Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Studying for upper division psych > exam 2 > Flashcards

exam 2 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards
1
Q
  1. Which of these is NOT a specific phobia specifier?
A

Death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. What is the median age of onset for panic disorder?
A

c. 20-24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Which type of specific phobia is equally diagnosed between genders?
A

c. Blood-Injection Injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. What changes have been made to the DSM regarding agoraphobia and panic disorder?
A

c. Panic disorder and agoraphobia have been separated into two distinct disorders in the DSM 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What is the rate of relapse after using Benzodiazepines to treat panic disorder and then stopping?
A

c. 90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a symptom included in the criteria for generalized anxiety disorder?
A

c. Panic attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Specifiers can be defined as additional standard “tags” that are given to better characterize the specific
manifestation of a disorder. Which of the following would be classified under the situational specifier
for panic disorder?

A

c. Fear of flying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. How many symptoms of a panic attack must a person experience to meet criteria A for Panic Disorder?
A

c. Four (or more)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which disorder is characterized by an underlying excessive worry related to a wide range of events or
activities?

A

a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. There are 13 symptoms of panic attacks listed in the DSM. Which of the following is NOT one of the 13
    symptoms?
A

c. Muscle tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which disorder must include the following two key components? The attacks are unexpected and are
recurrent meaning they occur multiple times.

A

b. Panic disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes panic control therapy?
A

. focuses on exposing clients to interoceptive sensations associated with an attack to teach
them that these sensations are normal and not dangerous and that they are in control of
them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

There are six symptoms that characterize generalized anxiety disorder (in criterion C). Of those six
symptoms, how many must an individual experience in order to be diagnosed with the disorder?

A

e. 3 or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. What is the lifetime prevalence of anxiety disorders within the U.S. population?
A

d. 18%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of the following best defines exposure therapy?
A

gradual exposure exercises that are combined with anxiety reducing coping strategies
(relaxation, deep breathing).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

. Christina has been experiencing excessive worry about very small aspects of her life for the last 6 months. She finds it difficult to control and has been noticeably irritable by her friends. Concentrating
at work and in class has become difficult and it has been hard for her fall asleep. This consistent change
in her life is causing her distress and is having an impact on her school and work performance. Christina
does not take drugs and is not on any medications. What diagnosis should Christina be given?

A

d. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mallory has been diagnosed with an anxiety disorder. Often, she will notice her anxiety coming on
when she experiences instances of muscle tension and elevated heart rate. Which component of
anxiety do her symptoms fall in?

A

c. Physiological Component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. What’s the most common category of psychological disorders in the U.S.?
A

b. Anxiety Disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a symptom of a panic attack?
A

e. Delusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Which of the following represent psychological contributions of specific phobias?
A

a. Traumatic experience with objects or in a situation
b. Witnessing a traumatic experience
c. Being told repeatedly of dangers
d. Biological preparedness to fear certain objects that were shaped by natural selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a psychological contributing factor to specific phobia?
A

a. Lack of social network

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Which of these anxiety disorders has a balanced sex ratio in clinics?
A

d. Social anxiety disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT included in the DSM 5 criteria for Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
A

c. The individual fears that he or she will act in a way or show anxiety symptoms that will be
negatively evaluated by others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. What type of exposure technique utilizes relaxation strategies to help calm the individual as they are
    presented with the fearful object?
A

a. Systematic desensitization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. Which personality trait is a risk factor for anxiety?
A

b. Neuroticism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. What component of anxiety involves a sense of unease, worry, or dread, and/or a sense of being
    unable to predict or control future threat?
A

b. Subjective Component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. What are the two key components to panic disorder?
A

a. Attacks are unexpected and recurrent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Which disorder(s) requires all categories to be met in order to be diagnosed with said disorder(s) (i.e.,
    which disorders use a categorical rather than prototypical approach to diagnosis)?
A

a. Specific phobia

c. Social anxiety disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT one of the six symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder described in the
    DSM 5?
A

d. Suicidal ideation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. The one-year prevalence rate for generalized anxiety disorder is estimated to be ______ of the general
    population.
A

