Exam 1 (week 1) Flashcards
- 3 weeks of embryology - what happens in nervous system
- surface ectoderm turns into neural groove
- cavity in neural tube becomes what
- ventricles in brain and cavity in spinal cord
- what happens in 4 weeks of embryology
- anterior end of neural tube starts to get bulges (Forebrain, midbrain and hindbrain)
- flexures start happening
- midbrain/cephalic flexure ventrally-down
- cervical flexure at medulla/spinal cord ventrally/down
- flexures start happening
- latin terms for parts of brain
- forebrain = prosencephalon, midbrain = mesencephalon, hindbrain = rhombencephalon
- what happens in 5 weeks of embryology
- 5 brain vesicles - forebrain subdivides into cerebral hemispheres (Telencephalon) and diencephalon (major part is thalamus)
- hindbrain also subdivides into (cerebellum and pons - mesencephalon) and (medulla oblongata - myelencephalon)
- flexure:
- at level of pons - neural tube bends dorsally (pontine flexure)
- what part of brain is retina derived from
- diencephalon
- where are ventricles
- 2 in each cerebellum (lateral), 1 in diencephalon, 1 in cerebellum,pons and medulla
- where is the central aqueduct
- in midbrain connecting 3rd ventricle and 4th ventricle
- what happens at 3 months of developmentnt
- cerebral hemispheres grow in all directions, diencephalon is completely covered
- what happens at 6 months of development
- midbrain gets covered by cerebral hemispheres - covered until the cerebellum
- what happens at 9 months of development
- gyri, fissures and sulci are formed
- when is maximum weight of brain achieved
- 8 years old
- what is deeper, fissure or sulcus
- fissure
- what are the lobes and poles in the brain
- frontal lobe and pole
- temporal lobe and pole
- occipital lobe and pole
- parietal lobe
- insular lobe (within lateral fissure)
- limbic lobe
- division between frontal and parietal lobes
- central sulcus
- division between temporal and parietal/frontal
- lateral sulcus
- division between parietal/temporal and occipital
- laterally, arbitrary line between parietal occipital sulcus to pre occipital notch
- medially parietal occipital sulcus
- division between limbic lobe and rest
- lyric lobe is made of 2 gyri, cingulate sulcus (separates cingulate gyrus and frontal/parietal) and collateral sulcus (separates parahippocampal gyrus and temporal lobe)
- separation between cerebral hemispheres
- superior longitudinal fissure until corpus collosum
- separation between occipital pole and cerebellum
- transverse cerebral fissure
- how to identify central sulcus
- look for 3 parallel sulci - middle is central. central doesn’t reach all the way down to lateral fissure
- what sulcus runs within parietal lobe on lateral surface
- intraparietal sulcus
- what does intraparietal sulcus separate
- superior and inferior parietal
- frontal lobe gyri (4)
- pre central gyrus (area 4, primary motor)
- superior frontal
- middle frontal
- inferior frontal
- parietal lobe gyri (4)
- post central gyrus (primary somatosensory, areas 3,1,2)
- superior parietal (paint temp touch)
- inferior parietal (language)
- precuneus (medially)
- temporal lobe gyri (3)
- superior temporal
- middle temporal
- inferior temporal
- parahipocampal gyrus ending
- uncus (close to temporal pole)
- occipital lobe gyri (2)
- on medial surface there’s calcarine sulcus - above is called cuneus
- below is called lingual
- anatomical parts of corpus coliseum
- rostrum (nose), genu (knee), body and selenium (tail)
- structures to identify on ventral surface of brain (6)
- olfactory bulb
- olfactory tract
- optic nerve
- optic chasm
- pituitary stalk
- mammary bodies
- what structures does internal capsule run through
- between thalamus and basal ganglia gray matter (caudate, putamen and globus pallidus)
- brainstem subdivisions from dorsal to ventral
- tectum (roof)
- tegmenjtum (floor)
- basilar region
- where is tectum
- only in midbrain, above cerebral acqdueduct
- what does tegmenjtum contain
- cranial nerve nuclei, reticular formation, and tracts to cerebrum
- what does basilar region contain
- descending motor tracks from cerebral cortex
- what does tectum contain
- superior colliculus (vision)
- inferior colliculus (hearing)
- cranial nerve that exits dorsally
- trochlear (4)
- what nerves exit between midbrain and pons
- 3rd - oculomotor
- 4th - trochlear
- what nerve exits from basilar region of pons
- 5th - trigeminal
- what nerves exit between pons and medulla
- 6th (abducens)
- 7th (Facial)
- 8th
- what nerves exit from medulla
- 9th - 12th
- what is the demarcation between brainstem and spinal cord
- pyramidal decussation
- describe primitive neuroepithelium
- pseudstratefied epithelium, with stem cells at the apical/luminal surface
- what do neuroepithelial stem cells differentiate into
- either neuroblasts or gliablasts
- what are the cells that line the central canal, what are they derived from
- ependymal cells (glial cells - also form the choroid plexus)
- what are microglial cells and what are they derived from
- phagocytes of CNS, monocyte derivative - mesodermally derived (Bone marrow)
- what is mantle zone- what kind of matter does it become
- down toward ventricle, contain lots of cell bodies that cell processes peripherally (GREY matter)
- what is marginal zone - what kind of matter does it become
- myelinated outer core - peripheral process from mantle zone (WHITE matter)
- what does mantle layer get divided into
- dorsal alar plates (eventually sensory horns)
- ventral basal plates (eventually motor horns)
- division of grey and white in brain
- deep grey, intermediate white, superficial grey (migrates up from deep manta layer)
- how does grey matter neurons migrate in brain?
