Exam 2 (week 2) Flashcards

1
Q

what is the name of the boundary between nasal cavity and nasopharynx

A

choanae

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2
Q

what are the boney portions of the nasal septum

A

perpendicular plate of ethmoid (superior)

vomer (inferior)

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3
Q

role of turbinates in nose

A

warm and circulate air

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4
Q

what bone are the conchae from

A

superior and middle from ethmoid

inferior is it’s own bone

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5
Q

how are spaces by nasal conchae named and what do they do

A

named for the conchae superior to them

used for drainage (tears and mucus)

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6
Q

most posterior sinus in face and what is it near

A

sphenoid sinus - right anterior to optic chiasm and inferior to pituitary

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7
Q

features of middle meatus and what drains into it

A

ostiomeatal complex:

  1. semilunar hiatus (frontal, maxillary, and anterior air cells)
  2. ethmoidal bulla
  3. uncinate process (ridge)
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8
Q

what drains into superior meatus

A

posterior ethmoid air cells

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9
Q

what drains into sphenoethmoidal recess

A

sphenoid sinus

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10
Q

sensory info to nose

A

V1 and V2

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11
Q

vasculature in nose (3)

A
  1. 3rd portion of maxillary
  2. ophthalmic artery
  3. facial artery
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12
Q

what is boundary between larynx and trachea

A

inferior border of cricoid cartilage

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13
Q

posterior articulation of cricoid cartilage

A

superiorly articulates with the arytenoid cartilage, inferiorly with tracheal cartilage

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14
Q

anterior articulation of cricoid cartilage

A

superiorly articulates with cricothyroid ligament

inferiorly with tracheal cartilage

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15
Q

posterior articulation of arytenoid cartilage

A

superiorly articulates with corniculate cartilage

inferiorly articulates with cricoid cartilage

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16
Q

anterior articulation of arytenoid cartilage

A

anteriorly articulates with vocal ligament

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17
Q

ligamentous articulations of epiglottis

A

superiorly articulates with hyoid bone via hyoepiglottic ligament

inferiorly articulates with thorid bone via stalk of the epiglottis

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18
Q

cavities of larynx from superior to inferior (4)

A
  1. laryngeal vestibule
  2. middle part of laryngeal cavity
  3. laryngeal vestibule
  4. infraglottic cavity
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19
Q

purpose of vestibular folds

A

protection - not vocal folds. mucus membrane that extends between thyorid cartilage and cuneiform ligament

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20
Q

blood supply and drainage from larynx comes off what what vessels

A

inferior and superior thyroid vessels

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21
Q

what nerve is responsible for the sensation that you need to cough and what is it a branch of

A

internal laryngeal nerve, branch of superior laryngeal nerve, branch of vagus

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22
Q

what nerves are responsible for motor innervation to larynx and what are they branches of (2)

A

external laryngeal, branch of superior laryngeal, branch of vagus

inferior laryngeal nerve, branch of recurrent laryngeal nerve, branch of vagus

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23
Q

what does cricothyroid muscle do and what is it innervated by

A

stretches and tenses vocal ligament

only muscle innervated by external laryngeal nerve

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24
Q

what does posterior cricoarytenoid muscle do

A

abducts vocal fold

innervated by internal laryngeal/recurrent laryngeal

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25
Q

what muscles are responsible for phonation (2)

A

transverse and oblique arytenoid muscles

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26
Q

what muscle is repsonsible for forced inspiration

A

posterior cricoarytenoid muscle

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27
Q

what additional action happens in forced closure of folds (valsalva)

A

vestibular folds close too

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28
Q

what muscle will lower tone voice

A

posterior cricoarytenoid

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29
Q

what muscles will make higher tone of voice

A

transverse and oblique arytenoid

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30
Q

what muscle will let you whisper

A

lateral cricoarytenoid

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31
Q

which muscles will lower pitch of voice

A

thyroartenoid and vocalis muscles retract thyroid cartilage, loosening vocal cords, lowering pitch of voice

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32
Q

which muscle will raise pitcho f voice

A

criothyroid muscle, whcih tilts and stretches vocal cords

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33
Q

loss of function of what muscle will lead to monotonous voice

A

cricothyroid - innervated by superior laryngeal nerve. changes pitch of voice. can’t stretch vocal ligament

