Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

VET 401 Basic Foundations > Exam 3 > Flashcards

Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

The 6 Roentgen Signs

A

Location
Number
Shape
Size
Opacity
Margination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The 5 Radiographic Opacities (from least to most dense)

A

Air
Fat
Fluid/water/soft tissue
Bone
Metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CNS components

A

Brain
Spinal cord
Neural components of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PNS components

A

Nerves
Peripheral ganglia
Neuromuscular junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Input zone

A

Receives incoming signals from other neurons/cells or the environment
Dendrites, cell body, nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Trigger zone

A

AKA integration zone
Initiates action potentials, where decision to produce a neural signals is made
Axon hillock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Conducting zone

A

Conducts action potentials in undiminishing fashion, often over long distances
Axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Output zone

A

Releases neurotransmitter that influences other cells, where transmission of information occurs
Axon terminals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Unipolar neuron

A

One single neurite emerges from soma and divides into 2 branches: central (axon) and peripheral (dendrites)
Rounded soma, sensory ganglia of spinal nerves (dorsal root ganglia) and some cranial nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bipolar neuron

A

A neurite emerges from each end of the soma (2 processes)
Elongated soma, retinal bipolar, sensory cochlear, vestibular ganglia, olfactory epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Multipolar neuron

A

Many neurites emerging from soma (one axon, many dendrites)
Most common classification in CNS
Cerebellar cortex: Purkinje
Brain cortex: pyramidal
Spinal cord: motor neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Anterograde transport

A

Slow, kinesin
Herpes virus travels from dorsal root ganglia to skin and mucosa during lytic cycle
Feline herpesvirus type 1 (FHV-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Retrograde transport

A

Fast, dynein
Neurotropic viruses and other pathogens use this route to reach soma
Herpes, rabies, polio, tetanus toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Electrical synapse

A

Bidirectional action potential
Gap junctions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Chemical synpase

A

Calcium channels cause synaptic vesicles to release neurotransmitters, binding of neurotransmitters to ligand-gated ion channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Steps 1 and 2 of chemical synapse

A

Action potentials arrive at axon terminal and voltage-gated calcium channels (VGCC) open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Steps 3 and 4 of chemical synapse

A

Calcium enters the cell and signals to vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Step 5 and 6 of chemical synapse

A

Vesicles move to the membrane and once docked, release neurotransmitters by exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Steps 7 and 8 of chemical synapse

A

Neurotransmitter diffuses across synaptic cleft and binds to receptors (anesthesia/analgesics inhibit this step)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Astrocyte

A

Most abundant cell (~40% CNS)
Astrocytic end-feet - expansions of the astrocyte ending process
Secrete ECM proteins that provide physiological support
Implicated in neurogenesis, cell migration, development, and regeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Microglia function and clinical implication

A

Phagocytic scavenger, highly motile, synaptic pruning, responsive to injury/infection/electric activity
Clinical implication: diabetic neuropathy from hyperactive microglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Oligodendrocyte function and clinical implication

A

Provides myelin, axonal metabolic support
Clinical implication: canine distemper virus (CDV) - demyelination in cerebellum affecting motor coordination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ependymal cells function and clinical implication

A

Conforms the neuroepithelial lining of the CNS ventricular system, CSF production
Clinical implication: hydrocephalus secondary to ependymal lining of inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CNS glial cells

A

Astrocytes, microglia, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

PNS glial cells

A

Satellite and Schwann cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CNS myelination patterns

A

One oligodendrocyte to several axons
No basal lamina or supporting connective tissue
No oligodendrocyte cytoplasm
Large perinodal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

PNS myelination patterns

A

One Schwann cell to one axon
Basal lamina and connective tissue
Schwann cell cytoplasm
Small perinodal space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

PNS large axons

A

Ensheathed and myelinated
Individual Schwann cell per internode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PNS small axons

A

Ensheathed but NOT myelinated
One Schwann cell per several axons
Ex: postganglionic axons of autonomic ganglia, small sensory neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Meninges

A

Triad of membranes enveloping the CNS for protection
(dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ventricles

A

From Latin “ventriculus”
Small chamber or cavity within a bodily organ
Literally “little belly” (venter = belly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Dura mater

A

“Tough mother”
Outermost membrane, fibroelastic cells, permeable to fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Arachnoid mater