- via radial glial cells - serve as train tracks from deep to periphery (like elevator)
- genes important for nervous system stratification (motor, ibternueorns, sensory)
- BMP (dorsal gradient - induces sensory neurons)
- SHH (ventral gradient - induces motor neurons)
- interneurons are induced by overlap
- gene that regulates face development (and what over/under expression causes)
- cyclopia - under expression of SHH
- facial duplication - over expression of SHH
- most common developmental defect of forebrain
- holoprosencephaly - single forebrain vesicle instead of two lateral. get mid facial defects - due to SHH defects
- where does spina bifida generally occur (along spina cord)
- lower lumbar/sacral (lower has better prognostic outcomes)
- what superficial presentations occur with spina bifida occulta
- hairy nevus overlaying area of spinal cord where this defect is occurring (lumbar)
- difference between meningocele and meningomyleocele
- meningocele is herniation of JUST cerebrospinal fluid, meningomyelocele also herniates spinal cord contents
rachiscesis
- when spina bifida open neural tube to the outside world - causes paralysis (and possible infection)
- what can you monitor in maternal serum to detect spina bifida in fetus
- increased levels of alpha-fetoprotein
- what can you provide women to reduce levels of spinal tube defects
- folic acid supplementation (40mcg/day). because deficiency leads to abnormal cell division - can reduce incidence of neural tube defects by 70-80%
- point where coronal and sagittal sutures meet
- bregma
- point where saggital suture meets occipital bone
- lambda
- junction of temporal, sphenoid, parietal and frontal bone
- pterion (greater wing of the sphenoid)
- junction of temporal, parietal and occipital bone
- asterion
- extra bones at sutures
- wormion bones
- fontanelles
- anterolateral where pterion forms
- posterolateral where astern forms
- anterior at bregma
- posterior at lambda
- first and last fontanelles to close
- first = posterior (1-2months after birth)
- last = anterior (2 years after birth)
what percentage of americans have some mental health disorder
18%
what type of opioid has recently been responsible for the most deaths
fentanyl
what percentage of homeless individuals living in shelters have a serious mental illness
26%
what percentage of homeless individuals living in shelters have substance use disorders
35%
what range of percentages of adult inmates have mental illnesses
45-64% in federal, state and local jails
what percentage of youth in juvenile justice systems have mental health conditions
20%
premature mortality in serious mental illness (decreases lifespan by how many years)
15-20 years
what percentage of illnesses contributing to early mortality in mental illness
40% (health behaviors)
what are 60% of premature schizophrenia deaths caused by (3)
cardiovascular, pulmonary and ID
first psychiatric drug approved by FDA
thorazine, chloramphetachol
componentts of the mental status exam (7)
- general appearance, behavior and attitude
- consciousness and orientation
- speech and language
- mood and affect
- thought content, form and perceptions
- memory and cognition
- judgement and insight
4 D’s in psychopathology
- danger
- distress
- dysfunction
- deviance
all have problems - not ideal markers
sections of the DSM diagnosis
- symptoms
- duration/time course
- ruling out medical conditions/substances
when does myelin form on axon
when axon gets a diameter more than 1 micrometer (micron)
what are nissl bodies
layers of rough ER and ribosomes in neuron cell bodies (NOT axons)
what direction and what protein does anterograde transport use
anterograde is from cell body down axon, uses kinesis
what direction and what protein does retrograde transport use
retrograde is back up to cell body from axon, uses dynein
what do synapses look like on EM
fuzzy catterpillars
what is euthymic mood
normal range of mood, absence of depressed or elevated mood
what is expansive mood
expression of feelings without restraint
what is anhedonia
loss of interest and withdrawal from regular and pleasurable activities
what is alexithymia
inability or difficulty in describing or being aware of one’s emotions
what is diurnal variation in mood
mood is worst in the morning, immediately after awakening and improves as the day progresses
what is echopraxia
pathologial immitation of movements of one person by another
what is catalepsy
immobile position that is constantly maintained
what is catatonic excitement
agitated, purposeless motor activity
what is catatonic stupor
markedly slower motor activity - seeming unawareness of surroundings
what is catatonic rigidity
assumption of rigid posture,held against all efforts to being moved
what is catatonic posturing
assumption of an inappropriate or bizarre posture, maintained for long periods
what is cerea flexibilitas
waxy flexibility - person can be molded into a position that is then maintained
what is negativism
resistance to all attempts to be moved or to instructions
what is cataplexy
temporary loss of muscle tone and weakness due to an emotional state
what is stereotypy
repetitive fixed pattern of physical action or speech
what is mannerism
ingrained, habitual involuntary movement
what is akathisia
subjective feeling of muscular tension, causing restlessness, pacing, repeated sitting and standing
what is aggression
the motor counterpart of the affect of rage, anger or hostility
what is a formal thought disorder
disturbance in form of thought, not content of thought - characterized by loosened associations, neologisms, illogical constructs
what is magical thinking
form of illogical thought similar to preoperational phase in children in which thoughts, words or actions assume power (can cause or prevent events)
what is neologism
new word created by patient by combining syllables of other words
what is circumstantiality
indirect speech that is delayed in reaching the point but eventually gets to desired goal
what is tangentiality
inability to have goal-directed associations of thought - never gets to desired goal
what is perseveration
persisting response to a prior stimulus after a new stimulus has been presented
what is verbigeration
meaningless repetition of specific words or phrases
what is echolalia
repeating of words or phases of one person by another
what is flight of ideas
rapid, continuous verbalizations or plays on words that produce constant shifting from one idea to another that tend to be connected
what is clang association
association of words with similar sounds not meanings
what is blocking
abrupt interruption in train of thought before its finished. after a while the person has no recall of the previous thought (AKA thought deprivation)
what is a systematized delusion
false beliefs united by a single event or theme (persecuted by the CIA)
what is a bizarre delusion
invaders from space planted electrodes in my brain - totally implausible
what is a mood-congruent delusion
delusion with content that has no association with mood, or is mood-neutral
what is a nihilistic delusion
false feeling that self, others or the world is nonexistent or ending
what is somatic delusion
false belief involving functioning of one’s body (brain is melting)
what is a delusion of reference
false belief that the behavior of others refers to oneself (belief that persons on the television are talking to our about you)
what is thought withdrawal
delusion that one’s thoughts are being removed from on’es mind
what is thought broadcasting
delusion that one’s thoughts can be heard by others
what is thought control
delusion that one’s thoughts are being controlled by others
what is pseudologia phantastica
associated with munchausen’s, a type of lying in which the person appears to believe in the reality of his/her fantasies and acts on them
what is non-spontaneous speech
no self-initiation of speech - only speaks when spoken to
what is poverty of speech vs poverty of content of speech
poverty of speech = restriction of amount of speech (monosyllabic responses)
poverty of content of speech = adequate amount of speech, but conveys too little information
what is dysprosody
loss or normal speech melody
what is dysarthria
difficulty in articulation (not word finding or grammar)
what is motor aphasia
understanding remains intact, but ability to speak is impaired (Broca’s, nonfluent, expressive)
what is sensory aphasia
loss of ability to understand, but speech is fluid (Wernicke’s, fluent, repetitive)