c. 3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to GAD?
A

d. Heightened interoceptive awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Approximately what percentage of clients with panic disorder relapse after they stop taking
    benzodiazepines?
A

a. 90%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. During a panic attack the intense surge of fear reaches a peak within:
A

b. minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. Generalized Anxiety Disorder shares a common underlying genetic predisposition with _________.
A

b. Major Depressive Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. What kind of Specific Phobia specifier would be applied to a person with a fear of heights?
A

b. Natural Environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. Every time Alice sees a spider, she has a panic attack. She has now begun making plans to move to
    Alaska to avoid seeing spiders all together, this intense fear has been present for 2 years and is causing
    her significant distress. What disorder does Alice most likely have?
A

a. Specific Phobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. To be diagnosed with Generalized Anxiety Disorder, excessive anxiety and worry must occur for at least
    how many month(s)?
A

c. 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. What is the female to male sex ratio of Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
A

d. 2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q 
39. Anxiety disorders are experienced by approximately \_\_\_\_\_% of the U.S. population at some point in
their life (Lifetime Prevalence)
A

a. 18%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. What is the name of the personality trait that is characterized by a tendency to experience negative
    emotions?
A

c. Neuroticism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. One must have “marked fear or anxiety about a specific object or situation” to be diagnosed with:
A

e. Specific Phobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about treatment for generalized anxiety disorder?
A

c. Medication and CBT show the same benefits in the short term, but CBT shows longer lasting
benefits than medication alone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. What is the one-year prevalence rate of panic disorder for adults and adolescents?
A

d. 2-3%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q
  1. How long must excessive anxiety and worry persist in order to be diagnosed with generalized anxiety
    disorder?
A

a. 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q
  1. Which one would not be classified as a Natural Environment Specific Phobia?
A

c. Fear of vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  1. Approximately what percent of individuals with panic disorder have attempted suicide?
A

d. 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  1. Panic Attacks must be ______ to be considered for the diagnoses of Panic Disorder.
A

a. Unexpected

b. Recurrent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q
  1. SSRIs can be used to treat panic disorders.
A

a. True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q
  1. Overactivity in which brain region is believed to contribute to panic disorder?
A

d. Locus coeruleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q
  1. Fred who is diagnosed with Specific Phobia is afraid of bodies of water, what kind of specifier should be
    applied to his diagnosis?
A

b. Natural environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q
  1. Which of these symptoms falls under the subjective component of anxiety?
A

c. worry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q
  1. Susan has a marked fear of elevators. She actively avoids riding in elevators and takes the stairs
    whenever possible because she fears that she will “freak out and lose control” if she rides in an
    elevator. Which specifier should be used to describe her specific phobia?
A

d. Situational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q
  1. What symptoms are associated with the physiological component of anxiety?
A

c. Elevated heart rate and muscle tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q
  1. The diagnosis of Panic Disorder is
A

a. Twice as common in females than in males

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q
  1. A __________ is defined as an abrupt surge of intense fear or intense discomfort that reaches a peak
    within minutes.
A

b. Panic Attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most common category of psychological disorders in the United States?
A

a. Anxiety Disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q
  1. What is Agoraphobia?
A

d. Anxiety about being in a place or situation where escape might be difficult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q
  1. According to the DSM 5, what is the median age of onset for Generalized Anxiety Disorder?
A

a. 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a symptom of a panic attack?
A

d. feeling exhilarated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q
  1. Which of the following specific phobia specifiers is most heritable?
A

a. Blood-injection-injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q
  1. Which personality trait is a risk factor for anxiety?
A

Neuroticism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q
  1. An individual with specific phobia who refuses to get a flu shot due to an intense fear of needles should
    have the ____________ specifier added to his/her diagnosis.
A

c. Blood-injection-injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q
  1. Paige is presenting with intense palpitations, nausea, chills, and shortness of breath for short periods
    of time seemingly out of the blue. She’s reported these intense feelings of fear and discomfort
    unexpectedly, and stated that is has happened multiple times. She is now afraid to attend her classes
    for fear of it happening again in public, and has stopped going out with friends and socializing for over
    two months. What is page most likely experiencing?
A

d. Panic Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes a panic attack?
A