A

“Spider-like mother”
Flat cells, impermeable to fluid
Arachnoid trabeculae, arachnoid space (CSF), arachnoid villi (CSF reabsorption into venous circulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Pia mater

A

“Tender mother”
Innermost membrane, flat cells, fully envelops CNS following its contour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

CSF function

A

Clear, colorless, low protein fluid that surrounds and permeate entire CNS for protection and nourishment
Continual turnover (~3-4/day) partially regulated by osmotic pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

CSF production

A

Choroid plexus (lateral and fourth ventricles)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

CSF circulation

A

Subarachnoid space
Third ventricle, to mesencephalic aqueduct, to choroid plexus fourth ventricle, to median aperture, to central canal and subarachnoid space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

CSF absorption

A

Venous sinuses, arachnoid villi to dorsal (superior) sagittal sinus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ganglion/ganglia

A

Cluster of neuron cell bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Nerve

A

Bundle of axons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Fascicles

A

Myelinated axons, unmyelinated axons
Myelin sheath
Schwann cells
Endoneurium, endoneurial capillaries
Perineurium
Connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Extrafascicular

A

Adipose tissue
Blood vessel
Epineurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Dorsal root ganglia (DRG)

A

Sensory ganglia or intervertebral ganglia
Pseudounipolar neurons organized in clusters
Myelinated axons between clusters
Sensory neurons surrounded by many satellite cells and basal lamina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Sympathetic ganglia

A

Paravertebral ganglia
Multipolar neurons
Less organized than DRG
Unmyelinated axons loosely cross between neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The central nervous system (CNS) is comprised of the cerebrum, spinal cord, and neural components of the…

A

Eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Chemical synapse includes multiple steps for its completion from the moment that the action potential reaches the presynaptic terminal to the neurotransmitter binding to the receptors at the postsynaptic terminal, including
a. Ca2+ binding to dynein and kinesin
b. Ca2+ entry through VGCC
c. Ca2+ intake through synaptic cleft
d. Ca2+ release from neurotransmitter vesicles

A

Calcium entry through VGCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Tanycytes are specialized ependymal cells with basal membrane protrusions that surround the blood vessels mostly at the
a. central canal
b. fourth ventricle
c. lateral ventricles
d. third ventricle

A

Third ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Neuroinvasion of neurotropic viruses, like rabies, herpes, and tetanus, reach the soma via ____. Some of these viruses, like FHV-1 could remain quiescent during resurface during the lytic phase via ____.

A

Retrograde transport
Anterograde transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid is an ultrafiltration of blood serum with equal osmolarity and sodium milliequivalents but,
a. higher glucose
b. higher potassium
c. lower pH
d. lower water present

A

Lower pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Higher protein content in the CSF is the clinical implication when ultrafiltration fails to occur at the

A

Blood-CSF barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

External hydrocephalus is the result of a disruption in the one-way-valve system that allows drainage of CSF (higher to lower pressure) from CNS back into systemic circulation. This disruption occurs at the
a. arachnoid villi
b. blood-brain barrier
c. blood-CSF barrier
d. retina-CSF barrier

A

Arachnoid villi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The ___ is the most restrictive physiologic barrier in any organism

A

Blood-brain barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What do you think is the condition of Oreo and Kahlua and its underlying cause?

A

Congenital malformation that interferes with CSF flow causing internal hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Arachnoid mater consists of the spongy arachnoid trabeculae, the arachnoid space filled with CSF, and arachnoid villi that pass through the dura into the venous sinuses and the pia mater is…

A

Innermost layer that fully envelops CNS parenchyma following its contour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Node of Ranvier features

A

No myelin
VGSC
Na+/K+ ATPase
Na+/Ca2+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Juxtaparanode features

A

VGKC
High myelin content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Paranode features

A

Paranodal loops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Internode features

A

High myelin content

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

____ have clusters of unipolar neurons with higher density of satellite cells per neuron and bundles of myelinated axons around neurons’ clusters, while the ____ have scattered multipolar neurons with unmyelinated axons loosely crossing across neuron and are surrounded by a capsule and adipose tissue
a. basal ganglia, paravertebral ganglia
b. dorsal root ganglia, parasympathetic ganglia
c. paravertebral ganglia, intervertebral ganglia
d. sensory ganglia, sympathetic ganglia