what is nominal aphasia
difficulty in finding correct name for an object
what is syntactical aphasia
inability to arrange words in proper sequence
what is jargon aphasia
words are totally neologistic, nonsense words repeated with various intonations and inflections
what is global aphasia
combination of nonfluent aphasia with fluent aphasia
what is hypnagogic hallucination
false sensory perception while falling asleep (non-pathological)
what is hypnopompic hallucination
false perception occurring while awaking from sleep (non-pathological)
what is somatic hallucination
false sensation of things occuring in or to the body
what is illusion
misperception or misinterpretation of real external sensory stimuli
what is anosognosia
ignorance of illness
what is somatopagnosia
ignorance of the body - inability to recognize a body part as one’s own
what is prosopagnosia
inability to recognize faces
what is apraxia
inability to carry out specific tasks
what is visual agnosia
inability to recognize objects or persons
what is depersonalization
subjective sense of being unreal, strange or unfamiliar to oneself
what is derealization
sense that the environment is strange, unreal
what is anterograde amnesia
amnesia for events occuring AFTER a point in time
what is retrograde amnesia
amnesia for events occurring BEFORE a point in time
difference between immediate, recent, recent past, and remote memory
immediate = seconds to minutes
recent = past fes days
recent past = past few months
remote = distant past
IQ for mild mental retardation
50 or 55 - 70
IQ for moderate mental retardation
35 or 40 - 50 or 55
IQ for severe mental retardation
20 or 25 - 34 or 40
IQ for profound mental retardation
below 20 or 25
what is dyscalculia
inability to do calculations not caused by anxiety or impairment in concentration
what is dysgraphia
loss of ability to write in cursive style, loss of word structure
what is alexia
loss of previously possessed reading facility
what is pseudodementia
clinical resemblance to dementia but caused by depression
what is concrete thinking
literal thinking - one-dimensional thought
what is abstract thinking
ability to appreciate nuances of meaning - multidimensional thinking
excitatory neurotransmitter in CNS
glutamate
inhibitory neurotransmitter in CNS
GABA (brain)
glycine (spinal cord)
which astrocytes are in white matter
fibrous
which astrocytes are in grey matter
protoplasmic
which cell can myelinate more than one neuron
oligodendrocytes
difference between unmyelinated neurons in PNS vs CNS
PNS is still surrounded by cytoplasm of schwann cell
what does leptomeninges incldue
dura and arachnoid
what mater is most close tot he spinal cord
pia
what mater has innervation
dura only
what is falx cerebri and what innervates it
dura mater right down the hemispheres, in the anterior cranial fossa, is innervated by ophthalmic and maxiillary branches of trigeminal CN V
innervation of middle cranial fossa
ophthalmic and maxilary V1, V2 and some V3 mandibular
posterior cranial fossa innervation
vagus X
C1, C2 and C3 dorsal rami
(maybe glossopharyngeal)
what is subarachnoid space
between arachnoid and pia, contains CSF and vasculature
what is epidural space
between bone and dura, only a potential space in the skull
what is subdural
not naturally occuring space, between dura and arachnoid
where is superior saggital sinus
along middle of hemispheres - top of falx cerebri
where is transverse sinus, and where does it receive blood from
meets up with superior saggital sinus and straight sinus (which is inferior sagittal sinus and great cerebral vein combination) into confluence and then transverse
what does transverse sinus become
sigmoid, which then becomes internal jugular
what are arachnoid granulations and where are they
little mushrooms of arachnoid into superior sagittal sinus - how CSF gets recycled
what is in cavernous sinus and what’s around it
around pituitary and sphenoid, contains CN 3, 4, V1 V2, 6 and internal carotid
if you have a supratentorial lesion/tumor, what could happen
temporal lobe can be pushed through tenrtorial notch and impinge on cn3
if you have a pituitary adenoma, where could it go and what could it do
it could push up through the diaphragma sellae and impact the optic chiasm, causing tunnel vision (bitermporal hemianopsia)
STUDY THE FORAMEN
separate piece of paper
lefort 1
transverse maxillary fracture -“floating palate”
lefort 2
pyramidal fracture- through orbital rim, “floating maxilla”
lefort 3 and 4
craniofacial disjunction - through orbital walls “floating face”
on what bone are the nuchal lines
occipital bone
a tumor that presses on jugular foramen would impact which nerve
glossopharyngeal
parts of sphenoid bone (4)
- lesser wing (above superior orbital fissure)
- greater wing (below superior orbital fissure, extends laterally to side of face)
- sella turcica - depression above body where pituitary is
- lateral and medial pterygold plates - muslce attachments
muscles associated with functino of eustacian tube (4)
- levator veli palatini (elevates palate - innervated by vagus)
- saslpingopharyngeus (closes eustacian tube)
- tensor tympani (tenses tympanic membrane)
- tensor veli palatini (flattens palate)
why do kids get ear infections
eustacian tube is more horizontal and it’s shorter
what’s the problem with emissary veins
can bring infection from scalp to brain through emissary veins
where do bringing veins go
cerebral veins to sinus
skull fracture at pterion would cause epidrual hematoma from which artery
middle meningial artery (MMA)
scalp acroynym
skin connective tissue aponeurosis (connects to muscles) loose areolar tissue periosteum (dura mater reflection)
dermatomes of C2 - ventral vs dorsal ramus
C2 dorsal ramus on back of scalp
C2 ventral is neck and ear
what movements are along the vertical axis of eye
abduction and adduction
what movements are along the horizontal axis of eye
elevation and depression
what muscles do oculomotor nerve innervate in eye (extrinsic)
superior rectus
medial rectus
inferior rectus
inferior oblique
what muscle does trochelar lnerve innervate in eye
superior oblique
what muscle does abducens innervate in eye
lateral rectus
what movements are along the visual axis of eye
intorsion = eyeball rotates towards nose extosion = eyeball rotates away from nose
what is convergence in terms of eyes
medial rectus (oculomotor CN3) work to make eyes crossyeed
how to test SR and IR eye muscles
put eye laterally then elevate or depress the eye
how to test superior oblique
bring eye medially and then down
how to test eye muscles generally
first line up line of pull with visual axis then
how to test inferior oblique
bring eye medially and then up
oculomtor nuclei tracks where do they go and come out
motor nucleus
edinger-westphal nucleus
through interpeduncular fossa through cavernous sinus
what does edinger-westphal contain
parasympathetic to ciliary ganglion
when someone has unilateral damage to CN3, what will the eye look like
- drooping eyelid
- eye is down and out “lateral strabismus”
- mydriasis (dilated pupil)
ptosis due to sympathetic - what will pupil look like
smaller - myosis
ptosis due to CN3 damage - what will pupuil look like
dilated - mydriasis
slight ptosis caused by what muscle
superior tarsal
what are the intrisnci muscles of the eye that CN3 innervates (and what motion do they control)
- sphincter pupillae (constricts pupil) - parasympthathetics
- ciliary bodies (accommodation reflex)
where does dilator pupillae innervation coem from
from sympathetic trunk to superior cervical ganglion - leads to pupil dilation
what nuclei are involved in pupillary reflex - path from optic nerve to pupil contraction
optic nerve to pretectal nuclei, to EW nuclei, to oculomotor nerve, to ciliary ganglion to pupil contraction
what are the components of the accomodation reflex - what things need to change
- convergence
- pupil constriction
- rounding of lens (via ciliary bodies)
what motions of eye does trochlear control
- depression
- intorsion
OF OPPOSITE EYE
due to innervation of superior oblique
what will the eye look like with trochlear damage
eye will be slightly up and medial
what kind of double vision will you have
vertical double vision
how do people with trochlear nerve
tilt away from affected eye (so that the affected eye can extort)
when abducens is damaged, what will the eye look like
affected eye will be medially rotated - medially strabismus
what is reticular formation, where is it housed
cells packed in meshwork of tracks.
housed in the tegmentum
what does ascending reticular system do and where does it go
projects to cortex - maintains brain at appropraite level of arousal – reticular activating system
what does descending reticualr system do and where does it go
pass to spinal cord in reticulospinal tract
modulates spinal reflex activity
what structures are in tegmentum (4)
- reticular formation
- cranial nerve nuclei and tracts
- ascending pathways from spinal cord
- some descending pathways
what senses are carried in visceral sensory
taste
visceral
what senses are carried in special sensory
vision
hearing
balance
where in brainstem are sensory nuclei grouped - dorsal, ventral, medial or lateral
lateral
where in brainstem are motor nuclei grouped - dorsal, ventral, medial or lateral
medial
what sensory info decussates in the internal arcuate fibers
touch, vibration, proprio
what replaces substantia gelatinosa in medulla cross section
spinal tract and nucleus of V (recieves SENSORY info from 5, 7, and 9 from the head/face)
what are the two most medial small structures at level in medulla, right dorsally to the decussation of the gracillis and cuneatus gracts
medial lemniscus
once you get above the nucleas cuneatus/gracilis, what are the CN nuclei from medial to lateral
- hypoglossal (motor)
- dorsal motor nucleus of 10 (motor)
- solitary nucleus and tract (senosory)
- vestibular nuclei (sensory)
where to hypoglossal axons exit
in pre olivary sulcus
where do dorsal motor nucleus of 10 axons exit
in post olivary sulcus
what info does dorsal motor nucleus contain/carry
preganglionic parasympathetics to thorax and abdominal viscera
what info does solitary nucleus contain
taste from 7, 9 and 10
what nucleus is ventral to the rest of the bunch of nuclei in the medulla at the level of the 4th ventricle
nucleus ambiguus
what does the nucleus ambiguus do
controls swallowingn and vocalization from 9 and 10
what is lateral to nucleus ambiguus
reticular formation that controls heart rate
what CNs does medial longitudinal fasciculus play a role in communicating between
3, 4, 6
what facial deficits would you see with medial medullary lesion
eye is down and out
tongue deviates away from affected ey
3 structures in base of pons
- pontine nuclei most medial and dorsal
- pontocerebellar fibers, running lateral to medial ventral to the pontine nucleus
- corticospinal tracts most ventral, which will become pyramids
what percentage of american suffer from an anxiet disorder
18%
what are the primary anxiety disorders (5)
- generalized anxity disroder
- panic disorder
- agoraphobia
- specific phobia
- social phobia
what are four medical conditions that can cause anxiety
- hyperthyroidism
- COPD
- congestive heart failure
- arrhythmia
what are 2 substances that canc ause anxiety
- caffeine
2. stimulants (amphetamines, cocaine)
what are the neurotransmitters involved in anxiety (3)
- GABA
- NE
- serotonin
what are the 3 components or sides to anxiety (and the 3 A’s)
- cognitive (anticipation)
- physiologic (arousal)
- behavioral (avoidance)
hormone involved in anxiety
cortisol
why is axiety worse when you’re lying down
carbon dioxide - your tidal volume decreases and your trigger mechanism in carotids goes off
what drug don’t you give in anxiety
alprazolam (xanax) - tends to have more reinforcing or addictive effects
how to treat specific phobias therapeutically
systemic desensitization
what are the 3 parts to systemic desnsitization
- stimulus hierarchy (start with thinking, then photo, then removed, then touching)
- learn coping mechanisms
- learn to connect stimulus to response and coping mechanisms
what percentage of population has social anxiety disorder
13%
what are the therapeutic treatments for social anxiety disorder (2)
- social skills training/exposure (group therapy)
2. cognitive behavior therapy
what are the medications for social anxiety disorder (4)
- SSRI
- SSNI
- MAOI
- benzos
what are the medications for generalized anxiety disroder
- SSRI/SNRI
- benzos
might have to start with benzos to get the initial symptoms controlled, because ssris take some time. also ssri’s can cause initial worsening of symptoms
steps in cognitive behavior therapy (3)
- identify thought
- identify that it is distorted (unlikely)
- make thought more logical
how long do panic attacks have to persist to be classified as panic attacks
1 month or more
what percentage of population has panic disorder
2-5%
what two things are often comorbid with panic disorder
- major depressive disorder
2. substance dependence
what percentage of individuals with panic disorder are treatment responsive
70%
how long out of the day does a person do their compulsions in ocd
more than an hour
etiologies of OCD (3)
- genetics
- infections
- PANDAS - autoimmune
treatments for OCD (pharm and therapy) (5)
- high dose SSRI/SNRI
- exposure therapy (virtual reality)
- systematic desensitization
- deep brain stim
- bilateral cingulotomy neurolosurgery
where is the abducens nucleus in the tegmentum of the pons
just ventral to the 4th ventricle
where is the facial motor nucleus to the abducens nucleus
just ventral and lateral to the abducens nucleus - the fibers from the facial motor nucleus wrap around the nucleus and form the facial colliculus (bump in 4th ventricle)
where do the abducens fibers exit
just over pyramids
where do facial motor nucleus fibers exit
lateral to the pyramids
where is the trigeminal nucleus in the pons
sensory is lateral, motor is medial
where do trigeminal nerve fibers exit
through transverse fibers, lateral to pyramids
what is basis of cereral peduncles also called
crus cerebri
what do you find in crus cerebri (3)
decsneding tracks of
- corticospinal
- corticobulbar
- corticopontine
what cranial nerve nuclei will you find in midbrain
CN3 oculomotor and Edinger Westphal
CN4
where si the oculomotor nuclei in midbrain
just ventral to cerebral aqueduct
what nuclei (NON-CN nuclei) are also in midbrain
- red nucleus
3. substantia nigra
superior colliculi controls relates to what sense
vision
inferior colliculi controls relates to what sense
auditory
symptoms of lateral medullary syndrome- what nuclei/tracks are disrupted (7)
- vertigo (vestibular)
- coordination issues (cerebellar peducnles)
- dysphagia and dysarthria (n. ambiguus)
- glossopharyngeal
- vagal
- spinothalamic track (pain and temp sensation)
- descending sympathetic
how long do you have to have symptoms for depressioin
at least 2 weeks
what symptoms do you have to have for depression
5 of the following
- depressed mood
- loss of interest or pleasure
- weight loss or weight gain
- insomnia or hypersomnia
- psychomotor agitation/retardation
- loss of energy
- decreased concentration
- inappropriate guilt
- thoughts of death or suicide
is anxiety episotic or chronic
chronic
is depression episodic or chronic
episodic
what do you see with depression with “mixed features” (2)
elevated mood
inflated self esteem
what kind of sleep disturbances do you see with melancholic depression
early morning awakening
what are atypical features in depression (4)
mood reactivity
increased apetite (Carbs)
hypersomnia
rejection sensitivity
what cancer is specifically linked to depression
pancreatic
difference between persistent depressive disorder, depressive personality disorder, and major depressive disorder
timecourse and severity
MDD - 5 symptoms for 2 weeks, episodic
PDD - 3 symptoms for 2 years
DPD - constant
what is adjustive disorder iwth depressed mood vs MDD
in reaction to stressor - does not meet criteria for MDD
what is double depression
coexistance of MDD and PDD (persistent depressive disorder)
diathesis
genetic vulnerability
what nuclei produce seratonin
raphe nuclei
problems with neocortex will cause what symptom in depression
concentration
problems with striatum (reward center) will cause what symptom in depression
lack of interest
problems with amygdaloid body will cause what symptom in depression
anxiety
problems with the hypothalamus will cause what symptoms in depression
sleep and appetite
problems with the hippocampus will cause what symptom in depression
memory issues
what percent of depressed individuals will go into remission after initial treatment
30% (60% respond to a drug, but only 30% are made better just by that first treatment)
what percentage of people will go into remission after dedicated longer term treatment
70%
how may neurons in the brain, and how many synapses do eac make
100 billion neurons
each make 1,000 synapses
how many glia per neuron
about 1:1, if not less - but it differes in different areas - more glia in cerebral cortex, fewer in cerebellar cortex
how many seconds after blood supply stops to the brain do we lose consciousness
10 seconds
how many minutes after blood supply stops to brain does irreparable brain damage occur
3-5min
what is the function of the spines on the dendrites (2)
- termination sites of glutamatergic input (#s incrase for more synapse formation)
- sites of memory storage
what is the function of the axon hillock (2)
- screens out cellular organelles like Nissl bodies that shouldn’t be in axon
- summates synaptic potentials from dendrites and soma
what is the function of the initial segment of the axon (2)
- highest density of voltage-gated Na+ channels
2. thus, is the site of AP generation and propagation along the axon
what does botulinum toxin do to neurons
cut the synaptic vesile release machinery (SNARE complex - all 3 components) which allows for vesicle docking and fusion
what does Tetanus toxin do to neurons
cut synaptobrevin part of SNARE complex to inhibit neurotransmitter vesicle docking and fusion
what is molecular mechanism of lambert-eaton
autoimmune destruction of Ca2+ channels (in response to antigen in small-cell lung carcinoma) - causes reduced Ca2+ entry in response to AP, decreased Ach release, muscle weakness
what is the most common cause of neurodegeneration, generally speaking
failures in axon maintenance
what are neurofilaments in axon responsible for
caliber of axon and thus AP conduction along axon
what are microtubules in axon responsible for
polarity, morphology (shape), transportation and scaffolding
what does fast anterograde transport use, and what does it transport (3)
uses kinesin transports: 1. transmitter vesicles 2. neurotransmitters (NE, serotonin, dopamine) 3. mitochondria
what neurotransmitters are NOT transported via fast anterograde transport
glutamate, GABA and Ach (those are synthesized and recycled in axon terminals)
what does slow anterograde transport use, and what does it transport (3)
mechanisms not well known (involves microtubles and neurofilaments)
transports:
1. cytoskeletal/cytoplasmic proteins
2. organelles
3. neurotransmitter synthesizing enzymes (for GABA and Ach)
what does retrograde axonal transport use and what does it transport (3)
uses dynein transports: 1. aging organelles and protein waste for destruction 2. nerve growth factors 3. viruses and toxins
what does Taxol (paclitaxel) do to axons
stabilizes the microtubule and blocks cell division, but also leads to axonal degeneration
Defects in what cause Charcot-Marie-Tooth diseases (not just one thing)
tubulins, dynein, kinesin or other microtubule-associated molecules
what protein is disrupted in Alzheimers
Tau - microtubule associated protein - normally stablizes microtubules and blocks cargo transport. when phosphorylated, cargo can pass. aggregates of tau in alzheimers causes tangles and disrupts the axons
where is tau usually at higher concentrations along axons
at distale end because they are needed for regulation at synaptic terminals for cargo loading and unloading
what protein is disrupted in Lewy Body dementia and parkinson’s
alpha-synuclein - transports membrane vesicles to axon terminals for neurotransmitter vesicle formation. Aggregates disrupt mitochondria transport along the axon, causing axonal degeneration
examples of diseases caused by mutations in mitochondrial fusion genes (Mfn2 and OPA1) (2 known, 4 speculated)
- axon degeneration in Charcot-Marie Tooth type 2A
- AD optic nerve atrophy - retinal ganglion axon degeneration
- speculated in Parkinson’s alzheimers, huntington’s and ALS
overexpression and accumulation of what proteins causes ALS
- tau
2. neurofilaments
5-10% of ALS cases caused by what genetic mutation
missense mutation in superoxide dismutase (SOD) - antioxidant enzyme, making aggretation more likely and causing axonal aggregation
what marker do most astrocytes express in the hippocampus
GFAP (glial fibrillary acidic protein) only a few do in the thalamus
what protein is expressed in astrocytes in gray matter
gap junction protein connexin 30 to connect among astrocytes
how do astrocytes interact with glutamate (and what enzymes/transporters are used) (2)
they clear the synaptic cleft of glutamate, preventing epilepsy.
- they uptake glutamate via glutamate transporters, convert glutamate to glutamine via GLUTAMINE SYNTHETASE, transfer glutamine out. glutamine then gets converted back to glutamate in presynaptic neuron terminal via GLUTAMINASE
- They also release glutamate (gliotransmitter) into presynaptic terminal to modulate modulate synaptic transmission
how do astrocytes interact with GABA (and what enzymes/transporters are used)
GABA is taken up via GABA transporters, converted to Glu, then Gln, then Gln is transported out of astrocyte and into GABAergic terminal of neuron, where it is reconverted to GABA via GLUTAMIC ACID DECARBOXYLASE (GAD)
relationship between astrocytes and glycogen
they store glycogen and provide energy (via lactate) to neurons when blood glucose is limited
relationship between astrocytes and potassium (2)
- removes excess potassium so that the brain doesn’t get hyperexcited (epilepsy) or have excess glutamate (excitotoxicity)
- this release of K+ into arteriolar smooth muscles leads to dilation and increased bloodflow which make active brain regions seen on functional MRI
how does brain get more glucose and oxygen (2)
- increased neuronal activity causes increased CO2 which increases calcium in astrocytes, leading to COX1 generation and release of prostaglandin PGE2 to relax pericytes and dilate blood vessels - allowing more glucose and oxygen to be delivered to active brain regions
- increased neuronal activity also causes nitric oxide release which increases arteriolar smooth muscles and pericyte relaxation
how are reactive astrocytes double edged swords (3 good, 2 bad)
Good:
- fill in the space caused by injury
- promote neuronal survival around injury site via antioxidant, growth factor and glutamate uptake
- uses inflammation (IL-1, TNF alpha, prostaglandins) to activate microglia
BAD:
- scar inhibits axonal regeneration
- excessive microglia activation exacerbate brain tissue damage
what type of cancer results from proliferative capacity of astrocytes - and which subtype especially
astrocytoma
glioblastoma multiforme (GBM) in frontal or temporal lobe)
what causes neuronal damage and dementia in HIV patients
infected microglia which release a bunch of stuff like ROS that damage neurons and cytokines that activate astrocytes
role of microglia in development
50% of neurons have to undergo programmed cell death in early postnatal life and their corpses must be cleared
role of microglia in promoting neuronal cell survival
microglia secrete insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1) - neurons that express IGF receptors survive, those that don’t undergo apopotosis
relationship between microglia and Alzheimers/Parkinson’s
microglia come in contact with the tangles of tau, beta-amyloid or alfa-synuclein, get activated, release cytokines etc that cause neuronal cell death/damage, which then promotes more microglia activation (perpetual cycle)
microglia and OCD/autism
autism/schizophrenia: increased microglial density in prefrontal cortex
OCD: microglia-related cause of trichotillomania (hair pulling)
diseases that attack myelin producing cells (2)
MS= oligodentroglia
Guillain Barre= Schwann cells
learning new skills does what to neurons in white matter
increases myelination
which neurotransmitters in brain are composed of biogenic amines (6)
- serotonin
- acetylcholine
- norepineprhine
- dopamine
- histamine
- epinephrine
what are the catecholamines (3)
- epi
- norepi
- dopa
neurotransmitter small molecule (amino acids) (4)
GABA
glutamate
aspartate
glycine
large molecule (peptide) neurotransmitters (3)
opioids:
enkephalin
endorphin
dynorphin
excitatory amino acid
glutamate
inhibitory amino acid
GABA
which way do glutamate projections go
descending (from cortex down)
huntington’s and amino acid in brain
you see neurotoxicity via a subtype of glutamate receptor
too little GABA activity causes what disease processes (3)
- epilepsy
- anxiety
- huntingtons
what direction do dopa projections go (and from what nucleus)
ascending (from nucleus accumbens and ventral tegmental)
dopa cell body death seen in what disease process
Parkinsons
dopa cell body hyperactivity seen in what
schizophrenia
where are dopa cell bodies and projections located that are affected in parkinsons
“mesolimbic” - substantia nigra projecting to striatum
where are dopa cell bodies and projections located that are affected in schizophrenia
ventral tegmental area projecting to nucleus accumbens
dopa and addiction correlation
dopa projections to nucleus accumbens related to addiction
what direction do Ach projections go (and from what nucleus)
ascending (from septal nuclei and nucleus basalis)
is Ach excitatory or inhibitory in CNS
excitatory
where do Ach fibers project to, and what brain functions are they involved in
- cortex (learning)
2. hippocampus and amygdala (memory)
Ach neurons degenerate in what disease
Alzheimer’s
what kind of drug do you avoid in elderly to avoid confusion
anticholinergic
what kind of neurons increase in tone in parkinsons
cholinergic
how does GABA get increased in parkinsons and what symptom does it cause
because Ach tone is increased (due to decreased dopa tone), GABA gets stiumated by Ach, which is inhibitory, and causes “frozen” motion in patient
what direction do NE projections go (and from what nucleus)
ascend (from locus coeruleus)
what areas do NE project to (3)
- cortex
- hippocampus
- cerebellum
role of NE in CNS (3)
- attentiveness
- mood (target for antidepressants)
- withdrawal (hyperactive)
what direction do serotonin projections go (and from what nucleus)
ascending (from raphe)
what areas do serotonin project to (3)
- cortex
- hippocampus
- cerebellum
what disease processes are treated with increasing serotonin (4)
- depression
- migraine
- anxiety
- sleep
what direction do histamine projections go (and from what nucleus)
ascending (from tuberomamillary nucleus of hypthalamus)
role of histamine in CNS (1)
wakefulness (antihistamines make you sleepy)
when do the pharyngeal arches appear - what week
4-5 weeks
what is week of pregnancy for embryological week 4 of development
6 weeks of pregnancy
what bones make up the orbit (superior, lateral, and inferior walls)
frontal
temporal
maxillary
what is opening between eyelids called
palpebral fissure
function of tarsal glands
secrete lipids that prevent eye from sticking together. can become clogged
function of tarsal plates (3)
- provide structure for eyelids
- secrete lipids that prevent eye from sticking together.
- site of muscle attachment (LPS)
what is sensory info to partoid gland
somatic sensory from cervical plexus
functional innervation to parotid (2)
parasymp pvia glossopharyngeal
symp from spinal cord
3 SSRI prototypes
- fluoxetine
- escitalopram
- seteraline
3 SSRI prototypes
- fluoxetine (prozac)
- escitalopram (lexapro)
- seteraline (zoloft)
1 SNRI prototype
duloxetine (cymbalta)
1 MAOI prototype
tranylcypromine
antidepresant drug timecourse - when do adverse effects occur and when do mood changes occur
mood changes don’t occur until ~6 weeks
adverse effects happen pretty immediately
mech of action of buproprion (and trade name)
wellbutrin - dopa reuptake inhibitor (DAT) and NET
mech of action of mirtaxapine (and trade name)
remeron - autoreceptor antagonist - enhances NE release and seratnonin release
what does serotonin get converted into and where
melatonin, in pineal gland
does GABA stimulation relate to depression
no
what are the benzo receptor agonists (2)
zolpidem
eszopiclone
what is a benzo receptor antagonist (1)
flumazenil
what is a melatonin congener (1)
ramelteon
what drug is a 5-HT1a receptor agonist/ non-sedative anxioloytic
buspirone
what receptors do the Benzos and barbituates work at
GABA
difference between sedatives and hyptonics
sedaives = calming. at high enough doses can produce sleep
hypnotics = sleep-inducing. some hypnotics are NOT sedative
dose response of benzos vs barbituates
barbituates (and alcohol) have linear dose response - easier to cause coma and death with increased dosage
benzos plateau so it’s a lot harder to cause coma or death (have to combine with other sedatives to do so)
what GABA receptor subtype do the anxiolytic drugs bind to
GABA - A, pentamer:
always has 2 alpha subunits and 3 other subunits (beta or gamma)
most common subsubtype is
alpha1 (2) beta2 (2) gamma1
mech of action of barbituates (2)
- enhance duration of GABA-mediated chloride flux)
- at high doses DIRECTLY open GABA-A chloride channels
this leads to neuronal inhibition (via hyperpolarization of neuron) and suppression of glutamate transmission
how many pharygeal arches, clefts, and pouches are there
6 arches, 5 clefts and pouches
what are the embryoogic cell derivaties for the pharyngeal arches, clefts and pouches
mesoderm/mesenchyme arches
ectoderm clefts
endoderm pouches
what are the cartilagenous and skeletal structures from first arch (2)
from MECKEL’S cartilage - makes malleus and incus
main muscle from first arch
muscles of mastication
nerve in first arch
trigeminal
second arch AKA
hyoid
innervation of second arch
facial
cartillage of second, and what skeletal structures (4) and ligamentous structure (1)
REICHERT cartilage, turns into:
- stapes
- styloid process
- lesser cornu of hyoid bone
- upper part of body of hyoid
ligament:
1. stylohyoid ligament
what muscles from second arch
muscles of facial expression
what innervation of third arch
glossopharyngeal
what muscle in third arch
stylopharyngeus
what bone from third (2)
greater cornus of hyoid
lower part of body of hyoid
4th and 5th arches - what cartilage
cartilages of larynx (becomes thyorid, cricoid etc. ALL cartilage)
4th and 5th arches - what innervation
- superior laryngeal branch of vagus
2. reccurent laryngeal branch of vagus
mandibulofacial dystotosis - what is the mechanism
lack of neural crest migration to 1st pharyngeal arch
mandibulofacial dystotosis - symptoms and intelligence
craniofacial abnormalities and conductive hearing loss
- normal intelligence
what does the first pharyngeal POUCH become (2)
- typanic or middle ear (lateral/distal part)
2. auditory tube (medial/proxila part)
what does the first pharyngeal MEMBRANE become
typanic membrane
what does first pharyngeal CLEFT become
external auditory meatus
what does second parhyngeal POUCH become
medial becomes tonsillar fossa and surface of palatine tonsil
what does third pharyngeal POUCH become (2)
- dorsal becomes INFERIOR parathyroids
- ventral becomes thymus
they both migrate caudally
what does fourth pharyngeal POUCH become (2)
- dorsal becomes SUPERIOR parathyroids
2. ultimobranchial body becomes C-cells of thyroid
which bones in skull are formed by endochondral ossificaton (4)
- ethmoid
- sphenoid
- lower occipital
- petrous temporal bone
see a kid with frontal bossing, syndactyly
plagiocephay
2 types of plagiocelphaly
- synostotic - premature fusion or failure to form
2. deformational - too many babies in uterus etc. sleeping on the back of yor head
what is Apert syndrome and symptoms (5)
GOF mutation in osteoblasts in suture mesenchyme:
see:
- craniofacial abnormalities
- hearing/vision disturbances
- syndactlyly
- sweating and acne
- normal to delayed intelligence
how does nose change at 4.5, 5, and 6 weeks
4.5 = nasal placode (dent) 5 = nasal pit 6 = nasal pit with medial and lateral nasal prominences
how does nose/face change at 7 weeks (2)
- medial prominences fuse and form upper lip,
2. nasolacrimal duct forms from fusion of lateral prominences and maxillary prominence
how does face change at 10 weeks
fusion of palatine shelves and primary palate from
what is fusion point of palate where a little opening remains
incisive foramen
gender predominance for rates of cleft lip and palate
lip more common in girls
palate more common in boys
what is smooth philtrum indicative of
fetal alcohol exposure
what is number 1 cause of cleft lip and palate (genetically)
22q11 deletion syndrome (for example digeorge’s)
superior tarsal innervated by what?
sympathetic innervation
damage to superior cervical sympathetic ganglion causes what
Horner syndrome - partial ptosis - lack of innervation to superior tarsal
parts of outer (Fibrous) layer of eye (2)
- sclera
2. cornea
parts of middle (vascular) layer of eye (4)
- choroid (from retina to ciliary body)
- ciliary body (from choroid to iris)
- iris
- ciliary muscle/ciliaris (changes thickness of lens)
what structure is at the apex of the orbit (relates to the extraocular muscles)
common tendinous ring
what nerve structures travel outside of common tendinous ring
“little fairy tots”
lacrimal nerve
frontal nerve
trochlear nerve
which eye muscles attach on atnerior half of eye
rectus muscles (medial, lateral, superior, inferior)
which eye muscles attach on posterior half of eye
oblique muscles
which muscle controls intorsion
superior oblique
which muscle controls extorsion
inferior oblique
branches of V1 in eye, providing sensory innervation
- frontal
- lacrimal
- nasociliary
components of neurological exam from start to finish
- general
- CN
- motor
- sensory
- reflexes
what is the parasymp ganglion by the parotid gland
otic
infection and stones of parotid gland called what
sialoadenitis
sialolithiasis
what are the 5 branches of the facial nerve
Ten Zebras Bit My Cupcake:
Temporal Zygomatic Buccal Marginal Mandibular Cervical
where does the facial nerve exit the skull - what foramen
stylomastoid foramen (on inferior skull by bottom of ear)
what are the muscles innervated by facial nerve (4)
- facial expression muscles
- sylohyoid muscle
- posterior belly of digastric
- tensor tympani
what are the major muscles of facial expression (5)
- orbicularis oculi
- orbicularis oris
- occipitofrontalis
- buccinator
- platysma
portions of orbicularis oculi (3)
- orbital (voluntary)
- palpebral (involuntary)
- lacrimal - tear movement
where/how is damage caused by bells palsy
virally caused compression of facial nerve as it leaves sylomastoid foramen
what fissure in skull does opthalamic branch (V1) go through
superior orbital fissure
what foramen in skull does V2 go through
rotundum
what foremen in skull does V3 go through
ovale
what is the branch of V3 that exits on chin
mental nerve - from mental foramen
what is the branch of V3 that exits by temple
auriculotemporal nerve (innervates parotid parasymp)
what main artery supplies the face and what is it a branch off of
facial artery - branch of the external carotid
what artery is associated with parotid gland, and what artery does it come from
superficial temporal artery, which is a continuation of the external carotid
what are 2 first branches off of the facial artery and what is facial artery called after nose
- inferior labial
- superior labial
facial becomes angular artery at hose
what veins drain face (2) and what do they become
facial vein and retromandibular vein, become internal jugular
what is “danger triangle”
around your nose - if an infection here happens it can drain into cavernous sinus and cause issues
gradient of SSRI drug-drug interactions - most to least
all inhibit P450 enzymes (CYP2D6), so can have drug-drug
fluoxetine>sertraline>escitalopram
fluoxetine and cancer tx relationship
fluoxetine decreases efficacy of tamoxifen (tx for breast cancer)
adverse effects of SSRI (6)
- CNS stimulation (insomnia, headache)
- sexual dysfunction
- GI tract - nausea, diarrhea
- platelet - bleeds
- prolong QT - excitalopram
- serotonin syndrome (usually when in combo with TCA or MAOI)
tolerance and adverse effects of SSRIs
all wane with time except for sexual dysfunction
what transporters do SNRIs block
NET and SERT
Adverse effects of duloxetine
- discontinuation syndrome because they’re shorter acting
- CNS stim
- sexual dysfunction
- increase BP at high doses (alpha 1)
what is unique indication for duloxetine
neuropathic pain
mech of action of TCAs
block NET and SERT, but block other neurotransmitters too
difference between tertiary and secondary amines (TCAs) and where does amitryptyline fit
secondary amines block NET preferentially
tertiary amines block SERT preferentially
amitriptyline is a tertiary amine, but gets metabolized to noretryptyline which is a secondary amine
cardiac adverse effects of TCAs (3)
- tachycardia from NET block
- conduction block from Ach block
- arrhytmias from non-receptor mechanism (can cause death in overdose)
which antidepressive meds cause weight gain
TCAs, mirtazapine
which antidepressive meds are sedative
TCAs (antihistaminergic effect)
which antidepressive meds cause dry mouth and constipation
TCAs (anticholinergic effect)
why is halflife of MAOIs so long, and what is a potential consequence of that
because they bind irreversibly to MAO- so you have to wait for the body to synthesize more.
can cause seratonin syndrome
drug interactions with MAOIs
- alpha 1 agonist phenylephrine (cold med) cause HTN crisis due to increased NE
- sympathomimetics pseudoephedrine (cold med) or tyramine foods (wine and cheese) will also cause HTN crisis
- dextromethorphan (cough med), meperidine will cause seratonin syndrome
timing of MAOI admin changes, and why is that important
give more than 2 weeks after stopping MAOI to give a new drug, and at least 2 weeks after stopping SSRI/SNRI/TCAs to start MAOI
because serotonin syndrome
tyramine and MAOIs - what’s the risk
MAOI block tyramine breakdown. tyramine buildup causes enhanced NE release (hypertensive crisis)
unique use of bupropion
smoking cessation (antagonist at nicotinic receptor)
adverse effect of bupropion (2)
- CNS stim - ANXIETY
2. seizures at high doses
mirtazapine side effects (3)
- sedation
- weight gain
- posteurl hypotension
which anti-depressive drugs don’t have sexual side effects
burpropion and mirtazapine
which is best choice of antidepressive drug in pregnancy
amitriptyline
which is best choice of antidepressive drug in childhood (8-12)
fluoxetine (only FDA approved)
which are best choices of antidepressive drug in adolescents (2)
escitalopram and fluoxetine
what are the mood stabilizing maintenance drugs used to treat bipolar disorder (4)
- lithium
- olanzapine
- valproate
- lamotrigine
what drugs would you use for ACUTE manic emergency (3)
- olanzapine (antypsychotic)
- benzos
- sodiul valproate (anticonvulsant)
lithium is too slow
what mood stabilizer do you need to monitor when adjusting renal clearance
lithium - does what sodium does
adverse effects of lithium (3)
- tremor (treat with beta-blockers)
- renal - polydipsia, polyuria or nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
- fetal cardiac anomalies
what mood stabilizer do you use in pregnancy
lamotrigine
anticonvulsants that are used in treatment of bipolar disorder
- lamotrigine
2. valproic acid (depakote)
side effect of lamotrigine
stevens johnson syndrome
adverse effect of barbituates
linear dose-response - can lead to coma and death due to respiratory depression
drug interactions of barbituates (2)
- ethanol - additive CNS depression
2. induce CYP enzymes
benzos to know (5)
- alprazolam (xanax)
- clonaxepam (klonapin)
- diazepam (valium)
- midaxolam (versed)
- triazolam (halcion)
benzos mech of action
increase frequency of chloride channel opening
no direct effect on chloride channel (won’t work without GABA present)
receptor specificity for benzos
benzos will only bind on GABA-A receptors that have alpha (1,2,3 or 5) and a gamma subunit
alpha 1 subunit stimulation effect
sedation (zolpidem)
alpha 2/3 subunit stiumation effect
anxiolysis
alpha 5 subunit stimulation efect
cognitive impairmnt
what disease is a contraindication for benzos
obstructive sleep apnea
why don’t you use benzos chronically
tolerance, abuse and withdrawal (esp with alprazolam which has short halflife)
which benzo is used in sleep disroders (1)
triazolam
which benzos are used in epilepsy (2)
clonazepam and diazepam
which benzo is used in anesthesia (1)
midazolam
whcih benzos are long acting vs medium vs short acting
long: diazepam, clonazepam
medium: alprazolam
short: triazolam, midazolam
flumazenil mech of action
competititve antagonist for benzo site on GABAa - can reverse effects of BENZOS to reverse overdose
what do you give buspirone to treat
generalized anxiety - not useful in panic disorders
buspirone and admin timing
may take a few weeks to start working
ramelteon mech of action and use
binds melatonin receptors - long term use for sleep aid
benzo receptor agonists mech of action
bind to GABA-a receptors with alpha1 subunit
benzo receptor agonist use and benefit
sleep aid - don’t affect sleep stages (don’t have day after sedation
examples of benzo receptor agonists (2)
zolpidem (ambien)
eszopiclone (lunesta)