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34
Q

exertional sexual headache thunderclap, goes home, few days later dies when running

A

sentinal bleed subarachnoid hemorrhage

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35
Q

type 2 chiari malformation presentation/associations

A

bone formation problem:

vermis gets herniated out along with brainstem - associated with hydrocephalus and lumbosacral myelomeningiocele

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36
Q

dandy walker malformation presrentation/associations

A

failure of development of cerebellar tissue: vermis is gone, associated with dilated, cystic 4th ventricle

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37
Q

what happens in a subfalcine herniation

A

cingulate gyrus cause midline shift and compression of the ACA

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38
Q

what happens in a transtentorial herniation

A

supratentorial component herniates down, causing CN3 ccompression, ipsilateral hemiparesis and PCA compression

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39
Q

what do you see on histology for pilocytic astrocytoma

A

biphasic appearance - some loose some packed

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40
Q

what do you see on CT for pilocytic astrocyoma

A

well circumscribed borders, but no contrast enhancement

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41
Q

what does astrocytoma look like on CT

A

no contrast enhancement

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42
Q

what do you see for astrocytoma on gross

A

enlargement but no clear borders

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43
Q

what do you see on histology for diffuse astrocytoma

A

increased cellularity and always compacted. increased pleomophism, NO mitoses NO necrosis

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44
Q

what do you see on CT for anaplastic astrocytoma

A

contrast enhancement

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45
Q

what do you see on histology for anaplastic astrocytoma

A

increased cellularity, increased pleomorphism, MITOSES

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46
Q

what do you see on CT for glioblastoma

A

ring enhancing lesions (looks like toxoplasmosis), mass effect - midline shift

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47
Q

what do you see on gross for glioblastoma

A

necrosis, hemorrhage, can cross contralateral hemisphere - “butterfly glioma”

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48
Q

features for glioblastoma on histology

A

hypercellularity, pleomorphism, mitoses, AND vascular proliferation and palisading necrosis

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49
Q

are ependymomas diffuse or circumscribed

A

circumscribed

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50
Q

what do ependymomas look like in histology

A

perivascular psuedorosettes - no lumen. more pseudorosettes than true rosettes

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51
Q

oligodendroglioma imaging findings

A

see calcification

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52
Q

oligodendroglioma on microscopy

A

“fried egg” - nucleus is right in center of cell, and “chicken wire” capillary network

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53
Q

what grade is medulloblastoma characterized as

A

grade 4

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54
Q

what do you see for medulloblastoma on CT

A

contrast enhancing lesion

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55
Q

what do you see on histology for medulloblastoma

A

“small round blue cell tumor”
Homer Wright rosettes (no lumen)
high mitotic activity, shows neuronal or glial differentiation

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56
Q

what does medulloblastoma look like in gross

A

similar to ependymoma

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57
Q

progression of medulloblastoma

A

can disseminate down spinal cord

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58
Q

what cells are meningiomas derived from

A

arachnoid cap cell of leptomeninges

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59
Q

who gets meningiomas

A

mostly adult females (progesterone)

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60
Q

what do you see for meningiomas for CT

A

Extra axial isodense mass with contrast enhancement - “dural tail”

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61
Q

what do you see for meningiomas in histology

A

spindles and whorls, mitoses, psammoma bodies (round concentric calcifications)

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62
Q

genetics of meningioma

A

chromosome 22. can see neurofibromatosis type 2 - bilateral schwannoma, multiple meningiomas

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63
Q

what do you see on histology for schwannoma

A

biphasic - antoni A (dense) antoni B (loose)

palisading - zebra stripe verocay bodies.