A

Sensory ganglia
Sympathetic ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Dysfunctional ion channels either genetic or acquired, could disturb channel function by altering voltage sensitivity, chemical interaction, and even mechanical perturbation. These disorders are collectively known as

A

Channelopathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The outer zones of neural tissue in the CNS that contains neuronal cell bodies, aka gray matter, are

A

Cerebral and cerebellar cortices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The ____ are bundles of axons in the CNS, while they are classified as ____ in the PNS

A

Tracts
Nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

High frequency transducers

A

Use linear array
Advantages: imaging small parts (thyroid), better resolution
Disadvantages: poor penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Low frequency transducers

A

Use curved array
Advantages: better depth penetration (horses, cows, large dogs), deeper margins of structures
Disadvantages: resolution is decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Gold standard transducers

A

Use a tightly curved array
Blended probes are cutting edge in technology and incorporate multiple frequency crystals which work in conjunction
Good depth penetration and spatial resolution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Echogenic

A

Having/producing echoes
Something is bright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Isogenic

A

Having some echo/brightness
Shades of gray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Anechoic

A

Free/devoid of echoes
(ex: urine, bile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How is depth calculated

A

Distance = rate * time / 2
Rate is fixed (1540 m/s), time calculated by machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Ultrasound signal propagation speed (slowest to fastest)

A

Air (331 m/s)
Water (1540 m/s)
Liver tissue (1549 m/s)
Kidney tissue (1561 m/s)
Bone (4080 m/s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Shorter wavelength

A

Higher resolution
Lower depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Higher wavelength

A

Lower resolution
Higher depth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Determinants of image quality

A

Frequency of transducer
Number of crystals in transducer
Machine quality
Patient size, shape, type of examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Attenuation

A

Absorption (heat)
Scattering (not mapped, useless)
Reflection (mapped)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Acoustic impedance

A

Resistance for propagation of sound waves
Aids in ability to distinguish each organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Tissues with high acoustic impedance

A

Difficult to image
Ex: stones/mineral (ultrasound waves cannot penetrate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Larger differences in acoustic impedance at interfaces

A

Causes more reflection
Echogenic interface (white)
Cannot see deep to the interface (bone, gas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Smaller differences in acoustic impedance at interfaces

A

Allows for sound to pass between tissues (liver to kidney)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Reverberation artifact

A

Sound bouncing back and forth between 2 strong reflectors (discrete bands)
“Dirty” acoustic shadowing from small reflectors (few reflectors create multiple regular lines on screen)
Ex: gas, skin surface, mineral (rare)
Synonyms: comet tail, ringdown, regular arrangement of echoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Dirty shadowing

A

Distal to gas
Gas mixed with mucous, gas in colon
Inhomogeneous due to multiple reflectors (soft tissue gas interference, 99% of beam is reflected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Clean (hard) shadowing

A

Distal to mineral
Calculus (urinary or biliary), bone (skeletal or ingested)
Hyperechoic interface with trapezoidal anechoic region in far field, bright white interface with black distally
Watch focus settings
Usually between soft bone/mineral interface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Acoustic enhancement

A

Through transmission artifact, increased echogenicity distal to anechoic (fluid-filled) structure, black with brightness deep, fluid-filled structures
Ex: cysts, gallbladder, urinary bladder, peritoneal fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Edge shadowing artifact

A

Ultrasound beam strikes curved surface, beam either bent inward or outward
Refraction may be convergent or divergent
Results in lack of echoes returned to transducer from line of sight
Ex: kidney, bladder, cystic structures

84
Q

Mirror image artifact

A

Results in mirror image across a strong reflector
Sound beam is reflected 3 times then mapped image is projected deeper than it actually is (mismapped)
Improper depth settings on machine

85
Q

Useful artifacts

A

Acoustic shadowing (clean - bone mineral, dirty - gas)
Acoustic enhancement

86
Q

Useless artifacts

A

Mirror image
Edge shadowing

87
Q

The parasympathetic nervous system influences function in all of these organs EXCEPT
a. heart
b. pupillary smooth muscles
c. salivary glands
d. adrenal glands

A

Adrenal glands

88
Q

Paravertebral or chain ganglia contain the cell bodies of what kind of neurons
a. parasympathetic postganglionic nerves
b. sympathetic preganglionic nerves
c. sympathetic postganglionic nerves
d. parasympathetic preganglionic nerves
e. spinal afferent neurons