c. An abrupt surge of intense discomfort that reaches a peak within minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q
  1. For a person’s intense fear or discomfort to be considered a true panic attack, at least how many of the
    13 symptoms must occur?
A

b. 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q
  1. Which specific phobia specifier has a more balanced sex ratio compared to the other specific phobias?
A

b. Blood-injury-injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q
  1. Excessive anxiety and worry, occurring more days than not for at least 6 months, about a number of
    events or activities (e.g., work, school performance) is a criterion listed in the DSM 5 for which
    disorder?
A

a. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q
  1. Which of the following is a specifier for Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
A

a. With good or fair insight
b. With poor insight
c. With absent insight/delusional beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q
  1. Some who believes the house definitely will burn down if they don’t check the stove 30 can be given the
    following specifier for OCD?
A

b. With absent insight/delusional beliefs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes an individual with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder with poor
    insight?
A

b. The individual thinks the obsessive-compulsive beliefs are probably true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q
  1. According to the DSM-5, the typical age of onset for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is ___.
A

c. 19.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about BDD is incorrect?
A

a. An individual who has a congenital facial defect or a burn victim who is concerned about scars
is an example of an individual with BDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q
  1. What is a radical last resort to treating OCD?
A

a. Deep Brain Stimulation

c. Psychosurgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q
  1. What is it called when an individual believes that their thoughts are the moral equivalent of them
    committing that action and/or that their thoughts will increase the likelihood of something bad
    happening?
A

d. Thought Action Fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q
  1. Masen is a from a very small town and has been homeschooled for his entire life, and he is now
    beginning his first year of college. He has always been incredibly insecure about his looks ever since he
    was a young boy. He is particularly insecure about the size of his nose despite it being normal in size.
    His entire life, he has always wanted a smaller nose, but has never been happy with the way it looks.
    Now that he is in college, he is petrified of other people looking at the size of his nose and thinking he
    is repulsive. Instead of going to classes, he has been looking into rhinoplasty surgeries to decrease the
    size of his nose. Several months in, Masen decides to drop out of college where he will not be exposed
    to as many people. He started working a low-profile job so that he can save up for plastic surgery. In
    the course of 3 years, Masen eventually received 3 rhinoplasties, and is still unsatisfied with his
    appearance and constantly worries about the way he is perceived by others. What disorder does
    Masen most likely have?
A

b. Body Dysmorphic Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q
  1. Which specifier in Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder would be applied to the diagnosis of an individual
    who thinks the obsessive-compulsive beliefs are probably true?
A

b. With poor insight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q
  1. What biological factors are believed to contribute to OCD?
A

a. Family and twin studies suggest a genetic contribution
b. Functional brain abnormalities in the frontal regions and basal ganglia
c. Occasionally develops after brain surgery or injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q
  1. What is an example of an obsession?
A

b. Persistent thoughts about contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q
  1. Diana has been diagnosed with obsessive compulsive disorder. She recognizes that her belief that her
    apartment block will burn down if she leaves her curling iron on is probably not true, and therefore her
    diagnosis should have the specifier of:
A

b. With good or fair insight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q
  1. True or False: OCD is considered a type of anxiety disorder.
A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q
  1. Compulsions are defined by:
A

b. Repetitive behaviors

c. Repetitive mental acts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q
  1. What treatments can be used for OCD?
A

a. Medication (SRI’s)
b. Exposure and Response Prevention (ERP)
c. Psychosurgery
d. Deep Brain Stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
  1. Which is an example of Body Dysmorphia Disorder?
A

c. An individual concerned with their hair thinning without their hair actually thinning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q
  1. An individual with Body Dysmorphic Disorder with good or fair insight believes:
A

c. That the body dysmorphic beliefs are definitely not true or probably not true, or might be
true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT included in the Obsessive-Compulsive and Related Disorders section of
    the DSM 5?
A

b. Generalized Anxiety Disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q
  1. Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) is another obsessive-compulsive disorder, however, the focus of
    these obsessions is with a perceived defect or flaw in physical appearance. A key feature of these
    obsessions with defects or flaws are that they are not observable to others. Is this True or False?
A

a. True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q
  1. According to the DSM, to diagnose OCD the individual needs to have…
A

