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exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. The DSM 5 criteria for Dissociative Amnesia includes:
A

a. Inability to recall important autobiographical information usually of a traumatic or stressful
nature, that is inconsistent with ordinary forgetting

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2
Q
  1. In which disorder(s) could an individual experience a fugue?
A

b. Dissociative Amnesia

c. Dissociative Identity Disorder

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3
Q
  1. Dissociative amnesia is more likely to occur with
A

a. Greater number of adverse childhood experiences particularly physical and/or sexual abuse
b. Interpersonal violence
c. Increases severity, frequency, and violence of the trauma

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4
Q
  1. The most common type of dissociative amnesia is the inability to recall all events during a specific
    period of time and is referred to as ___________
A

a. Localized Amnesia

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is most likely to show spontaneous remission?
A

b. Dissociative Amnesia

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6
Q
  1. True or False: Women are more likely to experience dissociative amnesia.
A

a. True

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7
Q
  1. An individual who can recall some, but not all, of a traumatic event can be classified as having what
    type of dissociative amnesia?
A

d. Selective amnesia

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following defines a subjective experience of feeling detached from oneself?
A

b. Depersonalization

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9
Q
  1. Thad is not able to recall very important personal information, about himself after a very stressful and
    traumatic situation. In addition, Thad has also completely forgotten his entire life history and identity,
    including where he works, his favorite movie, and his wife. Thad has been experiencing a tremendous
    amount of distress, and his inability to recall such information is NOT due to substance use, medical or
    neurological illness. What type of dissociative amnesia is Thad experiencing?
A

b. Generalized Amnesia

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10
Q
  1. What percentage of people experience depersonalization/derealization disorder?
A

c. 2%

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11
Q
  1. What percent of adults have experienced depersonalization/derealization at least once?
A

c. 50%

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12
Q
  1. Which type of dissociative amnesia involves an individual having a complete loss of memory of their
    entire life history including their own identity?
A

c. Generalized amnesia

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13
Q
  1. Someone who can recall some but not all parts of a traumatic event/experience would be experiencing
    what type of dissociative amnesia?
A

b. Selective Amnesia

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14
Q
  1. Dissociative identity disorder was previously known as __________.
A

c. Multiple personality disorder

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes localized amnesia?
A

d. The individual fails to recall all events that occurred during only a certain period of time

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16
Q
  1. Which medications are used in treatment of Dissociative Amnesia?
A

a. Benzodiazepines

b. Sodium amobarbital

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17
Q
  1. Charles witnessed the accidental death of a close friend three months ago while mountain climbing.
    Two months after the event occurred, a friend inquired as to how he was holding up, to which Charles
    reacted with confusion. After further conversation regarding the event, it became clear that Charles
    had no recollection of the trip at all. Charles appears to be experiencing:
A

c. Localized amnesia

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18
Q
  1. Which type of amnesia includes losing both semantic and procedural knowledge?
A

b. Generalized Amnesia

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19
Q
  1. What is the difference between depersonalization and derealization?
A

d. Depersonalization is a detachment from oneself, Derealization is detachment from the world

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered a symptom of derealization?
A

a. Feeling unfamiliar with one’s surroundings

c. Feeling the environment is distorted or blurry

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21
Q
  1. What is true about Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder?
A

a. 1/3 of the people have waxing and waning episodes
b. 1/3 have continuous symptoms from their onset
c. 1/3 have an episodic course that progresses to continuous

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22
Q
  1. What is the sex ratio for depersonalization/derealization disorder?
A

b. 1:1

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23
Q
  1. How many identities do women with dissociative identity disorder have on average?
A

c. 15

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24
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes selective amnesia?
A

b. The individual can recall some, but not all, of the details during a specific time period

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25
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true for depersonalization/derealization disorder?
A

d. There is a presence of persistent or recurrent experiences of depersonalization, derealization,
but not both

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26
Q
  1. Sarah was in a tragic car accident. She remembers the car spinning out of control and the ambulance
    showing up to the scene, but she does not remember any other details of the event. What type of
    dissociative amnesia is she experiencing?
A

c. Selective amnesia

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27
Q
  1. Which of the following disorders includes the criteria that the individual has recurrent gaps in the recall
    of everyday events (e.g., not remembering going to the grocery store).
A

a. Dissociative Identity Disorder

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a type of amnesia associated with dissociative amnesia?
A

a. Selective Amnesia
b. Dissociative Fugue
c. Generalized Amnesia
d. Localized Amnesia

