

Name the 2 key functions of nitric oxide that relate to vascular tone and hemostasis

A

Relaxation of arteriolar smooth muscle (vasodilation)

Inhibition of platelet aggregation and adhesion, and fibrinogen cross binding

55
Q

list at least 2 conditions seen in veterinary patients that reduce nitric oxide bioavailability

A

Hyperglycemia
obesity/dyslipidemia/high fat diets
sepsis/endotoxemia
Increased oxidative stress
Hypercholesterolemia

56
Q

list the 3 principal steps in the process of hemostasis

A
  1. vascular spasm/vasoconstriction
  2. formation of platelet plug
  3. coagulation
57
Q

requirements for the intrinsic pathway of hemostasis

A

factor XII
exposed collagen or foreign substance

58
Q

requirements for the extrinsic pathway of hemostasis

A

Ca2+
factor VII
tissue factor

59
Q

roles of protein C

A

anticoagulant via inhibits tPA inhibitor, inhibits factor V and VIII thus resulting in no clot formation

60
Q

role of antithrombin III

A

majority of anticoagulant activity in the blood
facilitated by heparin

61
Q

role of tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)

A

inhibits factor X and II

62
Q

role of plasmin

A

increases fibrinolysis

63
Q

absorption of thrombin into fibrin clot

A

decreased thrombin = decreased fibrin

64
Q

role or dilution/clearance by normal blood flow

A

get rid of the clot

65
Q

Name the cation that is necessary for normal coagulation.

A

Ca2+

66
Q

Describe the role of vitamin K in hemostasis, and state the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency in domestic animals.

A

cofactor for an enzyme that allows coagulation activation

most common cause of vitamin K deficiency = warfarin/coumadin in rodenticides which inhibit vit K

67
Q

Explain why patients with liver disease may have aberrant (abnormal) hemostasis.

A

primary production of procoagulants and anticoagulants EXCEPT VWF

hepatic dysfunction impaired clearance of activated coagulation factors & products of fibrinolysis = severe coagulopathy (excessive bleeding or clotting)

severe cholestasis can impair absorption of fat soluble vitamins (vit K)

68
Q

where are the locations of baroreceptors

A

carotid bifurcation
aortic arch

69
Q

where do the baroreceptors send their signals to

A

medulla

70
Q

what nerve does the baroreceptors in the carotid bifurcation use?
baroreceptors in the aortic arch?

A

glossopharyngeal n.

vagus n.

71
Q

what are atrial volume receptors

A

low pressure baroreceptors located in the atria and large veins that sense the fullness or circulating volume

72
Q

what stimulates atrial volume receptors

A

low blood pressure due to decreased atrial volume

73
Q

what are the 4 responses to atrial volume responses

A
  1. autonomic = increased sympathetic activity, decreased parasympathetic
  2. renal response = increased renin for fluid retention
  3. pituitary response = increased ADH = increased BV = BP
  4. hypothalamic response = increased thirst = increased BV = BP
74
Q

fight or flight response vs vasovagal response

A

increased sympathetic tone (vasoconstriction in noncritical organs and vasodilation to heart/skeletal mm)

playing dead, decreased TPR, CO and HR in response to extreme threat, GI stimulation or pain; can result in syncope if cerebral blood flow inadequate

75
Q

why does the AV node have a long refractory period

A

prevents SA node from inducing too rapid ventricular response
prevent ventricular AP from being propagated in retrograde fashion back up to the atria

76
Q

hormonal regulation of electrical activity

A

E and NE from adrenal medulla
angiotensin II
thyroid hormones

77
Q

difference between class A and class B mammalian Purkinje system

A

A: dogs/cat/man/rodent - fibers terminate in subendocardium, QRS can provide info regarding relative size of ventricles; activations spreads
B: goat/horse/cow/sheep/pig - fibers terminate in subepicardium, little information can be obtained regarding ventricular mass (used primarily for rate/rhythm); activation occurs at multiple sites

Physiology (5 decks)

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