d. obsessions or compulsions or both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
  1. Which of the following is an obsession?
A

a. Closing the door 17 times before leaving for work so can avoid a car accident
b. Checking if you locked your door for the 6th time so your home won’t catch fire
c. Counting all your teeth, fingers, and toes 5 times so your mother won’t die
d. Washing your hands 9 times so you don’t get mauled by a bear
e. None of the above (these are all compulsions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q
  1. What is the best treatment for Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
A

b. Exposure and response therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
  1. Which characteristic is true for Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
A

c. This person at some point has performed repetitive behaviors or mental acts in response to
their appearance concerns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT an example of a compulsion?
A

c. Repeated doubts that a door is not locked

92
Q
  1. Currently, what is the best working treatment option for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)?
A

a. Exposure and Response Prevention

93
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT categorized as an obsessive-compulsive and related disorder?
A

a. Body dysmorphic disorder
b. Obsessive compulsive disorder
c. Hoarding disorder
d. Trichotillomania
e. All of the above are categorized as OCD and related disorders

94
Q
  1. One of the most effective treatment for both OCD and BDD is ______.
A

a. exposure and response therapy

95
Q
  1. John believes that the house probably won’t burn down if he doesn’t check the stove 30 times. Which
    specifier should be applied to his diagnosis of OCD?
A

c. With good or fair insight

96
Q
  1. In order to meet criteria A for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
A

d. Obsessions and/or Compulsions must be present

97
Q
  1. Dizygotic twins are more likely to both have OCD than monozygotic twins.
A

b. False

98
Q
  1. What are the psychological contributing factors for Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
A

a. Childhood neglect and abuse
b. More likely to have been teased about their appearance
c. May believe they are worthless if they aren’t attractive
d. Attentional bias towards beauty and attractiveness
e. All of the above

99
Q
  1. Jim is diagnosed with Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD). What form(s) of treatment would be the
    most effective to treat Jim.
A

a. Exposure and response prevention (ERP)

100
Q
  1. Which statement about OCD is FALSE?
A

b. To be diagnosed with OCD you must experience both compulsions and obsessions

101
Q
  1. How likely is it that a person will develop OCD if she has a first-degree biological relative with a
    childhood onset of OCD?
A

a. 10 times more likely to develop OCD

102
Q
  1. What is the name for the disorder that is characterized by excessive hair pulling?
A

c. Trichotillomania Disorder

103
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true about Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
A

e. Others can easily see the flaw or defect the individual is focused on

104
Q
  1. What is the name for the disorder that is characterized by excessive skin picking?
A

e. Excoriation Disorder

105
Q
  1. Which of the following could contribute to the etiology of body dysmorphic disorder?
A

a. Living in a society that heavily values and emphasizes beauty
b. Dealing with past experience with childhood neglect and abuse
c. Having an attentional bias towards beauty and attractiveness

106
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
A

d. Feeling concern over a congenital face defect or burn scars.

107
Q
  1. Monozygotic twins (identical) are more likely to both have OCD than dizygotic twins (fraternal) True or
    False.
A

a. True

108
Q
  1. What is an example of a compulsion?
A

d. Repeated hand washing

109
Q
  1. What does thought-action fusion mean?
A

c. A belief that thoughts are the moral equivalent of actions
d. A belief that negative thoughts increase the likelihood that something terrible will happen

110
Q
  1. The specifier “with good and fair insight” for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) is applied to
    individuals with OCD who:
A

b. recognize that the obsessive-compulsive beliefs are definitely/probably not true

111
Q
  1. Body Dysmorphic Disorder:
A

d. Is diagnosed equally between men and women

112
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a treatment for obsessive compulsive disorder?
A

a. Lithium

113
Q
  1. Which of the following best highlights an ego-dystonic obsession?
A

c. A priest having obsessive blasphemous thoughts

114
Q
  1. How much more likely are first degree biological relatives of adults who had a childhood onset of OCD
    likely to develop OCD?
A

d. 10x more likely

115
Q
  1. Which of these is a good example of exposure and response prevention?
A

b. Having the person touch a drop of pee and not wash their hands afterwards

116
Q
  1. What is/are some biological factors of OCD?
A

a. Brain injury/insult

d. Infectious agents and post-infectious autoimmune syndrome

117
Q
  1. ______ are defined as repetitive and intrusive thoughts, urges, or images. ______ are defined as
    repetitive behaviors or mental acts that an individual typically performs in response to an obsession.
A

c. Obsessions, compulsions

118
Q
  1. Someone who is completely convinced that their teeth are hideous and abnormal, and they don’t
    believe anyone who tells them otherwise most likely would be diagnosed with Body Dysmorphic
    Disorder…
A

b. With absent insight

119
Q
  1. What are potential psychological factors for Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
A

a. Childhood neglect or abuse
b. Being teased about their appearance
c. May believe they are worthless if they are not attractive
d. Attentional bias towards beauty and attractiveness

120
Q
  1. Are obsessions and compulsions the same thing?
A

b. No, compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that an individual typically performs
in response to an obsession which is an intrusive thought urge or image

121
Q
  1. Which description fits best with someone who may be starting to experience BDD?
A

b. Tanya, a 14-year-old who repeatedly checks the mirror before she heads to school to look at
her nose and other face blemishes that she believes look hideous but that others think look
fine.

122
Q
  1. What is the sex ratio of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder in adults? (Men: Women)
A

a. 1:1

123
Q
  1. Which of the following treatments for OCD involves implanting electrodes into the nucleus accumbens
    that sends electrical impulses to stimulate this brain region?
A

d. deep brain stimulation

124
Q
  1. What is it called when individuals believe that thoughts are the moral equivalent of actions and/or that
    negative thoughts increase the likelihood that something terrible will happen?
A

b. Thought-action fusion

125
Q
  1. Body dysmorphic order falls under which class of disorders?
A

d. Obsessive compulsive and related disorders

126
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the influence of heredity on OCD?
A

a. Monozygotic twins have a higher concordance rate than dizygotic twins.
b. First degree relatives are twice as susceptible to develop OCD.

127
Q
  1. Which is NOT a contributing factor to Body Dysmorphic Disorder?
A

a. A parent diagnosed with Bipolar Disorder

128
Q
  1. What is Exposure and Response Prevention?
A

b. Individuals are gradually exposed to their feared stimuli (e.g., contamination) while resisting
engaging in compulsions (e.g., washing)

129
Q
  1. What disorder/s are NOT included in the new Obsessive-Compulsive section of the DSM-5
A

e. Tic Disorder

130
Q
  1. What percentage of people find medications (SSRIs) beneficial in reducing symptoms of ObsessiveCompulsive Disorder?
A

d. 50-60%

131
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an OCD-related disorder?
A

d. Cyclothymic disorder

132
Q
  1. ________ are defined as repetitive and intrusive thoughts, urges, or images.
A

a. Obsessions

133
Q
  1. If your mother was diagnosed with OCD as a young adult, how many times more likely is it that you will
    also be diagnosed with OCD?
A

a. 2 times more likely

134
Q
  1. Which type of CBT treatment was created especially for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
A

c. Exposure and Response Prevention

135
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for being diagnosed with BDD?
A

a. Hallucinations and catatonic behavior present for a significant portion of time during a 1-
month period

136
Q
  1. Obsessions are defined as
A

b. Repetitive and intrusive thoughts, urges, or images

137
Q
  1. What is the point prevalence rate for BDD among U.S. adults?
A

e. 2.4%

138
Q
  1. What compulsive behaviors do individuals with body dysmorphic behavior engage in?
A

a. Excessive grooming
b. Skin-picking
c. Excessive mirror checking
d. Comparing themselves to others

139
Q
  1. What is it called when an individual believes that their thoughts are the moral equivalent of them
    committing that action and/or increase the likelihood of something terrible happening?
A

d. Thought-Action Fusion

140
Q
  1. A diagnosis of bipolar II disorder is made when the person has experienced a:
A

a. Hypomanic Episode

c. Depressive Episode

141
Q
  1. Which of these is NOT a specifier for major depressive disorder?
A

c. With poor insight

142
Q
  1. What type of insomnia does Patty have if she wakes up too early (e.g. 4am) and has trouble returning
    to sleep?
A

b. Terminal insomnia

143
Q
  1. Therapy treatment for this disorder is not enough and medication is required as a treatment plan.
A

e. Bipolar Disorder

144
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a specifier for bipolar disorders?
A

c. With atypical features

145
Q
  1. What mood disorder should you be diagnosed with if you experience a manic episode and don’t have a
    psychotic disorder?
A

a. Bipolar I Disorder

146
Q
  1. What is the clinical description associated with Bipolar II Disorder?
A

b. A clinical course in course in which the individual experiences one or more major depressive
episodes and at least one hypomanic episode.

147
Q
  1. Which of the following depressive disorders is characterized by depressed mood for most of the day,
    for more days than not, for at least 2 years?
A

b. Persistent Depressive Disorder

148
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a Bipolar Disorder?
A

b. Manic Episode

149
Q
  1. Which drugs are used to treat bipolar disorder?
A

a. Lithium
b. Anticonvulsants
c. Antidepressants

150
Q
  1. What is the difference between a manic episode and a hypomanic episode?
A

a. A manic episode must last a minimum of 1 week while a hypomanic episode only has to last 4
days
b. A manic episode must involve impairment or hospitalization, or psychotic features, while a
hypomanic episode must NOT involve these things

151
Q
  1. _____is the purposeless physical movement of the body such as pacing around a room, tapping toes
    and restlessness and the opposite, _______is slowed speech, thinking and movement.
A

d. Psychomotor agitation, psychomotor retardation

152
Q
  1. What is the approximate one-year prevalence of Major Depressive Disorder within the US?
A

d. 7%

153
Q
  1. One can be diagnosed with Bipolar I Disorder if they have at least how many manic episodes?
A

b. One

154
Q
  1. Which of these is NOT one of the depressive disorders in DSM 5?
A

e. Cyclothymic Disorder

155
Q
  1. A minimum of how many symptoms out of 9 must be present during the same 2-week period to be
    classified as Major Depressive Episode?
A

c. Five

156
Q
  1. What is anhedonia?
A

d. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all activities, most of the day,
nearly every day.

157
Q
  1. Which of the following depressive disorders is characterized by severe recurrent temper outbursts
    manifested verbally and/or behaviorally by a child that are grossly out of proportion in intensity or
    duration to the situation or provocation?
A

c. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

158
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes peripartum onset for mood disorders?
A

e. Onset is during pregnancy or within 4 weeks of childbirth

159
Q
  1. How long must an abnormally euphoric or irritable mood be persistently experienced to be
    characterized as a manic episode?
A

a. At least one week

160
Q
  1. Identify the accurate definition.
A

c. Terminal Insomnia is when you wake up too early and have trouble falling back to sleep.

161
Q
  1. Sabrina experienced a depressive episode 9 months ago. Her symptoms disappeared for 3 months and
    then retuned. Which specifier best describes Sabrina’s course of depression?
A

e. Recurrent episode

162
Q
  1. Which disorder can only be diagnosed if the person has experienced a manic episode?
A

a. Bipolar I

163
Q
  1. Which of the following depressive disorders is specific to children?
A

b. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder

164
Q
  1. Which of the following depressive disorders is specific to women?
A

d. Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder

165
Q
  1. What is the difference between Bipolar I and Bipolar II Disorders?
A

c. Bipolar II disorder involves hypomanic and depressive episodes whereas bipolar I involves at
least one manic episode

166
Q
  1. A diagnosis of _______ is made when the individual has experienced both a hypomanic episode and a
    depressive episode.
A

d. Bipolar II disorder

167
Q
  1. A criterion found in the DSM 5 for Major Depressive Disorder is diminished interest or pleasure in all,
    or almost all activities, most of the day, nearly every day. This symptom is referred to as:
A

b. Anhedonia

168
Q
  1. What is the median duration of Persistent Depressive Disorder in adults?
A

a. 5 years

169
Q
  1. What is NOT a depressive disorder recognized by the DSM 5?
A

c. Cyclothymic disorder

170
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a viable treatment for Bipolar Disorders?
A

b. Benzodiazepines

171
Q
  1. Women are 2-3 times more likely to experience depression than men.
A

a. True

172
Q
  1. CBT typically requires _____ sessions and it not only assists in recovery from depression, but it also
    assists in preventing relapse.
A

a. 10-20

173
Q
  1. Symptoms of _______ must persist for a minimum of two weeks to make a diagnosis while symptoms
    of _______ must persist continuously for a minimum of two years for a diagnosis.
A

d. Major depressive disorder; Persistent depressive disorder

174
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of depression?
A

a. Disruptions in sleep patterns
b. Difficulty thinking or concentrating
c. Fatigue or loss of energy
d. Feelings of worthlessness or guilt

175
Q
  1. Significant weight loss for Major Depressive Disorder is defined as:
A

d. A change of more than 5% of body weight in a one-month period

176
Q
  1. Which is NOT a form of therapy used to treat MDD and PDD?
A

b. Psychosurgery

177
Q
  1. Which is NOT true about Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)?
A

a. About 80% of people who don’t respond to medications do respond to ECT

178
Q
  1. Someone who has difficulty falling asleep has what kind of insomnia?
A

d. Initial insomnia

179
Q
  1. A diagnosis of bipolar II disorder is made when the person has experienced a:
A

a. Hypomanic Episode

c. Depressive Episode

180
Q
  1. What is the key feature of a manic episode?
A

c. Abnormally euphoric or irritable mood

181
Q
  1. Hypomanic Episodes alone are their own disorder.
A

b. False

182
Q
  1. What type of insomnia is described as waking up too early and not being able to fall back asleep?
A

d. Terminal Insomnia

183
Q
  1. What type of episode(s) is/are needed for diagnosing Bipolar I disorder?
A

b. Manic episode alone

184
Q
  1. Which of the following is an indicator of a severe severity level of a depressive disorder?
A

c. Most of the symptoms are present, they are seriously distressing and markedly interfere with
functioning

185
Q
  1. What does the term middle insomnia refer to?
A

d. Waking up during the night and having trouble falling back asleep

186
Q
  1. How many of the six criterion B symptoms of Persistent Depressive Disorder need to be present in
    order to make a diagnosis?
A

d. 2+

187
Q
  1. Aaron experienced a hypomanic episode four months ago that lasted for four weeks. For the past one
    week, Aaron has been experiencing psychomotor retardation, a marked decrease in interest in most
    activities, hypersomnia, fatigue, and impaired concentration for most of the day, nearly every day. He
    has never experienced a major depressive episode before this and has never had a manic episode.
    Aaron should be diagnosed with:
A

e. Nothing (the depressive episode has not lasted long enough)

188
Q
  1. Hypersomnia means…
A

c. Sleeping excessively

189
Q
  1. Which of the following are NOT a symptom of a Manic Episode?
A

d. Psychomotor retardation

190
Q
  1. What was Persistent Depressive Disorder previously known as?
A

b. Dysthymia/Dystymic Disorder

191
Q
  1. Which of the following difference between manic vs. hypomanic episodes of bipolar disorder is TRUE?
A

a. Manic episodes must last a minimum of 1 week, hypomanic episodes only have to last a
minimum of 4 days
c. Manic episodes must involve impairment in functioning, hypomanic episodes must not include
impairment in functioning

192
Q
  1. How long must its symptoms persist before a hypomanic episode can be diagnosed?
A

e. 4 days

193
Q
  1. ______ symptoms are required to diagnose major depressive disorder and ______ symptoms are
    required to diagnose persistent depressive disorder.
A

a. Five, two

194
Q
  1. When would bipolar II disorder be diagnosed?
A

a. When an individual has experienced both a hypomanic episode and a depressive episode

195
Q
  1. Which of the following hormones has been implicated in Seasonal Affective Disorder?
A

a. Melatonin

196
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is NOT TRUE about hypomanic episodes?
A

e. They often result in hospitalization.