A

Sympathetic postganglionic nerves

89
Q

The autonomic outflow from the sacral spinal cord contains what kind of neurons
a. parasympathetic postganglionic nerves
b. sympathetic preganglionic nerves
c. sympathetic postganglionic nerves
d. parasympathetic preganglionic nerves
e. spinal afferent neurons

A

Parasympathetic preganglionic neurons

90
Q

Some of the nerves that innervate lymph nodes have been determined to be adrenergic. This would suggest that
a. the parasympathetic nervous system may influence lymph node activity
b. the sympathetic nervous system must act to enhance lymph node activity
c. the parasympathetic nervous system has no effect on lymph node activity
d. the sympathetic nervous system may influence lymph node activity

A

The sympathetic nervous system may influence lymph node activity

91
Q

Prevertebral ganglia contain the cell bodies of which kind of neuron
a. parasympathetic postganglionic nerves
b. sympathetic preganglionic nerves
c. sympathetic postganglionic nerves
d. parasympathetic preganglionic nerves
e. spinal afferent neurons

A

Sympathetic postganglionic nerves

92
Q

The autonomic outflow from the lumbar spinal cord contains what kind of neurons
a. parasympathetic postganglionic nerves
b. sympathetic preganglionic nerves
c. sympathetic postganglionic nerves
d. parasympathetic preganglionic nerves
e. spinal afferent neurons

A

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons

93
Q

The synapse between the preganglionic and postganglionic neuron in the parasympathetic nervous system is found in the
a. terminal ganglia
b. paravertebral ganglia
c. prevertebral ganglia

A

Terminal ganglia

94
Q

CT advantages/disadvantage

A

High detail cross-sectional images, minimal anatomic superimposition, ability to reformat to view anatomy in any plane or 3D
Dense tissues appear brighter

95
Q

MRI advantages/disadvantages

A

Not reliant on differences in tissue densities, relies on magnetic properties of molecules (must have magnetic moment/NMR signal)
Image production based on RF signal produced after relaxation from high energy to low energy state

96
Q

Cytotoxic edema

A

Cell swelling from ischemia
Na/K pump dysfunction
Intracellular
Gray and white matter

97
Q

Hydrostatic edema

A

Transependymal fluid transit
Obstructive hydrocephalus
Extracellular

98
Q

Vasogenic edema

A

Disruption of blood-brain barrier (loosening of tight junctions)
Extravasation of high protein edema
Extracellular
White matter distribution

99
Q

Window

A

Contrast control
Narrow window increases contrast, wide window increases gray scale

100
Q

Level

A

Brightness control
High level best for seeing bone, medium level best for soft tissues, low level best for lung

101
Q

T1 images

A

Relaxation of protons after RF pulse to the longitudinal axis
Bright tissue: fat, contrast
Dark tissue: water/fluid/edema, bone

102
Q

T2 images

A

Relaxation of protons after RF pulse to the transverse axis
Bright tissue: fat, water/fluid/edema
Dark tissue: bone

103
Q

T1 pulse sequences

A

Good anatomical image but poor distinction between gray and white matter

104
Q

T2 and FLAIR

A

Good for identifying edema and other fluids
T2: fluid has high signal density (appears white)
FLAIR: pure water appears black, “dirty” water appears white, good for detecting subtle and periventricular edema

105
Q

T2 gradient echo

A

Sensitive for detection of hemorrhage and degradation products

106
Q

kVp

A

Controls energy or imaging characteristics of X-rays produced
Affects overall exposure and how beam interacts with tissues

107
Q

mAs

A

Total number of X-rays produced during exposure

108
Q

Photoelectric absorption/effect (PE)

A

Good
Detection of different tissues
Increasing atomic number - decreasing beam energy
Results in complete absorption of X-ray without forward scatter, happens most commonly when X-ray energy is close to electron binding energy
Increase radiographic contrast by decreasing kVp

109
Q

Compton scatter

A

Bad
Degradation of image quality (blurry)
Decreasing atomic number - increasing beam energy
Results in scattering of X-ray beam, higher energy photons result in more forward scatter that can hit detector and decrease radiographic quality

110
Q

kVp manipulation

A

Lower kVp = lower exposure, higher contrast
Higher kVp = higher exposure, lower contrast

111
Q

mAs manipulation

A

Double the mAs = double the radiation exposure
Decrease mAs = decrease exposure/darkness
Increase mAs = increase exposure/darkness