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following is a treatment method for Dissociative Amnesia?
A

a. Benzodiazepines

b. Sodium amobarbital

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30
Q
  1. Marybeth feels like the world around her feels unfamiliar. She claims to always be in a fog and the
    place around her seem artificial and lifeless. Marybeth may be experiencing
A

c. Derealization

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31
Q
  1. A subjective experience of unreality of the external world is called _________, whereas a subjective
    experience of feeling detached from oneself is called ___________.
A

d. Derealization, Depersonalization

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32
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE about Depersonalization or Derealization episodes?
A

a. About 50% of all adults have experienced at least one transient episode of depersonalization or
Derealization
b. Episodes can be triggered by stress, over-stimulating environments or lack of sleep
c. Drugs like cannabis, mushrooms, LSD, ecstasy and even alcohol can cause these experiences

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33
Q
  1. After attending a concert with his friends, Raymond never returned back to his friends after using the
    restroom. His friends searched all-night looking for him and had to call the police. When he was finally
    identified two weeks later in a different state after “fleeing,” Raymond forgot most of his personal
    information and the whole event. Raymond would most likely be identified with having which type of
    dissociative amnesia?
A

a. Dissociative amnesia with fugue

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34
Q
  1. Episodes of Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder can be triggered by all of the following except:
A

a. Stress

b. Too much sleep

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT part of the DSM 5 summary criteria for depersonalization/derealization
    disorder?
A

a. The presence of persistent or recurrent experiences of depersonalization, derealization, or both
b. The symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational, or other
important areas of functioning
c. Suicidal ideation must have occurred when experiencing depersonalization, and or
derealization

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36
Q
  1. Which Dissociative disorder is most common in women?
A

b. Dissociative Amnesia

c. Dissociative Identity Disorder

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37
Q
  1. Which of the following is a “truth serum” used to facilitate recovery of repressed memories?
A

a. Sodium Amobarbital

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38
Q
  1. Derealization is defined as a _____________.
A

c. subjective experience of unreality of the external world

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39
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment approach for dissociative amnesia disorder?
A

e. Electroconvulsive therapy

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40
Q
  1. What type of delusion involves beliefs that people, organizations or other external forces are trying to
    do one harm or obstruct one’s goals?
A

c. Persecutory

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41
Q
  1. What type of delusion involves the belief that a loved one has been replaced by an imposter?
A

c. Capgras Delusion

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42
Q
  1. To diagnose a person with schizophrenia the client needs to have a total duration of symptoms for at
    least _____, while Schizophreniform Disorder requires at least ____ of symptoms.
A

d. 6 months, 1 month

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43
Q
  1. Delusional beliefs that one’s thoughts/feelings/actions are controlled by others is referred to as….
A

d. Delusions of control

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44
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a catatonic behavior?
A

a. Derailment

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45
Q
  1. What are the two main differences between schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder?
A

a. Duration and impairment in functioning

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46
Q
  1. Which type of hallucinations are most common?
A

c. Auditory

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47
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom?
A

a. Affective Flattening
b. Alogia
c. Anhedonia
d. Asociality

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48
Q
  1. Brad believes that he is actually dead and does not exist. What type of delusion is Brad experiencing?
A

c. Cotard Delusion

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49
Q
  1. Someone diagnosed with Schizophrenia who believes that a terrorist attack was targeted at them
    specifically, has what kind of delusion?
A

c. Delusions of reference

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50
Q
  1. Which is not a type of delusion?
A

c. Delusions of power

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51
Q
  1. What is the most common type of delusion?
A

d. Delusions of persecution

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52
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes grandiose delusions?
A

b. Belief that one is famous, wealthy, omnipotent (all knowing), has special abilities, or is
otherwise very powerful

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53
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a specifier of Delusional Disorder?
A

d. Bipolar Type

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54
Q
  1. Which of the following are specifiers for Schizoaffective Disorder?
A

a. Bipolar Type

b. Depressive Type

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55
Q
  1. According to the Dopamine Theory _________ is implicated in schizophrenia.
A

b. an excess of dopamine

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56
Q
  1. The following are negative symptoms in criterion A for schizophrenia except …
A

d. Echolalia

57
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes delusions of control?
A

c. beliefs that their thoughts/feelings/actions are controlled by others

58
Q
  1. The onset of schizophrenia typically occurs between ___ with the disorder occurring slightly earlier for
    _____.
A

b. Late teens-Mid 30’s, Males

59
Q
  1. Susie and Ann are identical twins. If Susie is diagnosed with schizophrenia, what is the chance Ann will
    develop schizophrenia in her lifetime?
A

b. 50%

60
Q
  1. What are delusions of thought broadcasting?
A

c. Beliefs that one’s thoughts are transparent and everyone knows what they are thinking

61
Q
  1. What is the best diagnosis for a patient with delusions, negative symptoms, and catatonic behavior
    that started occurring 3 months ago?
A

c. schizophreniform disorder (provisional)

62
Q
  1. What is true of schizophrenia?
A

b. Drugs and alcohol can trigger schizophrenia in those with a genetic predisposition

d. In order to be diagnosed with schizophrenia an individual must have signs of disturbance for at
least 6 months

63
Q
  1. Which psychotic disorder fits the criterion that the person must have mood episodes that last for most
    of the total duration of the disturbance?
A

a. Schizoaffective Disorder

64
Q
  1. James is afraid that the FBI will take him away from his home even though he hasn’t done anything
    wrong. He also believes that they have bugged his house to try to catch him doing something wrong.
    What type of delusions is James experiencing?
A

c. Delusions of persecution

65
Q
  1. Susan believes that she is reincarnation of Jesus Christ himself. What kind of delusion is Susan
    experiencing?
A

c. Delusions of grandeur

66
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a delusion?
A

e. Delusions of derailment

67
Q
  1. Mark is a 24-year-old gamer who tends to play horror games despite the fact that he is terrified by
    them. His favorite game is Five Nights at Freddy’s. Lately he has been seeing characters from the game
    in his bedroom as well as hearing noises and seeing glowing eyes from dark places. These
    hallucinations have become so intense that Mark believes that someone or something is out to kill him.
    In order to protect himself, Mark plays said horror game because he thinks that how he plays in the
    game directly impacts what happens in real life. Based on what he is experiencing, which symptoms
    is/are Mark experiencing?
A

a. Delusions of Persecution
b. Visual Hallucinations
c. Auditory Hallucinations

68
Q
  1. Which of the following is a myth related to Schizophrenia?
A

d. People with Schizophrenia are dangerous and violent

69
Q
  1. The erotomanic type specifier for delusional disorder refers to…
A

b. Believing another person is in love with them

70
Q
  1. Which of the following best defines delusions?
A

a. Fixed false beliefs that are not amenable to change in light of conflicting evidence.

71
Q
  1. Echolalia is defined as…
A

b. Mimicking the speech of others

72
Q
  1. Echopraxia is defined as…
A

c. Mimicking the movements of others

73
Q
  1. Who experiences a higher prevalence of Brief Psychotic Disorder?
A

a. Woman

74
Q
  1. What does Alogia mean?
A

b. Diminished speech output

75
Q
  1. The average age of onset for brief psychotic disorder is ________.
A

d. Mid 30s

76
Q
  1. The duration of a Brief Psychotic Disorder is…
A

b. At least 1 day but less than 1 month.

77
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT considered a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
A

d. Echolalia

78
Q
  1. An individual who thinks that their school is doing everything in its power to get them to fail is likely
    experiencing a delusion of ________.
A

a. persecution

79
Q
  1. Which negative symptom of schizophrenia is defined by a lack of motivation to pursue goal-directed
    behavior?
A

e. Avolition

80
Q
  1. What part(s) of the body does tardive dyskinesia affect?
A

b. Mouth

c. Neck

81
Q
  1. Which of the following best defines delusions of control?
A

c. A person who believes their thoughts/feelings/actions are controlled by others.

