exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
- Which of these is NOT a specific phobia specifier?
A
Death
2
Q
- What is the median age of onset for panic disorder?
A
c. 20-24
3
Q
- Which type of specific phobia is equally diagnosed between genders?
A
c. Blood-Injection Injury
4
Q
- What changes have been made to the DSM regarding agoraphobia and panic disorder?
A
c. Panic disorder and agoraphobia have been separated into two distinct disorders in the DSM 5
5
Q
- What is the rate of relapse after using Benzodiazepines to treat panic disorder and then stopping?
A
c. 90%
6
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a symptom included in the criteria for generalized anxiety disorder?
A
c. Panic attacks
7
Q
Specifiers can be defined as additional standard “tags” that are given to better characterize the specific
manifestation of a disorder. Which of the following would be classified under the situational specifier
for panic disorder?
A
c. Fear of flying
8
Q
- How many symptoms of a panic attack must a person experience to meet criteria A for Panic Disorder?
A
c. Four (or more)
9
Q
Which disorder is characterized by an underlying excessive worry related to a wide range of events or
activities?
A
a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
10
Q
- There are 13 symptoms of panic attacks listed in the DSM. Which of the following is NOT one of the 13
symptoms?
A
c. Muscle tension
11
Q
Which disorder must include the following two key components? The attacks are unexpected and are
recurrent meaning they occur multiple times.
A
b. Panic disorder
12
Q
- Which of the following best describes panic control therapy?
A
. focuses on exposing clients to interoceptive sensations associated with an attack to teach
them that these sensations are normal and not dangerous and that they are in control of
them
13
Q
There are six symptoms that characterize generalized anxiety disorder (in criterion C). Of those six
symptoms, how many must an individual experience in order to be diagnosed with the disorder?
A
e. 3 or more
14
Q
- What is the lifetime prevalence of anxiety disorders within the U.S. population?
A
d. 18%
15
Q
- Which of the following best defines exposure therapy?
A
gradual exposure exercises that are combined with anxiety reducing coping strategies
(relaxation, deep breathing).
16
Q
. Christina has been experiencing excessive worry about very small aspects of her life for the last 6 months. She finds it difficult to control and has been noticeably irritable by her friends. Concentrating
at work and in class has become difficult and it has been hard for her fall asleep. This consistent change
in her life is causing her distress and is having an impact on her school and work performance. Christina
does not take drugs and is not on any medications. What diagnosis should Christina be given?
A
d. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
17
Q
Mallory has been diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. Often, she will notice her anxiety coming on
when she experiences instances of muscle tension and elevated heart rate. Which component of
anxiety do her symptoms fall in?
A
c. Physiological Component
18
Q
- What’s the most common category of psychological disorders in the U.S.?
A
b. Anxiety Disorders
19
Q
- Which of the following is not a symptom of a panic attack?
A
e. Delusions
20
Q
- Which of the following represent psychological contributions of specific phobias?
A
a. Traumatic experience with objects or in a situation
b. Witnessing a traumatic experience
c. Being told repeatedly of dangers
d. Biological preparedness to fear certain objects that were shaped by natural selection
21
Q
- Which of the following is NOT a psychological contributing factor to specific phobia?
A
a. Lack of social network
22
Q
- Which of these anxiety disorders has a balanced sex ratio in clinics?
A
d. Social anxiety disorder
23
Q
- Which of the following is NOT included in the DSM 5 criteria for Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
A
c. The individual fears that he or she will act in a way or show anxiety symptoms that will be
negatively evaluated by others
24
Q
- What type of exposure technique utilizes relaxation strategies to help calm the individual as they are
presented with the fearful object?