112
Q

How kVp and mAs relate

A

Increasing/decreasing the kVp by 15% results in the same change in film exposure as halving or doubling the mAs

113
Q

Technique for imaging thorax

A

Rads should be taken at end inspiration (very short time)
Short exposure times needed to freeze motion
kVp should be high, except in small patients

114
Q

Technique for imaging abdomen

A

High contrast is helpful
Exposures can be made between expiration and next inspiration
Longer exposure times up to 0.1 sec are better tolerated
kVp should be kept as low as possible

115
Q

2 key hallmark features of malignancy

A

Local tissue invasion
Metastatic disease - gold standard diagnosis for malignancy, can arise at any time over the course of a malignant tumor
(Primary, recurrent, and metastatic tumors)

116
Q

Why is metaplasia concerning for a premalignant condition?

A

Cells that are not programmed to be in a certain area experience altered differentiation and new cues that can change how they grow
Persistent insults drive growth cues leading to neoplasia

117
Q

Anisocytosis vs. anisokaryosis

A

Variation in cell size/shape vs. variation in nuclear size/shape

118
Q

Monomorphism vs. pleomorphism

A

In homogeneous cell populations
Cells look the same vs. cells vary in appearance

119
Q

Anaplasia

A

Loss of features associated with differentiation of certain cell types
Hard to identify what type of cell is present

120
Q

Initiation

A

Start of neoplastic pathway
Disturbance of cell growth (cell proliferation/mutagenesis)
Initiating genetic lesions establish genetic and population instabilities that predispose cells to additional mutations - selective survival and eventual transformation to malignancy
IRREVERSIBLE

121
Q

Promotion

A

Something has to happen that favors outgrowth of initiated cell
Results in localized signaling that allows initiated cell to “out-grow” physiologic non-initiated cells
Cell would stop responding to signaling if stimulus removed - REVERSIBLE

122
Q

Progression

A

To transform from benign to malignant
Tumor progresses into cancer
Involves accumulation of additional mutations and/or continued selection of initiated cell (as in promotion)

123
Q

Adenoma vs. carcinoma in situ vs. carcinoma

A

Benign epithelial tumor vs. non-invasive epithelial neoplasm that has both benign and malignant features (cellular atypia but intact basement membrane) vs. malignant epithelial tumor

124
Q

Epithelial tumors

A

“Structures” - large polygonal cells with defined cell borders
Arranged in sheets, tubules, acini, glands
Benign: adenoma (may be pedunculated - stalk, ex: polyp or papilloma)
Malignant: carcinoma - Scirrhous response, reactive tissue stroma (scar forming against cancer), necrosis (umbilication/ulceration)

125
Q

Mesenchymal tumors

A

Connective tissue produces stroma
Spindle-shaped cells
Arranged in streams, fascicles, bundles
Usually higher N:C ratio
Muscle, fibroblasts (collagen), adipose tissue, bone, cartilage
Blood and lymph vessels - endothelial cells

126
Q

Round cell tumors

A

Hematopoietic tissue
Individualized cells within tumor, cells are round to polygonal, N:C ratio variable, cells often infiltrate into adjacent tissue
No stroma/matrix, lack orderly arrangement

127
Q

How mesenchymal tumors are classified

A

1st part is cell origin
Benign ends in __oma (ex: fibroblast - fibroma, fat cell - lipoma, endothelial cell - hemangioma, bone - osteoma, cartilage - chondroma)
Malignant ends in __sarcoma (ex: fibrosarcoma, liposarcoma, hemangiosarcoma, etc.)

128
Q

How is cancer-associated vasculature different than normal?

A

Vascularization critical for tumor growth
Small localized tumors secrete signaling molecules to blood vessels through simple diffusion
Tumors encourage angiogenesis (blood vessels to grow across basement membrane) to allow growth/spread

129
Q

Why is the lung such a common site for metastatic disease?