82
Q
  1. Which of the following describes delusions of thought withdrawal?
A

c. Belief that one’s thoughts have been removed by some outside force

83
Q
  1. The depressive type of schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed ______, while the bipolar type appears to
    be diagnosed ______.
A

a. more in females; equally between genders

84
Q
  1. What symptoms are believed to be associated with hypofrontality?
A

c. Negative Symptoms

85
Q
  1. Schizophreniform disorder does NOT require ____ for diagnosis, although it may be present.
A

d. Impairment in functioning

86
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a type of catatonic behavior?
A

b. Avolition

87
Q
  1. Which of the following scenarios is an example of Delusional Disorder with a specifier of Persecutory
    type?
A

c. The individual believes that their mother who makes homecooked meals for them every day
is secretly poisoning them

88
Q
  1. Sally has been experiencing hallucinations, disorganized speech, and delusions for 3 months with no
    mood episodes during active stages. Sally should most likely be diagnosed with:
A

d. Schizophreniform Disorder (provisional)

89
Q
  1. Which of the following are full blown symptoms that must be present for at least one month and cause
    significant impairment in order to be used in the diagnosis of schizophrenia?
A

c. Active phase symptoms

90
Q
  1. If one fraternal twin develops schizophrenia, there is roughly what percentage chance the other will
    develop it as well at some point in their lifetime?
A

e. 20%

91
Q
  1. What are the roots of the term schizophrenia?
A

c. Split mind

92
Q
  1. Which of the following is a main difference between schizophrenia and schizophreniform disorder?
A

b. Schizophrenia must last a minimum of 6 months, while schizophreniform disorder cannot last
more than 6 months.
c. Impairment in functioning is a requirement for a diagnosis of schizophrenia, but not for
schizophreniform disorder.

93
Q
  1. June has been a loner all her life with no desire to go to family functions or have an intimate
    relationship. She spends the majority of her days alone at home working on her computer. At her
    workplace, she disregards the praises of her co-workers and is described as detached and cold. She
    also lacks an interest in having close friends and prefers solitary activities. This has caused her
    significant impairment in functioning. What disorder best describes her symptoms?
A

d. Schizoid Personality Disorder

94
Q
  1. Which of the following is a symptoms of schizotypal personality disorder?
A

d. Ideas of reference

95
Q
  1. Which of the following involves a pattern of distrust and suspiciousness such that others’ motives are
    interpreted as malevolent?
A

a. Paranoid Personality Disorder

96
Q
  1. A consistent pattern of disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others is the defining characteristic
    of what personality disorder?
A

b. Antisocial Personality Disorder

97
Q
  1. Which of the following is a key characteristic of borderline personality disorder?
A

d. Unstable and/or intense relationships

98
Q
  1. Which cluster of personality disorders is described as dramatic, emotional, or erratic?
A

b. Cluster B

99
Q
  1. According to the general criteria for personality disorders, the defining characteristic of these disorders
    is an enduring pattern of inner experience and behavior that deviate markedly from the expectations
    of the individual’s culture. This pattern must be manifested in at least two of which of the following
    areas?
A

a. Cognition
b. Affectivity
c. Interpersonal functioning
d. Impulse control

100
Q
  1. What is/are the primary trait(s) associated with Histrionic Personality Disorder
A

a. Extraversion

c. Neuroticism

101
Q
  1. Paranoid personality disorder falls under which cluster?
A

a. Cluster A

102
Q
  1. Chad believes that he is very “special” and that only the elite can understand his lifestyle. As such he
    only associates with elite people. When communicating with others, Chad does not recognize their
    feelings and he believes that his feelings and priorities are more important. Assuming he experiences
    impairment in functioning, which of the following personality disorders is most appropriate for Chad?
A

d. Narcissistic Personality Disorder

103
Q
  1. Tom is displaying a constant pattern of avoidance from social relationships, is not interested in these
    relationships, appears indifferent to criticism, and is also showing a limited range of emotion within
    social relationships. What disorder is he most likely demonstrating?
A

b. Schizoid Personality Disorder

104
Q
  1. Cluster A is characterized as _________.
A

a. Odd/eccentric

105
Q
  1. “A pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of others, occurring since age 15” is the
    defining criteria for which personality disorder?
A

a. Antisocial Personality Disorder

106
Q
  1. Which of the following personality disorders does NOT fit under Cluster B?
A

b. Avoidant personality disorder

107
Q
  1. Which of the following is not true of antisocial personality disorder (ASPD)?
A

c. Females are diagnosed with ASPD more frequently than males

108
Q
  1. What personality disorder cluster is described as anxious or fearful?
A

b. Cluster C

109
Q
  1. Individuals with schizoid personality disorder ____________.
A

d. Are typically indifferent to both criticisms and praise by others

110
Q
  1. A pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affect, and marked impulsivity is
    the defining criteria for ____________.
A

e. Borderline personality disorder

111
Q
  1. How are Cluster A personality disorders characterized?
A

c. Odd, eccentric

112
Q
  1. Which of the following options is defined by “A pattern of excessive emotionality and attention
    seeking?”
A

a. Histrionic Personality disorder

113
Q
  1. Which of the following is the defining criterion for schizotypal personality disorder?
A

b. A pattern of acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive or perceptual distortions, and
eccentricities of behavior

114
Q
  1. A pattern of grandiosity, need for admiration and lack of empathy is involved in which personality
    disorder?
A

b. Narcissist personality disorder

115
Q
  1. All of the following disorders are part of Cluster A except:
A

d. Borderline Personality Disorder

116
Q
  1. Which of the following describes Schizoid Personality Disorder?
A

a. A pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of emotional
expression

117
Q
  1. Which of the following are defining characteristics of Cluster C personality disorders?
A

b. Anxious and fearful

118
Q
  1. Which of the following are NOT true in terms of Antisocial Personality Disorder?
A

d. It is a construct used more by the criminal justice system than by mental health professionals

119
Q
  1. Which of the following patterns best characterize individuals with borderline personality disorder?
A

c. Instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and marked impulsivity

120
Q
  1. Cluster A personality disorders are described as odd/eccentric; what personality disorders belong in
    this group?
A

b. Paranoid, schizoid, and schizotypal personality disorders

121
Q
  1. Which of the following does not belong in Cluster B?
A

d. Dependent Personality Disorder

122
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT part of the general criteria for personality disorders?
A

b. The pattern occurs only in certain situations

123
Q
  1. What are personality traits?
A

a. Enduring patterns of perceiving, relating to, and thinking about the environment and oneself
that are exhibited in a wide range of social and personal contexts.

124
Q
  1. What is one of the differences between Schizoid Personality Disorder and Avoidant Personality
    Disorder (APD)?
A

a. Those with APD desire affection and acceptance and fantasize about relationships with
others while those with Schizoid Personality Disorder do not

125
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the genetic contributions to Paranoid Personality Disorder?
A

b. Paranoid personality disorder is slightly more common in relatives of individuals with
schizophrenia and in relatives of individuals with delusional disorder persecutory type

126
Q
  1. Which of the following best characterizes the defining criterion for antisocial personality disorder?
A

c. A pattern of disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others

127
Q
  1. What disorder involves social anxiety and avoidance due to feelings of inadequacy and increased
    sensitivity to negative evaluations?
A

b. Avoidant personality disorder

128
Q
  1. Which statement is correct?
A

b. To receive a diagnosis of a personality disorder, the individual must meet all of the general
criteria for a personality disorder in addition to all of the criteria for a specific personality
disorder

129
Q
  1. Paranoid personality disorder is characterized by _________.
A

a. A severe distrust or suspicion of others

130
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a Cluster A or Cluster B personality disorder?
A

b. Avoidant personality disorder

131
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a cluster B personality disorder?
A

c. Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder

132
Q
  1. Which of these personality disorders belongs in Cluster B?
A

a. Borderline Personality Disorder

b. Antisocial Personality disorder

133
Q
  1. Which personality disorder(s) is/are marked by avoidance of social activities due to fears of being
    rejected, criticized, or ridiculed of inadequacies?
A

a. Avoidant Personality Disorder

134
Q
  1. True or False: in order to receive a diagnosis of a personality disorder the individual must meet all
    general criteria AND all criteria for a specific personality disorder.
A

TRUE

135
Q
  1. Which of the following is/are contributing factors for Paranoid Personality Disorder?
A

a. Dysfunctional beliefs taught by parental figures

c. Parental neglect or abuse

136
Q
  1. How are cluster B personality disorders characterized?
A

c. Dramatic, emotional, or erratic

137
Q
  1. Which is NOT part of the general criteria for personality disorders?
A

c. The pattern is stable and of short duration, and its onset can be traced back at least 6 months

138
Q
  1. Which cluster of personality disorders overlaps most with symptoms of anxiety?
A

c. Cluster C

Studying for upper division psych (5 decks)

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