A
a. Systematic desensitization
25
25. Which personality trait is a risk factor for anxiety?
b. Neuroticism
26
26. What component of anxiety involves a sense of unease, worry, or dread, and/or a sense of being
unable to predict or control future threat?
b. Subjective Component
27
27. What are the two key components to panic disorder?
a. Attacks are unexpected and recurrent
28
28. Which disorder(s) requires all categories to be met in order to be diagnosed with said disorder(s) (i.e.,
which disorders use a categorical rather than prototypical approach to diagnosis)?
a. Specific phobia
| c. Social anxiety disorder
29
29. Which of the following is NOT one of the six symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder described in the
DSM 5?
d. Suicidal ideation
30
30. The one-year prevalence rate for generalized anxiety disorder is estimated to be ______ of the general
population.
c. 3%
31
31. Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to GAD?
d. Heightened interoceptive awareness
32
32. Approximately what percentage of clients with panic disorder relapse after they stop taking
benzodiazepines?
a. 90%
33
33. During a panic attack the intense surge of fear reaches a peak within:
b. minutes
34
34. Generalized Anxiety Disorder shares a common underlying genetic predisposition with _________.
b. Major Depressive Disorder
35
35. What kind of Specific Phobia specifier would be applied to a person with a fear of heights?
b. Natural Environment
36
36. Every time Alice sees a spider, she has a panic attack. She has now begun making plans to move to
Alaska to avoid seeing spiders all together, this intense fear has been present for 2 years and is causing
her significant distress. What disorder does Alice most likely have?
a. Specific Phobia
37
37. To be diagnosed with Generalized Anxiety Disorder, excessive anxiety and worry must occur for at least
how many month(s)?
c. 6 months
38
38. What is the female to male sex ratio of Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
d. 2:1
39
```
39. Anxiety disorders are experienced by approximately _____% of the U.S. population at some point in
their life (Lifetime Prevalence)
```
a. 18%
40
40. What is the name of the personality trait that is characterized by a tendency to experience negative
emotions?
c. Neuroticism
41
41. One must have “marked fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation” to be diagnosed with:
e. Specific Phobia
42
42. Which of the following is true about treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?
c. Medication and CBT show the same benefits in the short term, but CBT shows longer lasting
benefits than medication alone.
43
43. What is the one-year prevalence rate of panic disorder for adults and adolescents?
d. 2-3%
44
44. How long must excessive anxiety and worry persist in order to be diagnosed with generalized anxiety
disorder?
a. 6 months
45
45. Which one would not be classified as a Natural Environment Specific Phobia?
c. Fear of vomiting
46
46. Approximately what percent of individuals with panic disorder have attempted suicide?
d. 20%
47
47. Panic Attacks must be ______ to be considered for the diagnoses of Panic Disorder.
a. Unexpected
| b. Recurrent
48
48. SSRIs can be used to treat panic disorders.
a. True
49
49. Overactivity in which brain region is believed to contribute to panic disorder?
d. Locus coeruleus
50
50. Fred who is diagnosed with Specific Phobia is afraid of bodies of water, what kind of specifier should be
applied to his diagnosis?
b. Natural environment
51
51. Which of these symptoms falls under the subjective component of anxiety?
c. worry
52
52. Susan has a marked fear of elevators. She actively avoids riding in elevators and takes the stairs
whenever possible because she fears that she will “freak out and lose control” if she rides in an
elevator. Which specifier should be used to describe her specific phobia?
d. Situational
53
53. What symptoms are associated with the physiological component of anxiety?
c. Elevated heart rate and muscle tension
54
54. The diagnosis of Panic Disorder is
a. Twice as common in females than in males
55
55. A __________ is defined as an abrupt surge of intense fear or intense discomfort that reaches a peak
within minutes.
b. Panic Attack
56
56. Which of the following is the most common category of psychological disorders in the United States?
a. Anxiety Disorders
57
57. What is Agoraphobia?
d. Anxiety about being in a place or situation where escape might be difficult
58
58. According to the DSM 5, what is the median age of onset for Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
a. 30
59
59. Which of the following is not a symptom of a panic attack?
d. feeling exhilarated
60
60. Which of the following specific phobia specifiers is most heritable?
a. Blood-injection-injury
61
61. Which personality trait is a risk factor for anxiety?
Neuroticism
62
62. An individual with specific phobia who refuses to get a flu shot due to an intense fear of needles should
have the ____________ specifier added to his/her diagnosis.