A

Intricate capillary network, small blood vessels
Tortuosity causes tumor to get stuck, thin walls allows for easy escape from blood supply and set up as a new tumor in tissues

130
Q

Carcinomatosis

A

Unique form of metastasis, direct-implanting or seeding of surface by malignant cells
Usually occurs in malignant epithelial tumors
Cells arrive by exfoliation and implanting on adjacent surfaces rather than by vascular route

131
Q

G1/S checkpoint

A

Major checkpoint in cell cycle
Did DNA get completely synthesized, and are there any errors in synthesis?
If error passes, gets locked into the gene

132
Q

G2/M checkpoint

A

Second checkpoint in cell cycle
More concerned with making sure that the number of chromosomes are correct and properly formed
DNA now compacted into chromosomes, making it harder to detect mutations than in open chromatin

133
Q

Tumor suppressor genes controlling cell cycle

A

p53: guardian of the genome, upregulates expression of gene p21 (CDKi) to slow down cell cycle (can also upregulate GADD45 - DNA damage repair, and Bax - apoptosis)
Rb: retinoblastoma

134
Q

Oncogene

A

Promotes cell survival and proliferation
Often a “normal” protein (ex: c-Myc - mitogen, sox2, EGFR)
May be a mutated gene (ex: EGFR deletion, c-Kit, Ras)
Activation by mutation, upregulation (ex: copy number alterations - amplification, epigenetics - histone modification), and chromosomal translocation

135
Q

Tumor suppressor gene

A

Any gene that functions to restrict cell cycle progression, usually in response to perceived genomic alterations
2 classic TSGs: retinoblastoma protein (Rb) and p53
Lost by mutation, copy number alterations, inhibited by overexpressed oncogene, or micro-RNA

136
Q

Genomic regulation of gene expression

A

Physical changes to genomic code in cell
Mutations/copy number alterations or variations
Heritable

137
Q

Epigenetic regulation of gene expression

A

Refer to changes in how cell expresses its genes without changing coding sequence
Promotor regulation/DNA methylation/chromatin structure
“Programming” is heritable (good except in cancer)

138
Q

Cell senescence

A

Cell cycle arrest, cell permanently blocked form re-entering cycle
DNA damage response (DDR) detects severe DNA damage or oncogene induced (cell detects something is wrong)

139
Q

Cell immortalization

A

Cells manipulated to proliferate indefinitely
Telomeres act as “timestamp” on every cell and shorten with every cell division
Telomerase enzyme expression lengthens telomeres (cancer cells)

140
Q

Explain how a benign brain tumor can kill a patient

A

Expansile mass in confined space (brain/spinal cord) can create pressure that causes damage (seizures, death)
Damage to adjacent tissue (ulceration, necrosis)
Atrophy of normal tissue/alter function

141
Q

Paraneoplastic syndrome

A

Systemic effects of neoplastic disease, neoplastic mediators
Complex pathogenesis, significant morbidity, may precede tumor identification
Cachexia - metabolic reprogramming

142
Q

Cancer initiators

A

Mutagens, DNA damage or mutation
Direct reacting carcinogen (binds to DNA to cause lesion)
Procarcinogen - require metabolism to activate (cytochrome p450)

143
Q

Cancer promoters

A

Positive selective pressure for initiated cells
Generally drive cell proliferation but not mutation
Exert effects amidst profound tumor heterogeneity

144
Q

DNA viral transformation

A

Production of viral protein (ex: herpes, papilloma, pox, polyoma)
Early genes - subvert cellular machinery for replication
Often function as a dominant oncogene

145
Q

RNA viral transformation

A

Inserting into host genome (ex: lymphoma in cats, cows - FeLV, BLV)
Retroviruses: more complex transformation
Mammalian gene regulation through LTR sequences
Insertional mutagenesis - insertion into genomic DNA (could insert into “quiet” part of genome and never be transcribed)

146
Q

E6 viral proteins

A

Ubiquitin ligase - p53 degradation
No breaks in cell cycle, no DNA repair, no apoptosis
High chance to develop mutation

147
Q

E7 viral proteins

A

Bind and sequester Rb in cytosol
“Frees” E2F transcription factor - cell cycle entry

148
Q

Examples of bacterial induced cancer

A

Helicobacter spp.
Other spirochetes (Treponema) - bovine proliferative pododermatitis (hairy foot warts)

149
Q

Examples of parasite induced cancer

A

Spirocerca lupi
Cysticercus fasciolaris
Schistosoma haematobium
Heterakis isolonche

150
Q

Glutamate ionotropic receptors

A

NMDA
AMPA
Kainate
Glutamate binds to ligand-gated ion channels to allow sodium into neuron

151
Q

Glutamate metabotropic receptors

A

Class I, II, and III
G protein coupled receptors, 2nd messenger system
Fine tune action potential, modulate neurotransmission

