EXAM #3 (10-6 → ) Flashcards

1
Q

How many prescriptions in the 70’s vs. now

A

800 vs. >10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_____ of drugs is becoming a bigger responsibility for the technologist.

As your role increases your knowledge base needs to be broadened to include:
• Drug classification
• Drug action
• Drug interactions
• Drug reactions
• Principles and methods of administration

A

Preparation of drugs is becoming a bigger responsibility for the technologist.

As your role increases your knowledge base needs to be broadened to include:
• Drug classification
• Drug action
• Drug interactions
• Drug reactions
• Principles and methods of administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are drugs?

Substance used in medicine to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of disease.

The science concerned with the origin,nature, effects and use of drugs is _____.

A

Drugs are = any chemical substance that produces a biologic response in a living system.

Substance used in medicine to aid in the diagnosis, treatment, or prevention of disease.

The science concerned with the origin,nature, effects and use of drugs is PHARMACOLOGY.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

[Drug Nomenclature]

What is it?

Drugs are classified in many different ways:
• By name
• By action
• By method of legal purchase

A

It is classified system of names.

Drugs are classified in many different ways:
• By name
• By action
• By method of legal purchase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chemical name:
• Identifies the actual _____ _____ _____

• Seldom of practical use to the technologist

A

Chemical name:
• Identifies the actual chemical structure complex

• Seldom of practical use to the technologist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Generic name:
• Name given when drug becomes commercially available

  • Simpler name derived from more complex chemical name
  • Easier to pronounce
  • Never _____
A

Generic name:
• Name given when drug becomes commercially available

  • Simpler name derived from more complex chemical name
  • Easier to pronounce
  • Never capitalized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Brand name:
• Name given to a drug manufactured by a specific company

  • Usually short
  • Easy to remember
  • Always _____
A

Brand name:
• Name given to a drug manufactured by a specific company

  • Usually short
  • Easy to remember
  • Always capitalized
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What drug is cheaper? Generic or name brand?

A

Generic is cheaper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

[Classification by Action]

Drugs that have similar chemical actions are grouped into categories called drug _____

According to _____ or _____

This is convenient but may not be totally reliable

One drug may have several different effects and is listed under more than one category

EXAMPLE:

_____ - drugs that relieve pain

_____ - drugs that fight inflammation

_____ - drugs used to treat high blood pressure

A

[Classification by Action]

Drugs that have similar chemical actions are grouped into categories called drug families

According to action or function

This is convenient but may not be totally reliable

One drug may have several different effects and is listed under more than one category

EXAMPLE:

Analgesics - drugs that relieve pain

Anti-inflammatories - drugs that fight inflammation

Antihypertensives - drugs used to treat high blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

[Legal Classification ]

According to federal law drugs are classified as prescription or nonprescription

Prescription drugs need to be ordered by a legally authorized health practitioner.

The prescription is the document that specifies:

  • _____
  • _____
  • _____
A

[Legal Classification ]

According to federal law drugs are classified as prescription or nonprescription

Prescription drugs need to be ordered by a legally authorized health practitioner.

The prescription is the document that specifies:

  • Name of patient
  • Name of drug
  • Dosage regimen
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Nonprescription drugs are better known as _____ _____ _____ drugs (OTC).

Can be obtained legally _____ a prescription.

A

Nonprescription drugs are better known as over- the - counter drugs (OTC).

Can be obtained legally without a prescription.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

{*} No matter the legal classification, all medications administered to a patient must have an _____!

For example – even though Tylenol is an over the counter (OTC) medication, an _____ would be required!

A

No matter the legal classification, all medications administered to a patient must have an order!

For example – even though Tylenol is an over the counter (OTC) medication, an order would be required!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

[Dose Form]

The type of preparation or the manner in which the chemical agent is transported into the human body

A drug may come in may different forms

The form may determine:
Speed of _____ of the therapeutic effect

Speed of the following from slowest to fastest?
– patch
– IV
– injection
– oral
A

[Dose Form]

The type of preparation or the manner in which the chemical agent is transported into the human body

A drug may come in may different forms

The form may determine:
Speed of onset of the therapeutic effect

SLOWEST TO FASTEST:
oral, patch, injection, IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

[Dose Forms]

Tablet -

Capsule -

Suppository -

Solution -

Suspension -

Transdermal patch -

A

[Dose Forms]

Tablet - compressed into a hard disc

Capsule - contained in a gelatin shell

Suppository - shaped for insertion into a body orifice - rectum, vagina, urethra

Solution - one or more drugs dissolved in a liquid carrier - administered orally or parenterally (any injection of the drug with a needle and syringe beneath the surface of the skin)

Suspension - one or more drugs in small particles are suspended in a liquid carrier - must be shaken thoroughly before administration

Transdermal patch - drug can be applied to the skin and is absorbed into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

[Pharmacokinetics ]

What is it?

What are some factors that affect it?

When can contrast be added to a patient?

A

The study of how a drug is absorbed into the body, circulates within the body, is changed by the body, and leaves the body.

Many factors can affect these happenings:
Age, disease factors, sex, genetics, weight and route and time of administration.

Contrast can be added to a patient when their kidneys are in good working condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

[Drug effects on the body]

Undesirable effects:
Side effects
Toxic effects
Allergic reactions
Idiosyncratic reactions 

Idiosyncratic = ?

A

[Drug effects on the body]

Undesirable effects:
\_\_\_\_\_ effects
\_\_\_\_\_ effects
\_\_\_\_\_ reactions
\_\_\_\_\_ reactions 

Idiosyncratic = something we don’t want to happen that does anyway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

[Drug effects on the body]

Side effects:
?

Toxic effects:
?

Allergic Reactions:
?

A

[Drug effects on the body]

Side effects:
Drug acting on tissues other than those intended - causes a response unrelated to the intended action

Toxic effects:
Adverse effects related to the dose of drug administered

Allergic Reactions:
Bodies immunological system is hypersensitive to the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

[Drug effects on the body]

What are anaphylactic reactions

Delayed reactions usually _____ severe. May not become evident till _____ or _____ later.

A

[Drug effects on the body]

Immediate allergic reactions range from mild to severe (anaphylaxis) – carry epipens on person – can happen with contrast media (immediately)

Delayed reactions usually less severe. May not become evident till hours or days later.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

[Conscious Sedation]

Used frequently in _____ to sedate for a lengthy, painful or difficult procedure

Most commonly used drugs are _____ (_____) and _____ (______)

_____ must be used with caution as can significantly _____ the respiratory system

Where does it happen most?

A

[Conscious Sedation]

Used frequently in radiology to sedate for a lengthy, painful or difficult procedure

Most commonly used drugs are Fentanyl (anesthetic) and Versed (antianxiety)

Fentanyl must be used with caution as can significantly depress the respiratory system

Happens most in IVR or SONO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

[Levels of Sedation]

_____ - patient will respond normally to verbal commands

_____ (_____ _____) - depression of consciousness but patient will respond to verbal commands (_____ do this the most)

_____ - depression of consciousness in which the patient can not be easily aroused

_____ _____ - loss of consciousness

A

[Levels of Sedation]

Minimal - patient will respond normally to verbal commands

Moderate (conscious sedation) - depression of consciousness but patient will respond to verbal commands (Nurses do this the most)

Deep - depression of consciousness in which the patient can not be easily aroused

General anesthesia - loss of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

{***} FIVE RIGHTS OF DRUG ADMINISTRATION

A

P D D T R

Right PATIENT

Right DRUG

Right DOSE

Right TIME

Right ROUTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most common routes of administration

A
  • Oral (bust a nut in yo mouf)
  • Sublingual (under tongue, immediately absorbed)
  • Topical (cream + patches)
  • Parenteral (IM, SC, IV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Common Abbreviations

IM - 
IV - 
mg - 
ml - 
mm - 
po - 
prn - 
SC - 
Stat - 

Only use abbreviations deemed acceptable by your facility

This list is usually available on the facilities Intranet

A

Common Abbreviations

IM - intramuscular
IV - intravenous
mg - Milligram
ml - Milliliter
mm - millimeter
po - by mouth
prn - as needed
SC - Subcutaneous
Stat - Immediately

Only use abbreviations deemed acceptable by your facility

This list is usually available on the facilities Intranet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

[Medication Errors]

Errors associated with drug administration are among the most _____ legal problems in which radiologic technologists are involved.

If an error is made report to your _____ or _____

Follow the protocol of the facility for reporting drug _____ or drug _____ errors.

Example #1: X-ray a pt when they weren’t supposed to

Example #2: Oral/IV contrast media in error, needs to be reported to NY state

A

[Medication Errors]

Errors associated with drug administration are among the most common legal problems in which radiologic technologists are involved.

If an error is made report to your supervisor or physician

Follow the protocol of the facility for reporting drug charting or drug administration errors.

Example #1: X-ray a pt when they weren’t supposed to

Example #2: Oral/IV contrast media in error, needs to be reported to NY state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Can students inject contrast or do anything with contrast media for that matter?

A

NAH SON WE DON’T DO THAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Normal level of BUN (blood urea nitrogen)

A

8-25 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is BUN (blood urea nitrogen)?

Indicator of _____ _____

Measure of _____ in _____ that comes the waste product _____

Values increase with _____ – infants have _____ values

A

What is BUN (blood urea nitrogen)?

Indicator of kidney function

Measure of nitrogen in blood that comes the waste product urea

Values increase with age – infants have lower values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Causes of high levels of BUN

A

Urinary tract obstruction

Kidney disease

Gastrointestinal bleed

Dehydration

Burns

Medication

High protein diets

Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Causes of low level BUN

A

Liver disorder

Over hydration

Malnutrition (not eating enough protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Normal value of Creatinine

A

0.6-1.5 mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is Creatinine

A

Chemical waste product produced by muscle

Entirely filtered and eliminated from the blood by the kidneys

As men have higher muscle mass, levels are usually higher in men than women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Causes of high levels of Creatinine

A

Dehydration

Low blood volume

Medications

High protein diet

Kidney failure, infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Causes of low levels in Creatinine

A

Conditions involving muscle

myasthenia gravis

Muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)

Stage 1 = Kidney damage with normal or ↑GFR = GFR ?