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64
Q

NF type 2 you see what

A

bilateral schwannoma and multiple meningiomas

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65
Q

NF type 1 what do you see

A

neurofibroma

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66
Q

what do you see with neurofibroma on microscopic

A

loose myxoid background with comma or wavy shaped schwann cell nuclei

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67
Q

where do you see most mets in the brain (3)

A
  1. gray-white matter junction of cerebral hemispheres
  2. subarachnoid space (carcinomatous meningitis)
  3. dural infiltration (breast and prostate)
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68
Q

if you see multiple lesions what do you think it could be (in brain)

A

more likely metastasis

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69
Q

what’s the medial survival for multiple mets to the brain

A

3-6 months

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70
Q

definition of epilepsy

A

recurrent unprovoked seizures more than 24 hr apart

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71
Q

majority of seizures in children caused by what

A

unknown (no inborn error or no CT abnormalities)

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72
Q

second most common etiology of seizures in children

A

congenital

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73
Q

what cause of seizures becomes more common in adulthood

A

vasculature - stroke

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74
Q

what percentage of epilepsy cases are treated successfully with medications

A

60-70%

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75
Q

what do you do for intractable seizures

A

surgical resection (if appropriate)

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76
Q

how many meds do you have to fail to be classified as intractable epilepsy

A

2

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77
Q

focal vs generalized onset seizures

A

focal starts on one side of brain in one spot, generalized starts on both sides of brain but not entire cortex (genetic epilepsy)

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78
Q

difference between simple partial and complex partial

A
simple = aware
complex = confusion/altered awareness
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79
Q

which generalized seizure does not have motor component

A

absence - looks like they’re spacing out

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80
Q

myoclonic seizure symptom

A

jerk, like when you’re falling asleep

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81
Q

atypical absence seizure

A

blank staring with twitching

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82
Q

myoclonic-atonic seizure

A

twitching fallowed by loss of tone and falling

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83
Q

what do you see on EEG for absence seizures

A

3 spikes per second/ 3Hz spike-wave

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84
Q

what is the onset of tonic-clonic seizure

A

can be either focal or generalized. focal will have aura or unilateral onset.

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85
Q

if you’re having a focal dyscognitive seizure, and you have automatism of the right hand, what side of the brain is the seizure originating from

A

right side - ipsilateral automatism.

contralateral posturing

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86
Q

which kind of generalized tonic clonic seizures have better prognosis, primary generalized or secondarily generalized?

A

primary generalized - more responsive to meds

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87
Q

seizure that lasts 30 or more minutes is called what

A

status epilepticus

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88
Q

which types of seizures are potential subjects for sx

A

focal if they fail multiple meds

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89
Q

where does lateral olfactory and medial olfactory stria go in the olfactory system

A

medial crosses over in anterior commissure to contralateral piriform cortex and amygdala

lateral stays ipsilatera

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90
Q

where is olfactory association cortex, what are its inputs, and what information does it process

A

lateral part of orbital surface of frontal lobe (lateral to olfactory tract)

recieves afferents from DMN of thalamus and from primary olfactory area

involved in behavioral reactions to recognized odors

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91
Q

uncus (associated with olfaction) is part of what gyrus

A

parahippocampal

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92
Q

septal area includes what, and is part of what lobe

A

part of limbic lobe, includes nucleus accumbens and is pleasure/reward center via dopa

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93
Q

where is septal areal located

A

medially, right below lateral ventricles

94
Q

what are the parts of the limbic system (5)

A
  1. limbic lobe
  2. hippocampal formation
  3. amygdala
  4. hypothalamus (mammillary bodies)
  5. anterior thalamic nuclei
95
Q

what are the parts of the limbic lobe (3)

A
  1. cingulate gyrus (including anterior cingulate cortex)
  2. parahippocampal gyrus (uncus and entorrhinal area)
  3. septal area
96
Q

where is amygdala in relation to hippocampus and uncus

A

slightly anterior to hippocampus (closer to optic chiasm)

deep to uncus

97
Q

amygdala connects to what other brain structures/areas (3) and what reactions do they control

A
  1. olfactory system (pheromonal information)
  2. cerebral cortex (conscious emotions)
  3. hypothalamus and brainstem visceral nuclei (autonomic/drive responses to emotions - sweating, dry mouth, crying)
98
Q

output from amygdala for autonomic responses down brainstem - how does it travel

99
Q

Kluver Bucy syndrome

A

bilateral destruction of amygdala - becomes placid, can’t recognize things, examine everything orally, hypersexual and indiscriminate

100
Q

connection between mamillary bodies to hippocampus

101
Q

inputs and outputs to hippocampus enter/exit through what structure

A

fimbria, which continues on to become fornix

102
Q

what is declarative memory

A

knowledge and recall of facts

103
Q

hippocampal efferents (2) and what are they responsible for

A
  1. fornix (to mammillary and then to anterior thalamic nuclei to be able to recall the scene for a particular memory)
  2. perforant pathway (to entorhinal cortex for formation of long-term memory)
104
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome - associated with that, and causes what

A

associated with chronic alcoholism

damage to ammillary bodies and projections into thalamus - amnestic confabulatory syndrome (don’t remember, but will lie about what’s happened)

105
Q

what are prions in humans

A

proteins - abnormal protein caused by infection, causes neurodegenerative disorder.

normal protein is PrPc
abnormal is PrPSc which causes beta-pleated sheets aggregates which are resistant to proteinases, heat or ionization

106
Q

are prions transmissible?

A

yes. usually not between species though besides mad cow

107
Q

genetic predisposition for susceptibility to prion disease

A

if you are homozygous Met/Met at residue 129 on PRNP gene of chromosome 20

108
Q

what does prion disease look like on histo

A

“spongiform” vacules

109
Q

what is the incubation period for prion diseases

A

most commonly takes years, sporadic creutzfeld jacob kills you in 4-5 months however

110
Q

most common inherited prion disease

A

Famililal Creutzfeld-Jakob Disease (younger age on onset than sporatic form)

111
Q

inheritance pattern of inherited prion disease

A

Autosomal dominant inherit the germline mutation

112
Q

clinical course of sporadic cerutzfeld-Jakob disease

A

3 stages of clinical course:

initial symptoms of fatigue, disordered sleep, behavioral changes, visual or motor deficits

rapidly progresses to cognitive decline/dementia

late: myoclonus right before death. die within 4-5 months of onset

113
Q

pathogenesis of sporadic CJD (2)

A

NO germline mutation

either:
1. random mis-folding of PrPc protein, which then causes flipping of others

  1. somatic mutation in PRNP gene
114
Q

who gets sporadic CJD

A

older (~60y/o) individuals of any race or gender

1 in a million

115
Q

kuru clinical presentation

A

younger age of onset, tremors, ataxia, cerebellar involvement

116
Q

kuru histo/gross presentation

A

75% had amyloid plaques on brain pathology (cerebellar)

117
Q

kuru genetics

A

see Met/Met homozygosity at PRNP codon 129

118
Q

what kind of CJD can you detect outside of the CNS and why

A

variant CJD - from eating cattle. can see in lymphoid tissue. probably because it’s acquired through GI tract

can see it in the muscles of cows

119
Q

genetics of vCJD

A

until 2016, everyone with vCJD had Met/Met homozygous

maybe it just means that heterozygous takes a longer time to present, but we haven’t seen that happen

120
Q

clinical presentation of vCJD

A

psychiatric/behavioral changes, painful dysesthesias

121
Q

imaging of CJD

A

for variant form only, pulvinar sign (high MRI signal bilaterally in posterior thalamus)

122
Q

EEG for CJD

A

see classic findings for sCJD (periodic sharp waves)

123
Q

can you use CSF for diagnosing CJD?

A

only for sporadic form - can use real time quiaking induced conversion (RT-QuIC) to amplify protein for diagnosis

124
Q

how to do histo for prion disease

A

you pretreat the sample to denature normal protein, and then stain with anti-PrP antibody - which will reveal PrPSc plaques

125
Q

2 common causes of acute pyogenic meningitis in neonates

A
  1. group B strep

2. E. Coli

126
Q

2 common causes of acute pyogenic meningitis in children

A
  1. strep pneumo

2. H. flu (w/o vaccinations)

127
Q

2 common causes of acute pyogenic meningitis in otherwise healthy adults

A
  1. strep pneumo

2. neisseria (college or military)

128
Q

3 causes of acute pyogenic meningitis in adults with underlying medical conditions

A
  1. gram neg rods (kleb or pseudomonas)
  2. listeria
  3. staph aureas
129
Q

why can acute pyogenic meningitis be fatal?

A

can get into bloodstream - septisemia - and can settle in adrenal glands - necrosis - no corticosteroids causes systemic collapse and death

130
Q

most common viral agent in meningitis

A

enterovirus (polio, echo-, coxackie)

131
Q

clinical presentation of viral meningitis

A

spontanoues remission, less fulinant meningitis

132
Q

how do diagnose viral agent in meningitis

A

culture throat or stool, or serum titer in acute and convalescent stages

133
Q

brain abscess agents in healthy adults (2)

A

staph and strep (normal flora in mouth)

134
Q

brain abscess agents in immunocompromised adults (5)

A

toxo, nocardia, listeria, mycobacteria, fungi

135
Q

do you do a spinal tap in brain abscess?

A

no because you help pull the brain further down - bad

136
Q

brain abscess on histology

A

3 zones:

  1. outer necrosis
  2. rim of granulation tissue (BVs, fibrous, inflammation)
  3. swollen brain with reactive astrocytes
137
Q

mycobacterium TB meningitis on histo

A

caseating granulomatous inflammation

138
Q

clinical course for mycobaterium TB

A

long clinical course before dx (years)

can get miliary TB - infection in vertebral body and then collapse, escape into epidural space and epidural abcess (POTTS disease)

139
Q

causative agent of meningitis in neurosyphilis

A

treponema pallidum

140
Q

CNS clinical manifestations in neurospyhilis (3)

A
  1. can be limited to mesodermally derived structures (meningovascular syphilis)
  2. parenchyma of brain - “general paresis of the insane” gradual loss of cognition
  3. parenchyma of spinal cord - “tabes torsalis” loss of position sense and pain sensation “charcot joints”
141
Q

if you see infectious lesion in CNS with a bunch of plasma cells, what do you think

142
Q

histo of neurosyphilis

A

gumma granuloma (not caseating)

143
Q

lyme disease and meningitis

A

rod cell activation in aseptic meningitis

144
Q

if you see microglial nodule in CNS tissue, what do you think

A

viral meningoenchephalitis

145
Q

leptin resistance and astrocytes and microglia (2)

A

fat crosses BB barrier, bind to toll like receptors in microglia, activates and releases inflammatory cytokines, which bind to neurons and lead to impairment of leptin receptor-mediated signalling

astrocytes express leptin receptors. reactive astrocytes reduce leptin receptor expression and reduce leptin transport across BBB

146
Q

what does leptin do?

A

tells you to stop eating

147
Q

bilateral lesion to lateral hypothalamic area causes what in mice

A

decreased feeding (decreased food-seeking locomotion/behaviors)

148
Q

bilateral lesion to ventromedial hypothalamic lesion causes what in mice

A

increased feeding - satiety center is destroyed

149
Q

which areas of CNS regulate eating based on maintaining energy homeostasis

A
  1. nucleus of solitary tract

2. hypothalamus (lateral hypothalamus)

150
Q

opium signalling and eating

A

pleasure-driven eating

151
Q

domamine signalling and eating

A

craving/addiction - driven eating

152
Q

how do GI hormones regulate neural feeding patterns (2)

A
  1. GI peptides circulate to arcuate nucleus of hypothalamus (outside the BBB)
  2. GI hormones bind to vagal sensory nerve which stimulates AP which is relayed to the solitary tract nucleus
153
Q

ghrelin does what

A

binds to receptors in arcuate nucleus or nucleus solitary tract which increase apetite and food intake

154
Q

CCK does what

A

decreases appetite through hypothalamus and nucleus solitaris to

155
Q

what neurotransmitter is used in lateral hypothalmic necleus

A

orexin - increases eating

156
Q

what does PoMC (pro-opiomelanocortin) do

A

PoMC is in anorexigenic neurons, produce melanocyte stimulating hormone and decreases eating

157
Q

is thyroid hormone production increased in relation to anorexogenic or orxigenic pathways

A

anorexogenic - leptin increases thyroid hormone to increase metabolism

158
Q

mutations in alpha melanocyte stimulating hormone (alpha MSH) cuases what

159
Q

where does CMV like to go in meningoehcephalitis

A

subventricular region/zone

160
Q

where does polio like to go in meningoenchephalitis

A

lower motor neurons of spinal cord and brainstem

161
Q

where does JC virus like to go in meningoenchephalitis

A

oligodendrocytes

162
Q

where does HSV and VZV like to go in meningoenchephalitis

A

ganglion cells of dorsal root and cranail nerve ganglia

163
Q

where does “herpes brain” affect (HSV1)

A

necrotizing bloody medial temporal lobe, limbic regions - people think it’s a stroke

164
Q

on histo what do you see for VZV

A

intranucleuar inclusions in neurons and glia

165
Q

fetal infection with CMV

A

microcelphaly, periventricular calcifications

166
Q

if you get retinitis in immunocompromised patient, what infection do you think

167
Q

why is rabid dog bite more concerning in children than adults

A

because there’s less distance to get to brain in a child - because they’re smaller

168
Q

SSPE complication from what virus

A

measels before 2 years of age. latent, eventually attacks neurons and glia -fatal.

169
Q

PML complication from what virus

A

JC virus. latent since childhood in everyone. if immunocompromised, will reactivate and attack oligodendrocytes

170
Q

what does acute HIV encephalitis look like on histo

A

multinucleated giant cells within microglial nodule

171
Q

rickettsial infections of CNS (2)

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever

Typhus

172
Q

fungal CNS histo

A

granulomatous inflammatory response, or minimal response due to immunocompromised status

173
Q

worldwide most common cause of pediatric epilepsy

A

cystercircosis - tenia solium

174
Q

toxo in fetus

A

pan encephalitis, destruction of white and gray matter of fetus

175
Q

in immunosuppressed host, where does toxo go in brain

A

basal ganglia

176
Q

if someone comes in and you suspect bacterial meningitis what do you start

A

ceftriaxone and vancomycine

and dexamethasone steroids to reduce inflammation

177
Q

if someone is taking eculizumab/soliris for atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome, what is he at risk for developing

A

meningococcal menintitis

178
Q

if you see someone with acute meningoencephalitis, cerebral bleeds/infarcts, and uveitis, that (if you survive) could cause cognitive deficits what do you think it could be

179
Q

if you see lesion in brainstem in someone who ate a bunch of cheeses, what could it be

A

listeria encephalitis

180
Q

tx for toxo (3)

A
  1. pyrimethamine
  2. sulfadiazine
  3. folinic acid

for a few weeks

181
Q

see a multiloculated brain abcess

182
Q

tx for cystercercosis

A

admit to hospital, give albendazole with praziquantel
AND corticosteroids

treat for a long time

(or don’t treat them because you don’t want the cysts to burst)

183
Q

young kid with over past 2 weeks worsening headaches, vomitting, clumsiness, falling, L eye turned in. what is it?

A

medulloblastoma

184
Q

kid with multiple cranial nerve palsies, headaches, cerebellar disfunction, cross hemiparesis

A

brain stem gliomas

185
Q

Subtypes of declarative memory

A

Episodic (personal memory)

Semantic (facts, math etc)

186
Q

Who is HM?

A

Patient who had bilateral removal of medial temporal lobe - could not make new memories, but could learn non declarative skills

187
Q

Memory loss with ECT

A

6mo before shock, 2 mo after shock

188
Q

Hippocampus being destroyed caused what kind of amnesia

A

Anterograde amnesia

189
Q

what’s the issue with radiation in pediatric brain tumors

A

decreases IQ permanently

190
Q

what info is processed by the prerhinal cortex

A

object features from various cortices

191
Q

what info is processed by the parahippocampal cortex

A

spatial context of object by parietal cortex

192
Q

what is multiple trace theory

A

the more you think of something, more memory traces are built in the hippocampus = become more resistant to partial damages (become consolidated in the hippocampus)

193
Q

what does prefrontal cortex do for memory

A

links memory to context - selects relevant info to be remembered and retrieved ONLY
pertinent to the task goal or context (suppresses others and intentional forgetting)

194
Q

if someone has defect in PFC how can their memory be affected

A

have difficulty remembering SOURCE of memory - difficulty remembering if they were abducted by aliens, or if they watched a movie about alien abduction - results in confabulation

195
Q

role of anterior thalamic nucleus in memory

A

direct connection to mediodorsal thalamic nucleus (MTL)

196
Q

role of mediodorsal thalamic nucleus in memory

A

interconnected with prefrontal cortex (damage causes confabulation)

197
Q

does cerebellum control ipsilateral or contralateral body

A

ipsilateral

198
Q

what is asynergia, what is it caused by

A

lack of cooperation of muscles that usually work together

caused by damage to cortico-ponto-cerebellar pathways, or spinocerebellar inputs

199
Q

what is dysmetria

A

overshooting or undershooting a target as you approach

200
Q

what is dysdiadochokinesia

A

rapid alternating movements that are clumsy or irregular in rhythm

201
Q

what does posterolateral fissure in cerebellum separate

A

separates cerebellar hemispheres from flocculonodular lobe

202
Q

what does primary fissure in cerebellum separate out

A

anterior and posterior cerebellar lobes

203
Q

what is first part of cerebellum to develop

A

flocculonodular lobe

204
Q

what kinds of inputs does flocculonodular lobe process

A

processes vestibular inputs

“vestibulocerebellum”

205
Q

what inputs does anterior cerebellar lobe process

A

spinal cord inputs

“spinocerebellum”

206
Q

what inputs does posterior cerebellar lobe process

A

input from ons and cerebral cortex

“cerebrocerebellum”

207
Q

what’s the last cerebellar lobe to form in development

A

posterior lobe

208
Q

where do fibers cross in cerebellum

A

superior cerebellar peduncles

209
Q

what is the most medial nucleus in cerebellum

A

fastigial nucleus

210
Q

what nuclei are right lateral to fastigial nuclei

A

globose nucleus

211
Q

what nucleus is right lateral to globose nuclei

A

emboliform nucleus

212
Q

what are the most lateral cerebellar nuclei

A

dentate nuclei

213
Q

what is the largest cerebellar nucleus

214
Q

dorsal spinocerebellar tract carries what info to cerebellum

A

muscle spindle/tone from lower extremities (ipsilateral)

215
Q

ventral spinocerebellar tract carries what info to cerebellum

A

crosses twice, so caries ipsilataeral info about whole muscle movement

216
Q

cuneocerebellar tract carries what info to cerebeelum

A

info regarding muscle spindle/tone to upper extermity (ipsilateral)

217
Q

which are mossy fibers in cerebellum (4)

A
  1. spinal cord fibers
  2. vestibular fibers
  3. reticular fibers
  4. pontocerebellar fibers
218
Q

which are climbing fibers in cerebellum

A
  1. inferior olivary nucleus fibbers
219
Q

how many neuron layers in cerebeelum cortical gray and what are they

A
  1. molecular layer (external)
  2. purkinje cell layer (monolayer)
  3. granule cell layer (inner, overlying white matter)
220
Q

what are paraellel fibers

A

axons of granule cell layer in cerebellum

221
Q

in what plane can you see the arborization of purkinje fibers?

A

only in sagittal section (do so to intersect with multiple processes of granule cell dendrites run into them)

222
Q

what direction do granule cell dentrite processes travel

A

parallel to folia

223
Q

where to climbing fibers synapse

A

directly on dendrites of purkinje cells (direct connection from inferior olive to purkinje cells)

224
Q

where do mossy fibers synapse

A

on granule cells in granular cell layer

225
Q

is purkinje cell output inhibitory or excitatory to deep cerebellar nuclei - why is it important

A

inhibitory - modulates excitatory inputs from climbing and mossy fibers on deep cerebellar nuclei

226
Q

purkinje cells in vermis project to what cerebellar nucleus

227
Q

purkinje cells in intermediate zone project to what cerebellar nucleus

A

interposed nucleis (globos + emboliform)

228
Q

lateral cell purkinje fibers project to what cerebellar nuclei

A

dentate nucleus

229
Q

output of fastigial nuclei - and through what peduncle

A

vestibular and reticular formation (via inferior cerebellar peduncle) extensor motor, adjusts posture

230
Q

output of interposed nuclei- and through what peduncle

A

to red nucleus (via superior cerebellar peduncle) - flexor motor, adjusts limbs

231
Q

output of dentate nuclei- and through what peduncle

A

to VA/VL nuclei (fine motor) in thalamus (via middle cerebellar peduncle)