152
Q

Inhibitory GABA receptors

A

GABAa = ionotropic
GABAb = metabotropic

153
Q

The EAAT-4, excitatory amino acid transporters 1-4, function is to

A

Transport extracellular glutamate into the presynaptic neuron, postsynaptic neuron, or astrocyte

154
Q

The composition of the dendritic spine is

A

Contains receptors for neurotransmitters
N-Cadherin is one of the proteins that stabilize synaptic architecture (also EphR & neurexin)
Contains the postsynaptic density, which is composed of >1000 proteins

155
Q

The function of the GABAb receptors are to

A

Reduce intracellular cAMP
Stimulate the opening of K+ channels
Promote hyperpolarizing of the neuron
Prevent firing of action potentials

156
Q

Benzodiazepines and GABA bind at the same site on the GABAa receptor
True or false

A

False

157
Q

GABA transaminase (GABA-T) removes GABA by directly forming

A

Succinic semialdehyde (SSA) via transamination with alpha-ketoglutarate, which also reforms glutamate

158
Q

2 reasons for vasodilation during inflammation

A

Slow down blood flow to allow leukocyte accumulation
Increase total blood flow and vascular permeability to allow WBCs to migrate into interstitium

159
Q

Why do we tent skin in a patient to evaluate hydration status?

A

Fluid in interstitium = fluid reservoir, can draw fluid when dehydrated (decreasing elasticity)
Hallmark for dehydration = hypoalbuminemia (increased colloid osmotic pressure)

160
Q

Transudate

A

Low protein, few cells
Mostly water (fluid leakage)
Increased hydrostatic pressure, decreased colloid osmotic pressure
Decreased protein synthesis or protein loss

161
Q

Exudate

A

High protein, high cells
Higher permeability (fluid and protein leakage)
Inflammation
Vasodilation and stasis, increased interendothelial spaces

162
Q

2 molecular events that characterize “activated” endothelium

A

Upregulation of adhesion molecules
Endothelial retraction

163
Q

Weibel-Palade bodies

A

Found in endothelial cells
Store selectins, immediately shuttle them to surface of cell

164
Q

Selectins

A

Bind glycolipids, expressed on leukocytes
Mediate transient, low affinity binding (“rolling”)
Upregulated during acute inflammation

165
Q

Integrins

A

Bind to ligands and extracellular matrix
Nomenclature is complex/confusing
Inflammation - swaps low affinity integrins for high affinity
Also mediates migration and trapping of leukocytes in interstitium/ECM

166
Q

PECAM-1

A

Platelet endothelial cell adhesion molecule 1 (aka CD31)
Expressed on platelets, endothelial cells, leukocytes
Function in homophilic manner (binds itself)

167
Q

Describe how a mutation in CD18 (leukocyte adhesion deficiency) results in neutrophilia during inflammation

A

Affects integrin function, neutrophils constantly roll along blood vessel, can never exit circulation
Macrophages demand more neutrophils, bone marrow sends more through blood
Very increased neutrophil count on CBC
CLAD - Irish setters, BLAD - Holsteins

168
Q

Neutrophil extracellular traps (NETs)

A

Neutrophils degranulate and spew dissolved DNA to trap bacteria
Concentrates ROS and enables enhanced killing

169
Q

Classical pathway

A

Ag-Ab complexes
C3b deposited on microbe (opsonization)
Recognition of bound C3b by phagocyte C3b receptor
Phagocytosis of microbe

170
Q

Alternative pathway

A

Complement mediated spontaneous deposition on foreign surfaces
C3b deposited on microbe (opsonization)
Recruitment and activation of leukocytes
Detection of microbes by leukocytes - inflammation

171
Q

Lectin pathway

A

Recognition of mannose, rich on bacterial cell walls
C3b deposited on microbe (opsonization)
Formation of membrane attack complex (MAC) - lysis of microbe

172
Q

Opsonization

A

Coating of a pathogen with something (usually Ab’s or C3b) to aid phagocytosis in recognizing and engulfing pathogens (C3b is nonspecific)

173
Q

Fibrosis

A

Organized deposition of collagen by fibroblasts
Often accompanied by scattered, residual lymphocytes/WBCs

174
Q

Granulation tissue

A

Growth of fibroblasts and small blood vessels
Allows for controlled maintenance of chronic, ongoing inflammation, while promoting healing

175
Q

Second intention healing and proud flesh

A

1st intention: surgical closure
2nd intention: granulation tissue
Proud flesh: unable to turn off granulation tissue, keeps growing (more damage - faster growth)

176
Q

5 agents that cause granuloma

A

Higher order bacteria (resistant to degradation by neutrophils)
Fungi/yeast organisms
Parasites
Foreign material
Intracellular bacteria

177
Q

Cytokines

A

Small proteins that may be pro/anti-inflammatory
Source cell, target cell, effector mechanism
Predominantly made by leukocytes
May be secreted or cell-associated

178
Q

Chemokines

A

Specialized cytokine subset
Homeostatic or inflammatory
Classification is molecular based
May guide chemoattraction or chemorepulsion

179
Q

Major pro-inflammatory cytokines

A

IL-1
TNF
IFN-gamma
(also IL-2, IL-6, IL-17, IFNalpha/beta)

180
Q

Major anti-inflammatory cytokines

A

IL-10
TGFbeta
(also IL-12, IL-20)

181
Q

Major cytokines driving acute inflammation

A

TNF
IL-1
IL-6

182
Q

Major cytokines driving chronic inflammation

A

IL-12
IFNgamma

183
Q

Type I interferons

A

IFNalpha and IFNbeta
Classical antiviral activity - activates genes to interfere with viral replication, activates NK cells

184
Q

Type II interferons

A

IFNgamma
Broader role in pro-inflammatory response, cell growth regulation, and endothelial cell activation

185
Q

Eicosanoids

A

Produced by leukocytes, mast cells, endothelial cells
Mediate all aspects of inflammation, primarily derived from arachidonic acid
Vasoconstriction/dilation, increased vascular permeability
(Prostaglandins, leukotrienes, thromboxanes, prostacyclins)

186
Q

Arachidonic acid pathway

A

COX or LOX
COX: vasodilation/constriction, platelet aggregation, vascular permeability
LOX: chemotaxis, bronchospasm, vascular permeability, inhibition of inflammation

187
Q

Why are corticosteroids such potent immunosuppressants?

A

Inhibits beginning of both COX and LOX pathways
(all aspects of inflammation)

188
Q

4 effects of bradykinin

A

PAIN
Vasodilation
Vascular permeability
Increases PLA2 activity (arachidonic acid pathway)

189
Q

Acute vs. chronic inflammation

A

Acute: inflammation, leukocytes traveling to tissue, damaging to kill pathogen
Chronic: proliferative, very irregular shape/margins, fibrosis - contraction/scar tissue, healing/repair

190
Q

Erosion vs. ulceration

A

Erosion: epithelium gone, basement membrane still intact
Ulcer: epithelium and basement membrane gone, scarring

191
Q

Unipolar neurons are
a. interneurons
b. motor neurons
c. sensory neurons

A

Sensory neurons

192
Q

The axon hillock is the site where action potentials are generated
True or false

A

True

193
Q

The ventricles and central canal are lined with choroid epithelial cells
True or false

A

False

194
Q

___ provide myelin, axonal support, axonal pathfinding during nerve development, and regeneration

A

Schwann cells

195
Q

___ regulate excitability, synaptic transmission and secrete ECM, involved in axonal pathfinding and cell migration in the PNS

A

Satellite cells

196
Q

A nerve fiber is made of

A

An axon, myelin sheath, and Schwann cell

197
Q

Axons are myelinated in the CNS by ___ and the PNS by ___

A

Oligodendrocytes
Schwann cells

198
Q

A ___ is a cluster of neuron soma in the CNS whereas in the PNS is called ___

A

Nucleus
Ganglion

199
Q

The sciatic nerve is a mixed nerve containing

A

Sensory and motor fibers

200
Q

The cerebrospinal fluid is an ultrafiltrate of the blood plasma made in the central canal
True or false

A

False

201
Q

A ___ is a group of axons, myelinated and unmyelinated, bundled together and covered by perineurium

A

Fascicle

202
Q

The ___ conducts signals from the CNS along motor neurons to the target muscles and glands

A

Efferent nerve

203
Q

Spinal motor neurons are located at the

A

Ventral horn

204
Q

The white matter of the spinal cord does not contain
a. axons
b. neuroglia
c. perikarya

A

Perikarya

205
Q

Tracts located at the medulla oblongata have myelinated and unmyelinated axons

A

False

VET 401 Basic Foundations (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions