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Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

RBC function

A

carry O2 bound to Hb
transport CO2, waste, nutrients,hormones

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2
Q

WBC function

A

host immune defense
consists granulocytes, lymphocytes and monocytes

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3
Q

platelet function

A

primarily hemostasis (clotting) wound healing via growth factors such as IGF-1

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4
Q

identify the lineage of erythroid cells in the bone marrow

A
  1. erythroblast/rubriblast
  2. prorubicyte
  3. rubricyte
    4.metarubricyte
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5
Q

describe a metarubricyte

A

nucleated RBC
last stage before a mature RBC
round, condensed nucleus with pale cytoplasm

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6
Q

describe a neutrophil

A

granules stains neutrally
nucleus basophilic either segmented or band

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7
Q

describe a eosinophil

A

granules stain eosinophilic (pink)
segmented nucleus

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8
Q

describe a basophil

A

granules stain basophilic
segmented nucleus

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9
Q

describe lymphocytes

A

basophilic nucleus take up majority of the cytoplasm
no granules

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10
Q

describe monocytes

A

basophilic cytoplasm but has clear staining vacuoles
segmented nucleus
no granules

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11
Q

identify the lineage of myeloid cells in the bone marrow

A
  1. myeloblast
  2. promyelocyte
  3. myelocyte
  4. metamyelocyte
  5. band neutrophil
  6. segmented neutrophil
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12
Q

if there is a chronic bacterial infection, which neutrophil are you more likely to see?

A

band neutrophils

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13
Q

describe a metamyelocyte

A

basophilic bean shaped nucleus with slight indentation
clear cytoplasm

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14
Q

describe a megakaryocyte

A

precursor to platelets
much larger than RBC, basophilic and have nuclear mass

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15
Q

explain the general principles of maturation of blood cells from bone marrow to peripheral blood

A
  1. pluripotent stem cell - capable of self renewal and differentiation
  2. progenitor - lineage committed, colony forming units
  3. blast cell (precursors) - e.g. erythroid, myeloid, megakaryocyte
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16
Q

describe a reticulocyte and explain its significance in peripheral blood of increased numbers of them

A

anucleate RBC recently released from bone marrow, has RNA, remnant golgi, ER and mitochondria
stains basophilic
increased # of them correlates with body’s appropriate response to anemia due to more production of RBC

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17
Q

how do reticulocytes differ in dogs/cats, horses and cows

A

dogs/cats: 1-2% of RBC are reticulocytes
horses: reticulocytes never present
cows: reticulocytes not present in health

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18
Q

describe platelets

A

anucleate
disks/oval/elongated
fine purple granules
smaller than RBC

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19
Q

list the differences between aspiration cytology and bone marrow core biopsy

A

aspiration cytology is liquid marrow as a thin smear

bone marrow core biopsy is a piece of intact tissue + formalin/paraffin + sectioned

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20
Q

where are the most common sites for a bone marrow core biopsy

A

proximal ends of long bones and ribs in adults
pelvis and sternum in horses
other sites include scapulae and skull

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21
Q

what are the three positive regulators of hematopoiesis

A
  1. granulocyte colony-stimulating factor
  2. erythropoietin
  3. thrombopoietin
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22
Q

what does an aspiration cytology tell you? bone marrow core biopsy?

A

aspiration cytology tells you an estimation of cells

core biopsy tells you cellular accuracy

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23
Q

function of the lymphatic system

A

transport of fluid (lymph)
innate immunity
adaptive immunity

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24
Q

describe the lymphatic fluid drainage from peripheral tissues to circulatory system

A

afferent lymphatic vessel
cortex
paracortex/medulla
efferent lymphatic vessel
vessels (capillaries/lacteals)
trunks

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25
what are lacteals
lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine that absorb digestive fats and carry chylomicrons to lymph
26
what are the two types of ducts? what do they drain?
tracheal duct - drains head/forelimbs thoracic duct - drains hindlimb/GI
27
what is the cisterna chyli
headquarters of the thoracic duct where fluid of the periphery drains into
28
what is chylous fluid? what happens if the thoracic duct ruptures due to trauma?
chylous fluid - fluid directly from the thoracic duct if the TD ruptures, chylous fluid enters the peritoneal cavity "chylothorax/abdomen"
29
what is lymphangiectasia
lymph fluid leaks into interstitial space due to dilated lacteals or hypoproteinemia
30
what are the components of the lymphatic system
primary lymphoid organs secondary lymphoid organs diffuse lymphatic tissue lymphatic vessels
31
list the primary lymphoid organs
bone marrow thymus cloacal bursa in birds gut associated lymphoid tissues (GALTs)
32
list the secondary lymphoid organs
lymph nodes spleen mucosal associated lymphoid tissues (MALTs) such as the tonsils hemal node in ruminants
33
what are the main lymph nodes
submandibular node cervical/prescapular node axillary node superficial inguinal node popliteal node abdominal node sternal node cranial mediastinal tracheobronchial lumbar
34
name the type of lymphocytes that occupy the follicles or diffuse lymphoid tissues
nodular/follicular = B cells --> primary nodule = inactive B cells --> secondary nodules = germinal center with activated B cells diffuse = T cells and macrophages cortex has nodular and diffuse tissue; medulla diffuse only
35
describe a tissue section of the thymus
lobules with dark cortex and light medulla contains no nodules (no B cells) diffuse tissue only
36
what organ filters lymph and what organ filters blood
lymph nodes spleen - red pulp/white pulp, no cortex or medulla, contains PALS (T cells)
37
what does chylomicrons contain
triglycerides from gut absorption cholesterol phospholipids
38
what is the hilus of a lymph node
where the efferent lymphatic vessel and artery/vein are
39
describe components of the spleen
nodules = B cells PALS = T cells marginal zone = macrophages red pulp = macrophages, reticular cells, stored RBC stroma = reticular cells
40
what is unique about the spleen in the horse
stores RBC
41
List the 3 contributors to end-diastolic volume
preload ventricular compliance diastolic filling time
42
State the 2 determinants of end-systolic volume
afterload contractility of myocardial cells (extrinsic)
43
examples of increased afterload
aortic stenosis pulmonary hypertension systemic hypertension
44
Contributors of myocardial oxygen supply
diastolic blood pressure (increase in diastolic bp = increase flow to the heart) coronary resistance in diastole (coronary resistance needs to be decreased to increase flow to the heart) Arterial oxygen content (arterial oxygen content needs to be stable from normal pulmonary function)
45
Contributors of myocardial oxygen demand (cardiac work)
wall stress/tension (increased wall stress/tension requires more O2) heart rate (increased HR requires increased O2 demand) inotropic state (contractility) (increased contractility requires increased O2 demand)
46
Myocardial work can be reduced clinically
reduced contractility via Ca channel blockers decreased heart rate decreased wall stress or tension
47
what is the difference between laminar flow and turbulent flow
laminar - silent, occurs up to a critical velocity turbulent - creates sound, occurs with increased velocity or direction change; examples include regurgitation or stenosis, murmurs
48
what is the S1 sound due to
closer of AV valves ventricular systole
49
what is the S2 sound due to
closer of semilunar valves ventricular diastole
50
what is the S3 sound due to
rapid ventricular filling associated with canine dilated cardiomyopathy
51
what is the S4 sound due to
atrial contraction associated with canine hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
52
Describe how capillary structure makes this class of vessels uniquely suited to participate in exchange of fluid and molecules between intravascular and interstitial compartments
extensive branching narrow capillary lumen single layer of endothelial cells with thin, semipermeable walls large surface area slow velocity due to branching and large cross sectional area
53
List the key functions of the endothelium
Regulation of vascular tone leukocyte adhesion and diapedesis coagulation and fibrinolysis vascular permeability & transport angiogenesis smooth muscle cell proliferation
54
Name the 2 key functions of nitric oxide that relate to vascular tone and hemostasis
Relaxation of arteriolar smooth muscle (vasodilation) Inhibition of platelet aggregation and adhesion, and fibrinogen cross binding
55
list at least 2 conditions seen in veterinary patients that reduce nitric oxide bioavailability
Hyperglycemia obesity/dyslipidemia/high fat diets sepsis/endotoxemia Increased oxidative stress Hypercholesterolemia
56
list the 3 principal steps in the process of hemostasis
1. vascular spasm/vasoconstriction 2. formation of platelet plug 3. coagulation
57
requirements for the intrinsic pathway of hemostasis
factor XII exposed collagen or foreign substance
58
requirements for the extrinsic pathway of hemostasis
Ca2+ factor VII tissue factor
59
roles of protein C
anticoagulant via inhibits tPA inhibitor, inhibits factor V and VIII thus resulting in no clot formation
60
role of antithrombin III
majority of anticoagulant activity in the blood facilitated by heparin
61
role of tissue factor pathway inhibitor (TFPI)
inhibits factor X and II
62
role of plasmin
increases fibrinolysis
63
absorption of thrombin into fibrin clot
decreased thrombin = decreased fibrin
64
role or dilution/clearance by normal blood flow
get rid of the clot
65
Name the cation that is necessary for normal coagulation.
Ca2+
66
Describe the role of vitamin K in hemostasis, and state the most common cause of vitamin K deficiency in domestic animals.
cofactor for an enzyme that allows coagulation activation most common cause of vitamin K deficiency = warfarin/coumadin in rodenticides which inhibit vit K
67
Explain why patients with liver disease may have aberrant (abnormal) hemostasis.
primary production of procoagulants and anticoagulants EXCEPT VWF hepatic dysfunction impaired clearance of activated coagulation factors & products of fibrinolysis = severe coagulopathy (excessive bleeding or clotting) severe cholestasis can impair absorption of fat soluble vitamins (vit K)
68
where are the locations of baroreceptors
carotid bifurcation aortic arch
69
where do the baroreceptors send their signals to
medulla
70
what nerve does the baroreceptors in the carotid bifurcation use? baroreceptors in the aortic arch?
glossopharyngeal n. vagus n.
71
what are atrial volume receptors
low pressure baroreceptors located in the atria and large veins that sense the fullness or circulating volume
72
what stimulates atrial volume receptors
low blood pressure due to decreased atrial volume
73
what are the 4 responses to atrial volume responses
1. autonomic = increased sympathetic activity, decreased parasympathetic 2. renal response = increased renin for fluid retention 3. pituitary response = increased ADH = increased BV = BP 4. hypothalamic response = increased thirst = increased BV = BP
74
fight or flight response vs vasovagal response
increased sympathetic tone (vasoconstriction in noncritical organs and vasodilation to heart/skeletal mm) playing dead, decreased TPR, CO and HR in response to extreme threat, GI stimulation or pain; can result in syncope if cerebral blood flow inadequate
75
why does the AV node have a long refractory period
prevents SA node from inducing too rapid ventricular response prevent ventricular AP from being propagated in retrograde fashion back up to the atria
76
hormonal regulation of electrical activity
E and NE from adrenal medulla angiotensin II thyroid hormones
77
difference between class A and class B mammalian Purkinje system
A: dogs/cat/man/rodent - fibers terminate in subendocardium, QRS can provide info regarding relative size of ventricles; activations spreads B: goat/horse/cow/sheep/pig - fibers terminate in subepicardium, little information can be obtained regarding ventricular mass (used primarily for rate/rhythm); activation occurs at multiple sites

Physiology (5 decks)

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