Stage 2 = Kidney damage with mild ↓GFR = GFR ?

Stage 3 = Moderate ↓GFR = GFR ?

Stage 4 = Severe ↓GFR = GFR ?

Stage 5 = Kidney failure = GFR ?

A

Stage 1 = GFR >= 90

Stage 2 = GFR 60-89

Stage 3 = GFR 30-59

Stage 4 = GFR 15-29

Stage 5 = GFR < 15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Normal blood cell count for men

A

4.6-6.2 million/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Normal blood cell count for women

A

4.2-5.9 million/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Function of red blood cells?

A

carry oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Function of white blood cells?

A

Also called leucocytes, cells of the immune system that are involved in protecting against infectious disease and foreign invaders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

High causes of white blood cell count

A

infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Low causes of white blood cell count

A

chemo, radiation, leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Normal white blood cell count

A

4,300-10,800/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Normal platelet count

A

150,000-350,000/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

[Platelets]

Cells produced by _____ _____ and released into blood stream

Function is to release _____ necessary to coagulate blood preventing excessive blood loss from an internal or external injury

_____ causes – cancer, infection, anemia, inflammatory diseases

_____ causes – bone marrow disease, radiation, chemo therapy

A

[Platelets]

Cells produced by _____ _____ and released into blood stream

Function is to release hormones necessary to coagulate blood preventing excessive blood loss from an internal or external injury

High causes – cancer, infection, anemia, inflammatory diseases

Low causes – bone marrow disease, radiation, chemo therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Normal Prothrombin - Protime time

Used to determine…?

A

10-12 seconds

Used to determine blood clotting tendency of blood in the measure of warfarin (Coumadin) dosing, liver damage and Vitamin K status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Normal thromboplastin time - PTT time

Used to determine…?

A

30-45 seconds

Determines the time it takes for blood to clot

Usually measured when blood thinner Heparin is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Normal oxygen saturation O2 saturation

A

> 95%

47
Q

What is O2 saturation used to measure?

A

Measure of concentration of oxygen in the blood

48
Q

Causes of low O2 saturation?

A

IF YOU NOT BREATHING RIGHT

anemia

respiratory disease

respiratory depression (from narcotics and anesthetics)

congenital heart disease

sleep apnea

49
Q

Normal levels of hemoglobin in men

A

12-18 g/100ml

50
Q

Normal levels of hemoglobin in women

A

12-16 g/100ml

51
Q

Function of hemoglobin?

A

carry oxygen

52
Q

Causes of low hemoglobin count?

A

body produces too few, body destroys faster than produces and blood loss

53
Q

Normal levels of Hematocrit in men?

A

45-52%

54
Q

Normal levels of Hematocrit in women?

A

37-48%

55
Q

What is Hematocrit?

A

Percentage of red blood cells in blood

56
Q

The higher the GFR (Glomerular Filtration Rate ) the BETTER/WORSE the kidneys are performing

A

The higher the GFR (Glomerular Filtration Rate) the BETTER the kidneys are performing

57
Q

What are the three factors needed to see images?

A
  • Magnification of an image until it is visible
  • Resolution of the detail of an image to visualize the separate structures that make up the image
  • Contrast of an image to distinguish different shades of density
58
Q

The body absorbs x-ray photons according to the various tissue’s _____ number and amount of _____ per volume of tissue

Tissue’s with higher atomic numbers absorb more x-ray photons than those with lower numbers

There is little contrast within the body except bones; they show up because calcium within has a high atomic number

Soft tissue _____ x-ray easily, resulting in decreased x-ray absorption

A

The body absorbs x-ray photons according to the various tissue’s atomic number and amount of matter per volume of tissue

Tissue’s with higher atomic numbers absorb more x-ray photons than those with lower numbers

There is little contrast within the body except bones; they show up because calcium within has a high atomic number

Soft tissue scatter x-ray easily, resulting in decreased x-ray absorption

59
Q

The following are POSITIVE/NEGATIVE contrast media?

  • Low-anatomic number elements
  • Administered as gas (air) or gas producing tablets, crystals or soda water
  • Usually used in combination with radiopaque media to outline lumens or spaces within body structures
A

The following are NEGATIVE contrast media

  • Low-anatomic number elements
  • Administered as gas (air) or gas producing tablets, crystals or soda water
  • Usually used in combination with radiopaque media to outline lumens or spaces within body structures
60
Q

The following are POSITIVE contrast media?

  • Barium Sulfate – has an atomic number of 56; thus is radiopaque -used for examination of the gastrointestinal system
  • Water-soluble Iodine Contrast Media – iodine has an atomic number of 53 making it relatively opaque
A

The following are POSITIVE/NEGATIVE contrast media?

  • Barium Sulfate – has an atomic number of 56; thus is radiopaque -used for examination of the gastrointestinal system
  • Water-soluble Iodine Contrast Media – iodine has an atomic number of 53 making it relatively opaque
61
Q

Purpose of Gadolinium-Based Contrast ?

Gadolinium will accumulate in the _____ tissue

Abnormal areas will be very _____ on MRI

Cleared through the _____

A

Provides contrast between normal and abnormal tissue in the brain and body

Gadolinium will accumulate in the abnormal tissue

Abnormal areas will be very bright on MRI

Cleared through the kidneys

62
Q

What is Osmolality ?

Ionic contrast media - HIGH/LOW Osmolality

Nonionic contrast media - HIGH/LOW Osmolality

Isosmolality contrast media - _____
Osmolality as blood (285-295)

Osmolality of a solution determines _____ _____

A

Osmolality is a measure of the total # of particles in solution per kilogram of water

Ionic contrast media - HIGH Osmolality

Nonionic contrast media - LOW Osmolality

Isosmolality contrast media - SAME
Osmolality as blood (285-295)

Osmolality of a solution determines OSMOTIC PRESSURE

63
Q

Osmotic pressure controls the movement of _____ in the body

High osmolar contrast media caused increase in adverse effects due to the high movement of fluid into the vascular system

A

Osmotic pressure controls the movement of water in the body

High osmolar contrast media caused increase in adverse effects due to the high movement of fluid into the vascular system

64
Q

What is LOCM?

INCREASED/DECREASED the movement of water

INCREASED/DECREASED the incidence of side effects

_ - _% incidence of side effects with LOCM

A

Low osmolality contrast media was developed - nonionic contrast

DECREASED the movement of water

DECREASED the incidence of side effects

1-3% incidence of side effects with LOCM

65
Q

[Osmolality Comparisons ]

IONIC:
• Conray 30 - 600
• Conray 43 – 1000
• Hexabrix – 600
• Conray – 1400

NON-IONIC:
• Omnipaque -___
• Visipaque – ___

(blood ___-___)

A

[Osmolality Comparisons]

IONIC:
• Conray 30 - 600
• Conray 43 – 1000
• Hexabrix – 600
• Conray – 1400

NON-IONIC:
• Omnipaque -322
• Visipaque – 290

(blood 285-295)

66
Q

What are adverse events?

“_____” response may be _____, ______, or _____, very rarely _____

Severe _____ _____ reactions are very rare

Although _____ we must always be aware of symptoms

A

What are adverse events?

“ALLERGIC” response may be RASH, HIVES, or URTICARIA, very rarely BRONCHOSPASM

Severe LIFE THREATENING reactions are very rare

Although RARE we must always be aware of symptoms

67
Q

[Need for consent]

Per the _____ MANUAL ON CONTRAST MEDIA VERSION 10

“Because of the low incidence of adverse events, intravenous injection of contrast media may be exempted from the need for informed consent, but this decision should be based in state law and institutional policy, and departmental policy.”

A

[Need for consent]

Per the ACR MANUAL ON CONTRAST MEDIA VERSION 10

“Because of the low incidence of adverse events, intravenous injection of contrast media may be exempted from the need for informed consent, but this decision should be based in state law and institutional policy, and departmental policy.”

68
Q

[Appropriate Considerations]

Assess patient _____ verses patient _____ if contrast media is injected

Are there imaging _____ that would provide the same or better diagnostic information

Is there a valid _____ reason for contrast media to be injected

A

[Appropriate Considerations]

Assess patient RISK verses patient BENEFIT if contrast media is injected

Are there imaging ALTERNATIVES that would provide the same or better diagnostic information

Is there a valid CLINICAL reason for contrast media to be injected

69
Q

[General Aims ] to [Appropriate Considerations]

_____ a contrast reaction or adverse effect from happening

All personnel who will administer contrast agents are trained to _____ any adverse event, monitor it and to _____ appropriate response

Equipment is available to treat reactions

A

[General Aims] to [Appropriate Considerations]

PREVENT a contrast reaction or adverse effect from happening

All personnel who will administer contrast agents are trained to RECOGNIZE any adverse event, monitor it and to INITIATE appropriate response

Equipment is available to treat reactions

70
Q

[General Aims] to [Appropriate Considerations]

AWARE THAT SEVERE, LIFE THREATENING REACTIONS CAN OCCUR

AWARE THAT SEVERE, LIFE THREATENING REACTIONS CAN OCCUR

AWARE THAT SEVERE, LIFE THREATENING REACTIONS CAN OCCUR

A

[General Aims] to [Appropriate Considerations]

AWARE THAT SEVERE, LIFE THREATENING REACTIONS CAN OCCUR

AWARE THAT SEVERE, LIFE THREATENING REACTIONS CAN OCCUR

AWARE THAT SEVERE, LIFE THREATENING REACTIONS CAN OCCUR

71
Q

Classification of adverse events:

  • _____
  • _____
  • _____
A

Classification of adverse events:

  • MILD
  • MODERATE
  • SEVERE
72
Q

[Mild Adverse Reactions ]

Allergic like:
• Itchy/scratchy throat
• Hives (1-3 small diameter)
• Nasal congestion
• Sneezing
Physiological:
• Limited nausea/vomiting
• Flushing/warmth
• Headache/dizziness
• Anxiety
• Vasovagal reaction that resolves spontaneously
A

[Mild Adverse Reactions]

Allergic like:
• Itchy/scratchy throat
• Hives (1-3 small diameter)
• Nasal congestion
• Sneezing
Physiological:
• Limited nausea/vomiting
• Flushing/warmth
• Headache/dizziness
• Anxiety
• Vasovagal reaction that resolves spontaneously
73
Q

[Moderate Reactions ]

Allergic like:
• Diffuse hives
• Facial edema without dyspnea
• Throat tightness
• Wheezing/bronchospasm
• Mild or no hypoxia
 Physiological:
• Protracted nausea/vomiting
• Hypertensive urgency
• Isolated chest pain
• Vasovagal reaction that requires and is responsive to treatment
A

[Moderate Reactions]

Allergic like:
• Diffuse hives
• Facial edema without dyspnea
• Throat tightness
• Wheezing/bronchospasm
• Mild or no hypoxia
Physiological:
• Protracted nausea/vomiting
• Hypertensive urgency
• Isolated chest pain
• Vasovagal reaction that requires and is responsive to treatment
74
Q

[Severe - can be life threatening! ]

Allergic like:
• Diffuse edema, or facial edema with dyspnea
• Diffuse erythema with hypotension
• Laryngeal edema with stridor and/or hypoxia
• Anaphylactic shock (hypotension+tachycardia)

Physiological:
• Vasovagal reaction resistant to treatment
• Arrhythmia
• Seizures
• Hypertensive emergency
A

[Severe - can be life threatening!]

Allergic like:
• Diffuse edema, or facial edema with dyspnea
• Diffuse erythema with hypotension
• Laryngeal edema with stridor and/or hypoxia
• Anaphylactic shock (hypotension+tachycardia)

Physiological:
• Vasovagal reaction resistant to treatment
• Arrhythmia
• Seizures
• Hypertensive emergency
75
Q

[Mild reaction treatment]

_____ treatment often needed

Advise pt to increase _____ _____

Monitor _____ signs/preserve IV access during an observation period

_____ may be given for hives if widespread

A

[Mild reaction treatment]

NO treatment often needed

Advise pt to increase ORAL FLUIDS

Monitor VITAL signs/preserve IV access during an observation period

BENADRYL may be given for hives if widespread

76
Q

[Diffuse Erythema ]

  • _____ IV access
  • Monitor _____/pulse _____
  • O2 by _____
  • IV fluids if _____
  • _____ if unresponsive to fluids
A

[Diffuse Erythema]

  • Maintain IV access
  • Monitor vitals/pulse oximetry
  • O2 by mask
  • IV fluids if hypotensive
  • Epinephrine if unresponsive to fluids
77
Q

[Bronchospasm ]

  • _____ IV access
  • Monitor _____/pulse ____
  • O2 by _____
  • _____ – Albuterol
  • If severe may consider _____ IV or IM
A

[Bronchospasm]

  • Preserve IV access
  • Monitor vitals/pulse oximetry
  • O2 by mask
  • Inhaler – Albuterol
  • If severe may consider epinephrine IV or IM
78
Q

[Laryngeal edema ]

  • _____ IV access
  • Monitor _____/pulse _____
  • O2 by _____
  • _____ IV or IM
A

[Laryngeal edema]

  • Maintain IV access
  • Monitor vitals/pulse oximetry
  • O2 by mask
  • Epinephrine IV or IM
79
Q

[Hypotension ]

  • _____ IV access
  • Monitor _____/pulse _____
  • O2 by _____
  • Elevate _____
  • Consider _____ _____
A

[Hypotension]

  • Preserve IV access
  • Monitor vitals/pulse oximetry
  • O2 by mask
  • Elevate legs
  • Consider IV fluids
80
Q

[Hypotension with bradycardia ]

  • Same as _____
  • If mild – _____ treatment
  • Severe – IV _____
A

[Hypotension with bradycardia]

  • Same as hypotension
  • If mild – no treatment
  • Severe – IV atropine
81
Q

[Hypotension with tachycardia ]

  • Same as _____
  • _____ IM or IV
A

[Hypotension with tachycardia]

  • Same as hypotension
  • Epinephrine IM or IV
82
Q

[Hypertensive crisis ]

All Forms:
• \_\_\_\_\_ IV access
• Monitor \_\_\_\_\_/pulse \_\_\_\_\_
• O2 by \_\_\_\_\_
• \_\_\_\_\_ IV

Unresponsive/pulseless:
• Call _____ or _____

A

[Hypertensive crisis]

All Forms:
• Preserve IV access
• Monitor vitals/pulse oximetry
• O2 by mask
• Labetalol IV

Unresponsive/pulseless:
• Call code or 911

83
Q

[Pulmonary edema ]

  • _____ IV access
  • Monitor _____/pulse _____
  • O2 by _____
  • Elevate _____ of bed if possible
  • Lasix – diuretic
  • Morphine
  • Call _____ or _____
A

[Pulmonary edema]

  • Preserve IV access
  • Monitor vitals/pulse oximetry
  • O2 by mask
  • Elevate head of bed if possible
  • Lasix – diuretic (Gets fluid out of lungs)
  • Morphine
  • Call code or 911
84
Q

[Seizures ]

  • _____ and _____ pt
  • Turn on _____ to avoid aspiration
  • Suction _____ if needed
  • _____ IV access
  • Monitor _____/ pulse _____
  • O2 by _____
  • Anti-seizure _____ if unremitting
A

[Seizures]

  • Observe and protect pt
  • Turn on side to avoid aspiration
  • Suction airway if needed
  • Preserve IV access
  • Monitor vitals/ pulse oximetry
  • O2 by mask
  • Anti-seizure med if unremitting
85
Q

[Contrast Reaction Drug Box ]

Some departments may maintain a drug reaction box which contains the most commonly used medications

Know where this box is in your clinical work area.

A

[Contrast Reaction Drug Box]

Some departments may maintain a drug reaction box which contains the most commonly used medications

Know where this box is in your clinical work area.

86
Q

[Premedication ]

If patient has a history of contrast allergy _____ may be ordered

Most common regime is _____ – 50my by mouth at 13 hours, 7 hours, and 1 hour before contrast media plus _____ – 50 mg 1 hour prior to contrast medium

_____ Manual on Contrast Media, Version 10, 2015

A

[Premedication]

If patient has a history of contrast allergy premedication may be ordered

Most common regime is Prednisone – 50my by mouth at 13 hours, 7 hours, and 1 hour before contrast media plus Benadryl – 50 mg 1 hour prior to contrast medium

ACR Manual on Contrast Media, Version 10, 2015

87
Q

[Delayed Reaction to Contrast Media ]

Onset __ days to __ days following the injection.

Manifestations are skin _____, may be pustular and often with itching.

Usually self limited and require _____ symptomatic treatment.

May, however progress to severe symptoms and may need an _____ or _____ consult.

A

[Delayed Reaction to Contrast Media]

Onset 3 days to 7 days following the injection.

Manifestations are skin rashes, may be pustular and often with itching.

Usually self limited and require minimal symptomatic treatment.

May, however progress to severe symptoms and may need an allergy or dermatology consult.

88
Q

[GI Contrast Media ]

Oral, rectal, and intravenous contrast agents are utilized in a variety of ways for imaging of the GI system

Oral contrast agents are used for fluoro studies such a upper GI series, and small bowel follow-through

Also used for CT studies to highlight the GI tract in studies of the abdomen and pelvis

A

[GI Contrast Media]

Oral, rectal, and intravenous contrast agents are utilized in a variety of ways for imaging of the GI system

Oral contrast agents are used for fluoro studies such a upper GI series, and small bowel follow-through

Also used for CT studies to highlight the GI tract in studies of the abdomen and pelvis

89
Q

[GI Contrast Media ]

Rectal contrast media is given for conventional fluoro colon studies

Rectal contrast media may also be administered for CT studies to opacify the colonic lumen during imaging of the abdomen and pelvis

A

[GI Contrast Media]

Rectal contrast media is given for conventional fluoro colon studies

Rectal contrast media may also be administered for CT studies to opacify the colonic lumen during imaging of the abdomen and pelvis

90
Q

[GI Contrast Media used in Conventional Fluoroscopic Exams]

Barium Sulfate:
• Preferred for opacification of the _____ tract for fluoro studies

• Also used for patients undergoing studies performed via _____ or _____ tubes terminating in the stomach or small intestine

A

[GI Contrast Media used in Conventional Fluoroscopic Exams]

Barium Sulfate:
• Preferred for opacification of the GI tract for fluoro studies

• Also used for patients undergoing studies performed via oral or nasoenteric tubes terminating in the stomach or small intestine

91
Q

[GI Contrast Media used in Conventional Fluoroscopic Exams]

Water soluble:
• Limited to select situations predominantly where there is a suspected _____ _____ or to confirm percutaneous feeding tube position

• Two iodinated HOCM (_____ _____ _____ _____) are Gastrografin and Gastroview – used undiluted

A

[GI Contrast Media used in Conventional Fluoroscopic Exams]

Water soluble:
• Limited to select situations predominantly where there is a suspected bowel perforation or to confirm percutaneous feeding tube position

• Two iodinated HOCM (high osmolarity contrast media) are Gastrografin and Gastroview – used undiluted

92
Q

[Contraindications]

Barium Sulfate:
• Any possibility of _____ _____

• Suspected Barium allergy

A

[Contraindications]

Barium Sulfate:
• Any possibility of bowel perforation

• Suspected Barium allergy

93
Q

[Contraindications]

HOCM water soluble:
• Pts at risk for _____ as can cause severe _____ _____

  • Very _____ or very _____ pts with fluid and electrolyte imbalances
  • LOCM are preferable for the above pt populations
A

[Contraindications]

HOCM water soluble:
• Pts at risk for aspiration as can cause severe pulmonary edema

  • Very young or very old pts with fluid and electrolyte imbalances
  • LOCM are preferable for the above pt populations
94
Q

[GI Contrast Media ]

  • Iodinated contrast media supplied for _____ use may also be administered safely by _____ or _____.
  • This is usually “_____ _____” use
  • The taste of LOCM agents are often more palatable.
A

[GI Contrast Media]

  • Iodinated contrast media supplied for intravenous use may also be administered safely by mouth or rectum.
  • This is usually “off label” use
  • The taste of LOCM agents are often more palatable.
95
Q

[Complications of GI Contrast Media]

Barium sulfate:
• Almost always mild

  • Nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramping during and/or after the exam – are not allergic reactions but physiological responses.
  • Allergic responses can include _____, _____ and mild _____
  • Anaphylactic reactions are rare
A

[Complications of GI Contrast Media]

Barium sulfate:
• Almost always mild

  • Nausea, vomiting and abdominal cramping during and/or after the exam – are not allergic reactions but physiological responses.
  • Allergic responses can include rashes, itching and mild bronchospasm
  • Anaphylactic reactions are rare
96
Q

[Complications of GI Contrast Media]

Water soluble:
• Only __-__% is absorbed and therefore adverse reactions are very rare

  • Very rare reports of moderate or severe allergic like reactions
  • However, there always is the possibility of an _____ event
  • _____ and _____ are possible due to fluid loss from intestine
A

[Complications of GI Contrast Media]

Water soluble:
• Only 1-2% is absorbed and therefore adverse reactions are very rare

  • Very rare reports of moderate or severe allergic like reactions
  • However, there always is the possibility of an anaphylactic event
  • Hypovolemia and hypotension are possible due to fluid loss from intestine
97
Q

[GI Contrast Media for CT Scan Studies ]

Used for _____ studies

_____ and _____ are used but in a diluted state

Usually _____ and mixed with favoring

_____ are used very dilute and therefore aspiration and hypovolemia are not a concern

A

[GI Contrast Media for CT Scan Studies]

Used for abdominopelvic studies

Gastrografin and Gastroview are used but in a diluted state

Usually diluted and mixed with favoring

HOCM are used very dilute and therefore aspiration and hypovolemia are not a concern

98
Q

[Patient Screening prior to a contrast enhanced study ]

The history obtained should focus on identification of factors that may indicate either a _____ to contrast media use or an _____ likelihood of a reaction

A

[Patient Screening prior to a contrast enhanced study]

The history obtained should focus on identification of factors that may indicate either a contraindication to contrast media use or an increased likelihood of a reaction

99
Q

[Patient Questionnaire ]

Review prior to every _____ _____ study

Review responses with patient or with family member if patient is uncertain

  • Notify _____ or _____ if any responses are of concern
A

[Patient Questionnaire]

Review prior to every contrast media study

Review responses with patient or with family member if patient is uncertain

Notify radiologist or nurse if any responses are of concern

100
Q

[Risk Factors for Adverse Intravenous Contrast Media Reactions ]

  • Allergy
  • Asthma
  • Renal Insufficiency
  • Cardiac Status
  • Anxiety
  • Misc. Risk Factors – Age, multiple myeloma, sickle cell, pheochromocytoma, thyroid disease
A

[Risk Factors for Adverse Intravenous Contrast Media Reactions]

  • Allergy
  • Asthma
  • Renal Insufficiency
  • Cardiac Status
  • Anxiety
  • Misc. Risk Factors – Age, multiple myeloma, sickle cell, pheochromocytoma, thyroid disease
101
Q

[Allergies ]

Previous Contrast Reaction – prior allergic like reaction is associated with an up to _____ fold increased likelihood of a subsequent reaction

History of multiple allergies - note _____ allergy is proven to be unreliable as a factor for concern

History of prior _____ reaction to 1 or more drugs

A

[Allergies]

Previous Contrast Reaction – prior allergic like reaction is associated with an up to five fold increased likelihood of a subsequent reaction

History of multiple allergies - note shellfish allergy is proven to be unreliable as a factor for concern

History of prior anaphylactic reaction to 1 or more drugs

102
Q

[Asthma]

A history of asthma may indicate an _____ likelihood of a contrast reaction

A

[Asthma]

A history of asthma may indicate an increased likelihood of a contrast reaction

103
Q

[Renal Disease ]

Know your departments _____ numbers (usual GFR cutoff is less than 30 ml/min)

Risk Factors – age > __

History of renal disease – dialysis, kidney transplant, single kidney, kidney _____, known kidney cancer

History of _____

Diabetes mellitus

Metformin use

A

[Renal Disease]

Know your departments guideline numbers (usual GFR cutoff is less than 30 ml/min)

Risk Factors – age > 60

History of renal disease – dialysis, kidney transplant, single kidney, kidney surgery, known kidney cancer

History of hypertension

Diabetes mellitus

Metformin use

104
Q

[Cardiac Status ]

Patients with significant cardiac disease may be at INCREASED/DECREASED risk for reactions

With these patients attention should be paid to limiting the _____ and _____ of the contrast media

A

[Cardiac Status]

Patients with significant cardiac disease may be at increased risk for reactions

With these patients attention should be paid to limiting the volume and osmolality of the contrast media

105
Q

[Special Considerations ]

Multiple Myeloma

Sickle Cell Disease

Pheochromocytoma (tumor of the _____ glands)

Breastfeeding mothers

Pregnancy

A

[Special Considerations]

Multiple Myeloma

Sickle Cell Disease

Pheochromocytoma (tumor of the adrenal glands)

Breastfeeding mothers

Pregnancy

106
Q

[Metformin ]

What is Metformin ?

  • A significant adverse effect of Metformin therapy is the development of _____ _____
  • Any factors that decrease metformin excretion are important risk factors for _____ _____ – this includes renal insufficiency
A

[Metformin]

Is an oral anti-hyperglycemic agent used to treat patients with non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus

A significant adverse effect of Metformin therapy is the development of lactic acidosis

Any factors that decrease metformin excretion are important risk factors for lactic acidosis – this includes renal insufficiency

107
Q

[Management of patients taking Metformin ]

ARE OR ARE NOT at higher risk than other patients for post-contrast acute kidney injury

_____ is a potential concern for FURTHERING renal damage in patients with acute kidney injury of severe chronic kidney disease

There have been no reports of lactic acidosis following contrast administration in properly selected patients

A

[Management of patients taking Metformin]

ARE NOT at higher risk than other patients for post-contrast acute kidney injury

Contrast is a potential concern for FURTHERING renal damage in patients with acute kidney injury of severe chronic kidney disease

There have been no reports of lactic acidosis following contrast administration in properly selected patients

108
Q

[Metformin Policy ]

The ACR guidelines - 2015 ACR Manual of Contrast Media Version 10:

Category I
Patients with normal kidney function and no known comorbidities - _____ need to discontinue Metformin prior to intravenously administering iodinated contrast media, nor is there a need to check _____ following the procedure before instructing the patient to resume Metformin after 48 hours.

A

[Metformin Policy]

The ACR guidelines - 2015 ACR Manual of Contrast Media Version 10:

Category I
Patients with normal kidney function and no known comorbidities - NO need to discontinue Metformin prior to intravenously administering iodinated contrast media, nor is there a need to check CREATININE following the procedure before instructing the patient to resume Metformin after 48 hours.

109
Q

[Metformin Policy]

The ACR guidelines - 2015 ACR Manual of Contrast Media Version 10:

Category II
Patients known to have acute kidney injury or severe chronic kidney disease SHOULD/SHOULDN’T temporarily discontinue Metformin at the time of, or prior to the procedure and withhold for __ hours following the procedure. Metformin should only be _____ after renal function has been re-evaluated and found to be normal.

A

[Metformin Policy]

The ACR guidelines - 2015 ACR Manual of Contrast Media Version 10:

Category II
Patients known to have acute kidney injury or severe chronic kidney disease SHOULD temporarily discontinue metformin at the time of, or prior to the procedure and withhold for 48 hours following the procedure. Metformin should only be reinstituted after renal function has been re-evaluated and found to be normal.

110
Q

[Post contrast Acute Kidney Injury and Contrast-Induced Nephropathy in Adults ]

Post contrast acute kidney injury (PC-AKI) is a general term used to describe a sudden _____ in renal function that occurs within 48hrs following intravenous administration of iodinated _____ medium

Contrast induced nephropathy (CIN) is a term used to describe a sudden deterioration in renal function that is caused by _____ administration of iodinated contrast medium

A

[Post contrast Acute Kidney Injury and Contrast-Induced Nephropathy in Adults]

Post contrast acute kidney injury (PC-AKI) is a general term used to describe a sudden deterioration in renal function that occurs within 48hrs following intravenous administration of iodinated contrast medium

Contrast induced nephropathy (CIN) is a term used to describe a sudden deterioration in renal function that is caused by intravascular administration of iodinated contrast medium

111
Q

[Contrast Induced Nephropathy ]

Media position is CIN is a real, but rare, entity.

The exact pathophysiology of CIN is not understood.

  • Most important risk factor appears to be _____ severe renal insufficiency
A

[Contrast Induced Nephropathy]

Media position is CIN is a real, but rare, entity.

The exact pathophysiology of CIN is not understood.

  • Most important risk factor appears to be pre-existing severe renal insufficiency
112
Q

[Contrast Induced Nephropathy ]

If a threshold for CIN risk is used at all, __ mL/min seems to be the one with the greatest level of evidence.

Multiple other risk factors have been proposed – diabetes mellitus, dehydration, cardiovascular disease, diuretic use, advanced age, multiple myeloma, hypertension and multiple contrast injections over a short period of time.

A

[Contrast Induced Nephropathy]

If a threshold for CIN risk is used at all, 30 mL/min seems to be the one with the greatest level of evidence.

Multiple other risk factors have been proposed – diabetes mellitus, dehydration, cardiovascular disease, diuretic use, advanced age, multiple myeloma, hypertension and multiple contrast injections over a short period of time.

113
Q

[Injection of Contrast Media ]

*** THE 6 Rs OF DRUG ADMINISTRATION

A

The 6 R’s of Drug Administration

Right PATIENT - 2 patient identifiers

Right DRUG - check drug name before drawing up, after drawing up and before administering drug. Syringe must be labeled with drug name and dose

Right DOSE

Right ROUTE

Right TIME

Right DOCUMENTATION