c. Blood-injection-injury
63
63. Paige is presenting with intense palpitations, nausea, chills, and shortness of breath for short periods
of time seemingly out of the blue. She’s reported these intense feelings of fear and discomfort
unexpectedly, and stated that is has happened multiple times. She is now afraid to attend her classes
for fear of it happening again in public, and has stopped going out with friends and socializing for over
two months. What is page most likely experiencing?
d. Panic Disorder
64
64. Which of the following best describes a panic attack?
c. An abrupt surge of intense discomfort that reaches a peak within minutes
65
65. For a person’s intense fear or discomfort to be considered a true panic attack, at least how many of the
13 symptoms must occur?
b. 4
66
66. Which specific phobia specifier has a more balanced sex ratio compared to the other specific phobias?
b. Blood-injury-injection
67
67. Excessive anxiety and worry, occurring more days than not for at least 6 months, about a number of
events or activities (e.g., work, school performance) is a criterion listed in the DSM 5 for which
disorder?
a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
68
1. Which of the following is a specifier for Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
a. With good or fair insight
b. With poor insight
c. With absent insight/delusional beliefs
69
2. Some who believes the house definitely will burn down if they don’t check the stove 30 can be given the
following specifier for OCD?
b. With absent insight/delusional beliefs
70
3. Which of the following best describes an individual with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder with poor
insight?
b. The individual thinks the obsessive-compulsive beliefs are probably true
71
4. According to the DSM-5, the typical age of onset for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is ___.
c. 19.5
72
5. Which of the following statements about BDD is incorrect?
a. An individual who has a congenital facial defect or a burn victim who is concerned about scars
is an example of an individual with BDD
73
6. What is a radical last resort to treating OCD?
a. Deep Brain Stimulation
| c. Psychosurgery
74
7. What is it called when an individual believes that their thoughts are the moral equivalent of them
committing that action and/or that their thoughts will increase the likelihood of something bad
happening?
d. Thought Action Fusion
75
8. Masen is a from a very small town and has been homeschooled for his entire life, and he is now
beginning his first year of college. He has always been incredibly insecure about his looks ever since he
was a young boy. He is particularly insecure about the size of his nose despite it being normal in size.
His entire life, he has always wanted a smaller nose, but has never been happy with the way it looks.
Now that he is in college, he is petrified of other people looking at the size of his nose and thinking he
is repulsive. Instead of going to classes, he has been looking into rhinoplasty surgeries to decrease the
size of his nose. Several months in, Masen decides to drop out of college where he will not be exposed
to as many people. He started working a low-profile job so that he can save up for plastic surgery. In
the course of 3 years, Masen eventually received 3 rhinoplasties, and is still unsatisfied with his
appearance and constantly worries about the way he is perceived by others. What disorder does
Masen most likely have?
b. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
76
9. Which specifier in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder would be applied to the diagnosis of an individual
who thinks the obsessive-compulsive beliefs are probably true?
b. With poor insight
77
10. What biological factors are believed to contribute to OCD?
a. Family and twin studies suggest a genetic contribution
b. Functional brain abnormalities in the frontal regions and basal ganglia
c. Occasionally develops after brain surgery or injury
78
11. What is an example of an obsession?
b. Persistent thoughts about contamination
79
12. Diana has been diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder. She recognizes that her belief that her
apartment block will burn down if she leaves her curling iron on is probably not true, and therefore her
diagnosis should have the specifier of:
b. With good or fair insight
80
13. True or False: OCD is considered a type of anxiety disorder.
False
81
14. Compulsions are defined by:
b. Repetitive behaviors
| c. Repetitive mental acts
82
15. What treatments can be used for OCD?
a. Medication (SRI’s)
b. Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)
c. Psychosurgery
d. Deep Brain Stimulation
83
16. Which is an example of Body Dysmorphia Disorder?
c. An individual concerned with their hair thinning without their hair actually thinning
84
17. An individual with Body Dysmorphic Disorder with good or fair insight believes:
c. That the body dysmorphic beliefs are definitely not true or probably not true, or might be
true
85
18. Which of the following is NOT included in the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders section of
the DSM 5?
b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
86
19. Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) is another obsessive-compulsive disorder, however, the focus of
these obsessions is with a perceived defect or flaw in physical appearance. A key feature of these
obsessions with defects or flaws are that they are not observable to others. Is this True or False?
a. True
87
20. According to the DSM, to diagnose OCD the individual needs to have…
d. obsessions or compulsions or both
88
21. Which of the following is an obsession?
a. Closing the door 17 times before leaving for work so can avoid a car accident
b. Checking if you locked your door for the 6th time so your home won’t catch fire
c. Counting all your teeth, fingers, and toes 5 times so your mother won’t die
d. Washing your hands 9 times so you don’t get mauled by a bear
e. None of the above (these are all compulsions)
89
22. What is the best treatment for Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
b. Exposure and response therapy
90
23. Which characteristic is true for Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
c. This person at some point has performed repetitive behaviors or mental acts in response to
their appearance concerns
91
24. Which of the following is NOT an example of a compulsion?
c. Repeated doubts that a door is not locked
92
25. Currently, what is the best working treatment option for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
a. Exposure and Response Prevention
93
26. Which of the following is NOT categorized as an obsessive-compulsive and related disorder?
a. Body dysmorphic disorder
b. Obsessive compulsive disorder
c. Hoarding disorder
d. Trichotillomania
e. All of the above are categorized as OCD and related disorders
94
27. One of the most effective treatment for both OCD and BDD is ______.
a. exposure and response therapy
95
28. John believes that the house probably won’t burn down if he doesn’t check the stove 30 times. Which
specifier should be applied to his diagnosis of OCD?
c. With good or fair insight
96
29. In order to meet criteria A for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
d. Obsessions and/or Compulsions must be present
97
30. Dizygotic twins are more likely to both have OCD than monozygotic twins.
b. False
98
31. What are the psychological contributing factors for Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
a. Childhood neglect and abuse
b. More likely to have been teased about their appearance
c. May believe they are worthless if they aren’t attractive
d. Attentional bias towards beauty and attractiveness
e. All of the above
99
32. Jim is diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD). What form(s) of treatment would be the
most effective to treat Jim.
a. Exposure and response prevention (ERP)
100
33. Which statement about OCD is FALSE?
b. To be diagnosed with OCD you must experience both compulsions and obsessions
101
34. How likely is it that a person will develop OCD if she has a first-degree biological relative with a
childhood onset of OCD?
a. 10 times more likely to develop OCD
102
35. What is the name for the disorder that is characterized by excessive hair pulling?
c. Trichotillomania Disorder
103
36. Which of the following is NOT true about Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
e. Others can easily see the flaw or defect the individual is focused on
104
37. What is the name for the disorder that is characterized by excessive skin picking?
e. Excoriation Disorder
105
38. Which of the following could contribute to the etiology of body dysmorphic disorder?
a. Living in a society that heavily values and emphasizes beauty
b. Dealing with past experience with childhood neglect and abuse
c. Having an attentional bias towards beauty and attractiveness
106
39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
d. Feeling concern over a congenital face defect or burn scars.
107
40. Monozygotic twins (identical) are more likely to both have OCD than dizygotic twins (fraternal) True or
False.
a. True
108
41. What is an example of a compulsion?
d. Repeated hand washing
109
42. What does thought-action fusion mean?
c. A belief that thoughts are the moral equivalent of actions
d. A belief that negative thoughts increase the likelihood that something terrible will happen
110
43. The specifier “with good and fair insight” for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is applied to
individuals with OCD who:
b. recognize that the obsessive-compulsive beliefs are definitely/probably not true
111
44. Body Dysmorphic Disorder:
d. Is diagnosed equally between men and women
112
45. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for obsessive compulsive disorder?
a. Lithium
113
46. Which of the following best highlights an ego-dystonic obsession?
c. A priest having obsessive blasphemous thoughts
114
47. How much more likely are first degree biological relatives of adults who had a childhood onset of OCD
likely to develop OCD?
d. 10x more likely
115
48. Which of these is a good example of exposure and response prevention?
b. Having the person touch a drop of pee and not wash their hands afterwards
116
49. What is/are some biological factors of OCD?
a. Brain injury/insult
| d. Infectious agents and post-infectious autoimmune syndrome
117
50. ______ are defined as repetitive and intrusive thoughts, urges, or images. ______ are defined as
repetitive behaviors or mental acts that an individual typically performs in response to an obsession.
c. Obsessions, compulsions
118
51. Someone who is completely convinced that their teeth are hideous and abnormal, and they don’t
believe anyone who tells them otherwise most likely would be diagnosed with Body Dysmorphic
Disorder…
b. With absent insight
119
52. What are potential psychological factors for Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
a. Childhood neglect or abuse
b. Being teased about their appearance
c. May believe they are worthless if they are not attractive
d. Attentional bias towards beauty and attractiveness
120
53. Are obsessions and compulsions the same thing?
b. No, compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that an individual typically performs
in response to an obsession which is an intrusive thought urge or image
121
54. Which description fits best with someone who may be starting to experience BDD?
b. Tanya, a 14-year-old who repeatedly checks the mirror before she heads to school to look at
her nose and other face blemishes that she believes look hideous but that others think look
fine.
122
55. What is the sex ratio of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder in adults? (Men: Women)
a. 1:1
123
56. Which of the following treatments for OCD involves implanting electrodes into the nucleus accumbens
that sends electrical impulses to stimulate this brain region?
d. deep brain stimulation
124
57. What is it called when individuals believe that thoughts are the moral equivalent of actions and/or that
negative thoughts increase the likelihood that something terrible will happen?
b. Thought-action fusion
125
58. Body dysmorphic order falls under which class of disorders?
d. Obsessive compulsive and related disorders
126
59. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the influence of heredity on OCD?
a. Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than dizygotic twins.
b. First degree relatives are twice as susceptible to develop OCD.
127
60. Which is NOT a contributing factor to Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
a. A parent diagnosed with Bipolar Disorder
128
61. What is Exposure and Response Prevention?
b. Individuals are gradually exposed to their feared stimuli (e.g., contamination) while resisting
engaging in compulsions (e.g., washing)
129
62. What disorder/s are NOT included in the new Obsessive-Compulsive section of the DSM-5
e. Tic Disorder
130
63. What percentage of people find medications (SSRIs) beneficial in reducing symptoms of ObsessiveCompulsive Disorder?
d. 50-60%
131
64. Which of the following is not an OCD-related disorder?
d. Cyclothymic disorder
132
65. ________ are defined as repetitive and intrusive thoughts, urges, or images.
a. Obsessions
133
66. If your mother was diagnosed with OCD as a young adult, how many times more likely is it that you will
also be diagnosed with OCD?
a. 2 times more likely
134
67. Which type of CBT treatment was created especially for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
c. Exposure and Response Prevention
135
68. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for being diagnosed with BDD?
a. Hallucinations and catatonic behavior present for a significant portion of time during a 1-
month period
136
69. Obsessions are defined as
b. Repetitive and intrusive thoughts, urges, or images
137
70. What is the point prevalence rate for BDD among U.S. adults?
e. 2.4%
138
71. What compulsive behaviors do individuals with body dysmorphic behavior engage in?
a. Excessive grooming
b. Skin-picking
c. Excessive mirror checking
d. Comparing themselves to others
139
72. What is it called when an individual believes that their thoughts are the moral equivalent of them
committing that action and/or increase the likelihood of something terrible happening?
d. Thought-Action Fusion
140
1. A diagnosis of bipolar II disorder is made when the person has experienced a:
a. Hypomanic Episode
| c. Depressive Episode
141
2. Which of these is NOT a specifier for major depressive disorder?
c. With poor insight
142
3. What type of insomnia does Patty have if she wakes up too early (e.g. 4am) and has trouble returning
to sleep?
b. Terminal insomnia
143
4. Therapy treatment for this disorder is not enough and medication is required as a treatment plan.
e. Bipolar Disorder
144
5. Which of the following is not a specifier for bipolar disorders?
c. With atypical features
145
6. What mood disorder should you be diagnosed with if you experience a manic episode and don’t have a
psychotic disorder?
a. Bipolar I Disorder
146
7. What is the clinical description associated with Bipolar II Disorder?
b. A clinical course in course in which the individual experiences one or more major depressive
episodes and at least one hypomanic episode.
147
8. Which of the following depressive disorders is characterized by depressed mood for most of the day,
for more days than not, for at least 2 years?
b. Persistent Depressive Disorder
148
9. Which of the following is not a Bipolar Disorder?
b. Manic Episode
149
10. Which drugs are used to treat bipolar disorder?
a. Lithium
b. Anticonvulsants
c. Antidepressants
150
11. What is the difference between a manic episode and a hypomanic episode?
a. A manic episode must last a minimum of 1 week while a hypomanic episode only has to last 4
days
b. A manic episode must involve impairment or hospitalization, or psychotic features, while a
hypomanic episode must NOT involve these things
151
12. _____is the purposeless physical movement of the body such as pacing around a room, tapping toes
and restlessness and the opposite, _______is slowed speech, thinking and movement.
d. Psychomotor agitation, psychomotor retardation
152
13. What is the approximate one-year prevalence of Major Depressive Disorder within the US?
d. 7%
153
14. One can be diagnosed with Bipolar I Disorder if they have at least how many manic episodes?
b. One
154
15. Which of these is NOT one of the depressive disorders in DSM 5?
e. Cyclothymic Disorder
155
16. A minimum of how many symptoms out of 9 must be present during the same 2-week period to be
classified as Major Depressive Episode?
c. Five
156
17. What is anhedonia?
d. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all activities, most of the day,
nearly every day.
157
18. Which of the following depressive disorders is characterized by severe recurrent temper outbursts
manifested verbally and/or behaviorally by a child that are grossly out of proportion in intensity or
duration to the situation or provocation?
c. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
158
19. Which of the following best describes peripartum onset for mood disorders?
e. Onset is during pregnancy or within 4 weeks of childbirth
159
20. How long must an abnormally euphoric or irritable mood be persistently experienced to be
characterized as a manic episode?
a. At least one week
160
21. Identify the accurate definition.
c. Terminal Insomnia is when you wake up too early and have trouble falling back to sleep.
161
22. Sabrina experienced a depressive episode 9 months ago. Her symptoms disappeared for 3 months and
then retuned. Which specifier best describes Sabrina’s course of depression?
e. Recurrent episode
162
23. Which disorder can only be diagnosed if the person has experienced a manic episode?
a. Bipolar I
163
24. Which of the following depressive disorders is specific to children?
b. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder
164
25. Which of the following depressive disorders is specific to women?
d. Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder
165
26. What is the difference between Bipolar I and Bipolar II Disorders?
c. Bipolar II disorder involves hypomanic and depressive episodes whereas bipolar I involves at
least one manic episode
166
27. A diagnosis of _______ is made when the individual has experienced both a hypomanic episode and a
depressive episode.
d. Bipolar II disorder
167
28. A criterion found in the DSM 5 for Major Depressive Disorder is diminished interest or pleasure in all,
or almost all activities, most of the day, nearly every day. This symptom is referred to as:
b. Anhedonia
168
29. What is the median duration of Persistent Depressive Disorder in adults?
a. 5 years
169
30. What is NOT a depressive disorder recognized by the DSM 5?
c. Cyclothymic disorder
170
31. Which of the following is NOT a viable treatment for Bipolar Disorders?
b. Benzodiazepines
171
32. Women are 2-3 times more likely to experience depression than men.
a. True
172
33. CBT typically requires _____ sessions and it not only assists in recovery from depression, but it also
assists in preventing relapse.
a. 10-20
173
34. Symptoms of _______ must persist for a minimum of two weeks to make a diagnosis while symptoms
of _______ must persist continuously for a minimum of two years for a diagnosis.
d. Major depressive disorder; Persistent depressive disorder
174
35. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of depression?
a. Disruptions in sleep patterns
b. Difficulty thinking or concentrating
c. Fatigue or loss of energy
d. Feelings of worthlessness or guilt
175
36. Significant weight loss for Major Depressive Disorder is defined as:
d. A change of more than 5% of body weight in a one-month period
176
37. Which is NOT a form of therapy used to treat MDD and PDD?
b. Psychosurgery
177
38. Which is NOT true about Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?
a. About 80% of people who don’t respond to medications do respond to ECT
178
39. Someone who has difficulty falling asleep has what kind of insomnia?
d. Initial insomnia
179
40. A diagnosis of bipolar II disorder is made when the person has experienced a:
a. Hypomanic Episode
| c. Depressive Episode
180
41. What is the key feature of a manic episode?
c. Abnormally euphoric or irritable mood
181
42. Hypomanic Episodes alone are their own disorder.
b. False
182
43. What type of insomnia is described as waking up too early and not being able to fall back asleep?
d. Terminal Insomnia
183
44. What type of episode(s) is/are needed for diagnosing Bipolar I disorder?
b. Manic episode alone
184
45. Which of the following is an indicator of a severe severity level of a depressive disorder?
c. Most of the symptoms are present, they are seriously distressing and markedly interfere with
functioning
185
46. What does the term middle insomnia refer to?
d. Waking up during the night and having trouble falling back asleep
186
47. How many of the six criterion B symptoms of Persistent Depressive Disorder need to be present in
order to make a diagnosis?
d. 2+
187
48. Aaron experienced a hypomanic episode four months ago that lasted for four weeks. For the past one
week, Aaron has been experiencing psychomotor retardation, a marked decrease in interest in most
activities, hypersomnia, fatigue, and impaired concentration for most of the day, nearly every day. He
has never experienced a major depressive episode before this and has never had a manic episode.
Aaron should be diagnosed with:
e. Nothing (the depressive episode has not lasted long enough)
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49. Hypersomnia means…
c. Sleeping excessively
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50. Which of the following are NOT a symptom of a Manic Episode?
d. Psychomotor retardation
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51. What was Persistent Depressive Disorder previously known as?
b. Dysthymia/Dystymic Disorder
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52. Which of the following difference between manic vs. hypomanic episodes of bipolar disorder is TRUE?
a. Manic episodes must last a minimum of 1 week, hypomanic episodes only have to last a
minimum of 4 days
c. Manic episodes must involve impairment in functioning, hypomanic episodes must not include
impairment in functioning
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53. How long must its symptoms persist before a hypomanic episode can be diagnosed?
e. 4 days
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54. ______ symptoms are required to diagnose major depressive disorder and ______ symptoms are
required to diagnose persistent depressive disorder.
a. Five, two
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55. When would bipolar II disorder be diagnosed?
a. When an individual has experienced both a hypomanic episode and a depressive episode
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56. Which of the following hormones has been implicated in Seasonal Affective Disorder?
a. Melatonin
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57. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about hypomanic episodes?
e. They often result in hospitalization.
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58. How long do symptoms of a depressive episode need to last for a diagnosis of MDD?
b. 2 Weeks
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59. Changes in weight of more than ______ of one’s body weight when one is not trying to lose or gain
weight are considered a symptom of depression.
e. 5%
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60. What of the following is NOT one of the depressive disorders in the DSM 5?
a. Major depressive disorder
b. Persistent depressive disorder
c. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
d. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
e. The options above are all depressive disorders listed in the DSM 5
200
61. Which of the following disorders is/are new to the DSM 5?
c. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
| d. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
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62. How long must one experience a depressed mood, for more days than not, to be diagnosed with
Persistent Depressive Disorder? (As long as all other required symptoms are present)
a. Two years
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63. How long does a hypomanic episode typically last for?
c. A few weeks to a few months
203
64. Negative attitudes about oneself, one’s experiences, and one’s future are often present in those who
experience depression. What term is used to refer to these thoughts?
c. Negative cognitive triad
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65. Which of the disorder require medication?
a. Bipolar I
b. Bipolar II
c. Cyclothymic disorder
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66. What is the definition of anhedonia?
c. Loss of pleasure or interest in activities that were previously interesting
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67. Molly has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. For the past four days Molly has been participating in
several sexual indiscretions (using condoms), she has been feeling like she needs less sleep, and she
has been more talkative than normal. After four days of this behavior Molly’s mood disturbance
returned to normal. What did Molly experience?
a. Hypomanic episode
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68. Which of the following is not a symptom of a manic episode?
e. Hypersomnia
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69. What does it mean if someone is given the moderate specifier for Bipolar I disorder?
a. The number of symptoms and degree of impairment is between mild and severe
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70. What is middle insomnia?
c. Waking up during the night and having trouble falling back asleep
210
71. Jim has the tendency to emphasize the negative rather than the positive aspects of a situation. What
type of dysfunctional belief/negative thought is Jim showing?
c. Arbitrary Inference
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72. What is hypersomnia?
b. Sleeping more then 10 hours a night
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73. Which response is correct regarding the statistics for Bipolar Disorder?
c. 70-90% of people with rapid cycling type are women
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74. In order for a diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder to be made, the person must have experienced at least
______ manic episode.
a. One
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75. Over the past two months, Mandy has been in a consistent manic episode requiring hospitalization.
She has never experienced any other mood episodes prior to or following her release. What disorder is
she presenting with?
b. Bipolar I
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76. What is a difference between Persistent and Major Depressive Disorder?
d. Persistent Depressive Disorder is more chronic but requires fewer symptoms
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77. Which of these is NOT one of the nine DSM symptoms for major depressive disorder?
c. Feelings of increased energy
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78. Which is not one of the four depressive disorders in the DSM 5?
c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
218
79. Which country has the highest/lowest prevalence rate for depression?
e. United States/Japan
219
80. How long must a patient be experiencing symptoms to be diagnosed with Persistent Depressive
Disorder?
c. At least 2 years
220
81. Which of the following is one of the two symptoms that MUST be present to diagnose Major
Depressive Disorder?
c. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all activities, most of the day,
nearly every day (anhedonia)
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82. If Julie experienced her first major depressive episode 4 months ago, and has since then been
experiencing hypomanic symptoms but has never experienced a hypomanic episode, what should she
be diagnosed with?
e. Major Depressive Disorder, single episode
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83. A hypomanic episode may have a duration of at least ______, while a manic episode must have a
duration of at least ______.
d. Four days; one week
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84. Which of the following types of medications is NOT used to treat Major Depressive Disorder?
c. Anticonvulsants
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85. Maria, a 27-year-old woman, has been experiencing several symptoms of depression nearly every day
for the last three years. Which depressive disorder does Maria most likely have?
b. Persistent Depressive Disorder
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86. What is mood lability?
d. Rapid shifts in mood