197
Q
  1. How long do symptoms of a depressive episode need to last for a diagnosis of MDD?
A

b. 2 Weeks

198
Q
  1. Changes in weight of more than ______ of one’s body weight when one is not trying to lose or gain
    weight are considered a symptom of depression.
A

e. 5%

199
Q
  1. What of the following is NOT one of the depressive disorders in the DSM 5?
A

a. Major depressive disorder
b. Persistent depressive disorder
c. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder
d. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
e. The options above are all depressive disorders listed in the DSM 5

200
Q
  1. Which of the following disorders is/are new to the DSM 5?
A

c. Disruptive mood dysregulation disorder

d. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder

201
Q
  1. How long must one experience a depressed mood, for more days than not, to be diagnosed with
    Persistent Depressive Disorder? (As long as all other required symptoms are present)
A

a. Two years

202
Q
  1. How long does a hypomanic episode typically last for?
A

c. A few weeks to a few months

203
Q
  1. Negative attitudes about oneself, one’s experiences, and one’s future are often present in those who
    experience depression. What term is used to refer to these thoughts?
A

c. Negative cognitive triad

204
Q
  1. Which of the disorder require medication?
A

a. Bipolar I
b. Bipolar II
c. Cyclothymic disorder

205
Q
  1. What is the definition of anhedonia?
A

c. Loss of pleasure or interest in activities that were previously interesting

206
Q
  1. Molly has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. For the past four days Molly has been participating in
    several sexual indiscretions (using condoms), she has been feeling like she needs less sleep, and she
    has been more talkative than normal. After four days of this behavior Molly’s mood disturbance
    returned to normal. What did Molly experience?
A

a. Hypomanic episode

207
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a symptom of a manic episode?
A

e. Hypersomnia

208
Q
  1. What does it mean if someone is given the moderate specifier for Bipolar I disorder?
A

a. The number of symptoms and degree of impairment is between mild and severe

209
Q
  1. What is middle insomnia?
A

c. Waking up during the night and having trouble falling back asleep

210
Q
  1. Jim has the tendency to emphasize the negative rather than the positive aspects of a situation. What
    type of dysfunctional belief/negative thought is Jim showing?
A

c. Arbitrary Inference

211
Q
  1. What is hypersomnia?
A

b. Sleeping more then 10 hours a night

212
Q
  1. Which response is correct regarding the statistics for Bipolar Disorder?
A

c. 70-90% of people with rapid cycling type are women

213
Q
  1. In order for a diagnosis of Bipolar I disorder to be made, the person must have experienced at least
    ______ manic episode.
A

a. One

214
Q
  1. Over the past two months, Mandy has been in a consistent manic episode requiring hospitalization.
    She has never experienced any other mood episodes prior to or following her release. What disorder is
    she presenting with?
A

b. Bipolar I

215
Q
  1. What is a difference between Persistent and Major Depressive Disorder?
A

d. Persistent Depressive Disorder is more chronic but requires fewer symptoms

216
Q
  1. Which of these is NOT one of the nine DSM symptoms for major depressive disorder?
A

c. Feelings of increased energy

217
Q
  1. Which is not one of the four depressive disorders in the DSM 5?
A

c. Body Dysmorphic Disorder

218
Q
  1. Which country has the highest/lowest prevalence rate for depression?
A

e. United States/Japan

219
Q
  1. How long must a patient be experiencing symptoms to be diagnosed with Persistent Depressive
    Disorder?
A

c. At least 2 years

220
Q
  1. Which of the following is one of the two symptoms that MUST be present to diagnose Major
    Depressive Disorder?
A

c. Markedly diminished interest or pleasure in all, or almost all activities, most of the day,
nearly every day (anhedonia)

221
Q
  1. If Julie experienced her first major depressive episode 4 months ago, and has since then been
    experiencing hypomanic symptoms but has never experienced a hypomanic episode, what should she
    be diagnosed with?
A

e. Major Depressive Disorder, single episode

222
Q
  1. A hypomanic episode may have a duration of at least ______, while a manic episode must have a
    duration of at least ______.
A

d. Four days; one week

223
Q
  1. Which of the following types of medications is NOT used to treat Major Depressive Disorder?
A

c. Anticonvulsants

224
Q
  1. Maria, a 27-year-old woman, has been experiencing several symptoms of depression nearly every day
    for the last three years. Which depressive disorder does Maria most likely have?
A

b. Persistent Depressive Disorder

225
Q
  1. What is mood lability?
A

d. Rapid shifts in mood

Studying for upper division psych (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions