Exam 2 Review pt. 2 Flashcards

1
Q

An intrinsic (protein independent) transcription terminator region consists of:

a. a stem-loop structure followed by a string of U’s
b. a string of U’s followed by a stem-loop structure
c. a stem-loop structure
d. a string of U’s
e. no defined sequences

A

a. a stem-loop structure followed by a string of U’s

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2
Q

Which eukaryotic basal transcription factor has a function most similar to the sigma factor of prokaryotes?

A. TFIIA
B. TFIIB
C. TFIID
D. TFIIF
E. TFIIH

A

C. TFIID

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3
Q

What is a zinc-finger (Zn2+-finger) domain?

A. A protein domain that phosphorylates other proteins
B. A protein domain that interacts with RNA polymerase
C. A protein domain that binds DNA at specific sequences
D. A protein domain that binds the TATA box
E. A protein domain that activates transcription

A

C. A protein domain that binds DNA at specific sequences

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4
Q

Which statement best describes termination of RNA polymerase II transcription in eukaryotes?

A. Formation of a stem-loop followed by a string of U’s in the transcript causes the polymerase to dissociate from the template.
B. Termination proteins are bound to the DNA at the points where transcription should stop. When RNA polymerase bumps into them, transcription ends.
C. The rho protein catches up to the polymerase, and its helicase activity causes the polymerase to dissociate from the template.
D. Once RNA polymerase passes the poly-A signal sequence, the RNA is cleaved.
E. TFIIH phosphorylates the C-terminal domain of RNA polymerase, causing it to stop transcription.

A

D. Once RNA polymerase passes the poly-A signal sequence, the RNA is cleaved.

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5
Q

What type of modification is found in RNA polymerase II active in transcription initiation at a eukaryotic promoter?

A. None
B. Phosphorylation
C. Methylation
D. Acetylation
E. Carbonylation

A

B. Phosphorylation

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6
Q

Which of the following is a common DNA binding domain?

A. Ankyrin repeat
B. Beta-sheet
C. Leucine zipper
D. P-loop
E. Zinc finger

A

C. Leucine zipper

E. Zinc finger

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7
Q

Riboswitch controls gene expression by modulating:

a. transcription
b. translation
c. either transcription or translation
d. RNA stability

A

c. either transcription or translation

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8
Q

In the Lac operon, allolactose acts as a(n) ______ when bound to _______

a.  repressor; LacZ
b.  activator; RNA polymerase
c.  inducer; LacZ
d.  co-repressor; LacI
e.  inducer; LacI
A

e. inducer; LacI

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9
Q

Insulators control gene expression in eukaryotes. Insulators:

a. are boundary elements that function to prevent the enhancer for one gene from activating transcription of another gene
b. require binding of zinc-finger protein CTCF for function
c. can be less than 50 bp in size
d. All of the choices are correct

A

d. All of the choices are correct

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10
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true about the glucocorticoid receptor (GR)?

a. GR is an unstable protein and is stabilized by HSP 90 in the cell cytoplasm
b. The hormone enters the cytoplasm and binds GR
c. Hormone bound GR monomer enters the cell nucleus
d. In the nucleus hormone bound GR binds to the target sequence and activate gene expression

A

c. Hormone bound GR monomer enters the cell nucleus

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11
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the RNA-induced silencing complex (RISC)?

a. primary miRNA transcript conversion to precursor miRNA
b. cleavage of precursor miRNA to short duplex miRNAs
c. facilitation of base pairing between mature miRNA and its complementary sequence in an mRNA
d. cleavage of the mRNA transcript targeted by siRNA

A

a. primary miRNA transcript conversion to precursor miRNA

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12
Q

You have a hypothesis that a genetic disease is the result of a mutation that affects splicing such that an intron gets retained in the final mRNA. Which method would you first use to test your hypothesis?

A. Whole genome sequencing
B. RNA-seq
C. Proteomics
D. Metabolomics

A

B. RNA-seq

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13
Q

What are CpG islands? How do they affect gene expression?

A

CpG islands are DNA regions rich in CpG dinucleotides near gene promoters.

They influence gene expression by serving as binding sites for regulatory proteins.

Methylation of CpG islands can silence genes by hindering transcription factor binding, impacting normal development and contributing to diseases like cancer.

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14
Q

What are the roles of RNA polymerase II CTD phosphorylation?

A

RNA polymerase II CTD phosphorylation regulates transcription initiation, elongation, RNA processing, and termination.

It enables recruitment of processing factors, enhances processivity, and triggers RNA release during transcription

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15
Q

How does attenuation control of trp operon expression differ between E. coli and B. subtilis?

A

E. coli employs RNA secondary structures in the attenuator region, affected by tryptophan levels, to regulate transcription termination.

In contrast, B. subtilis utilizes the trp RNA-binding attenuation protein (TRAP) to interact with mRNA, modulating transcription based on tryptophan availability.

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16
Q

What enzyme modifies histones leading to less tight binding of nucleosomes to DNA?

A

histone acetyltransferases (HATs)

which target lysine (K) residues on the N-terminal histone tail.

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17
Q

What prevents MyoD from activating muscle cell genes too early in development

A

The repressive action of chromatin-remodeling complexes and transcriptional repressors prevents MyoD from activating muscle cell genes too early in development.

Additionally, inhibitory signals from signaling pathways and microRNAs may also contribute to regulating the timing of MyoD activity.

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18
Q

How do transcription factors bound to sequences far away from a transcription initiation site affect transcription?

A

Transcription factors bound far from initiation sites can affect transcription by inducing DNA looping, regulating enhancer or silencer activity, and mediating long-range chromatin interactions, thereby modulating gene expression.

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19
Q

Which protein processes primary miRNA transcripts to precursor miRNAs?

A

Drosha

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20
Q

Name one genetic disorder that is caused by a mutation in a transcription activator binding site.

A

β-thalassemia.

Mutations in the promoter region of the β-globin gene, which disrupt the binding of transcription factors like GATA-1, can lead to reduced or absent expression of the β-globin gene, resulting in β-thalassemia, a type of inherited anemia.

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21
Q

What is the function of the Dicer protein in the RISC complex?

A

cleaves double-stranded RNA into small RNA duplexes (siRNAs or miRNAs).

These guide RISC to target mRNAs for degradation or translational repression, essential for post-transcriptional gene regulation.

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22
Q

Which RNA - sense RNA, anti-sense RNA or double-stranded RNA - serves as the best inhibitor for gene expression?

A

Double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) serves as the best inhibitor for gene expression.

dsRNA can trigger RNA interference (RNAi) pathways, leading to the degradation of complementary mRNAs or inhibition of their translation.

This process effectively reduces the expression of the targeted gene.

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23
Q

Histone modification plays an important role in chromatin organization and
gene function. What effect the following modifications/changes in histone have on gene
function (1-2 lines each)?

a. Acetylation
b. Methylation
c. Higher (2X) amount of H1 histone within a 200 kb chromosomal region (as compared to
most of the chromosome)

A

Acetylation: maintains chromatin in an open, active state; promotes gene expression

Methylation: maintains chromatin in a closed, inactive state; inhibitory to gene expression

Higher (2X) amount of H1 histone within a 200 kb chromosomal region (as compared to most of the chromosome): H1 is found in nucleosomes. Higher H1 content would suggest the presence of more nucleosomes in this region. Increased nucleosome
density, as in heterochromatin, makes the region closed and inactive.

24
Q

How will transcription of the E. coli trp (tryptophan) operon be affected by the following
manipulations of the leader region of the trp mRNA?

(a) Increasing the distance (number of bases) between the leader peptide gene and
region 2

A

Less attenuation. Region 2 will not be blocked by the ribosome making it free to
pair with region 3 favoring formation of the anti-terminator structure.

25
Q

How will transcription of the E. coli trp (tryptophan) operon be affected by the following
manipulations of the leader region of the trp mRNA?

(b) Increasing the distance between region 2 and region 3

A

More attenuation. The increased distance is likely to reduce efficiency of pairing
between regions 2 and 3 favoring the formation of the termination structure

26
Q

How will transcription of the E. coli trp (tryptophan) operon be affected by the following
manipulations of the leader region of the trp mRNA?

(c) Removing region 4

A

No attenuation. The terminator structure cannot form in the absence of region 4.

27
Q

How will transcription of the E. coli trp (tryptophan) operon be affected by the following
manipulations of the leader region of the trp mRNA?

(d) Changing several nucleotides in region 3 so that in can base pair with region 4 but
not with region

A

Region 3 cannot pair with region 2. In that case anti-terminator 2:3 structure would not be able to form and therefore the terminator 3:4 structure will always form leading to ‘Constant attenuation’

28
Q

U1 snRNP

A

Binds the 5’ splice site

29
Q

U2 snRNP

A

binds the branch site and forms part of the catalytic center

30
Q

U5 snRNP

A

binds the exons

31
Q

U4 snRNP

A

masks the catalytic activity of U6

32
Q

U6 snRNP

A

Catalyzes splicing

33
Q

Similarities between Group II introns and pre-mRNA introns

A

use the identical two step mechanism and have sequence similarities

34
Q

other types of introns

A

Group I & II self splicing, tRNA

35
Q

Difference between Group I and II introns

A

in the way that the intron is removed and the exons reconnected

36
Q

self-splicing

A

splicing does not require the aid of enzymes

instead the RNA itself functions as its own ribozyme

a remnant from early evolution

37
Q

Group II introns

A

initiated by the nucleophilic attack of 2’ OH of an internal adenosine residue

38
Q

Group I introns

A

splicing is initiated by the nucleophilic attack of the 3’ OH of an exogenous guanine residue

have a conserved secondary and tertiary structure

39
Q

Alternative splicing

A

exon skipping, intron retention, alternative 5’ splice site, alternative 3’ splice site, mutually exclusive exons

40
Q

most prevalent form of alternate splicing in humans

A

exon skipping

41
Q

alternate polyadenylation

A

allows antibodies to be displayed on the cell surface

mRNA is shorter and lacks the terminal hydrophobic regions, so it is secreted

42
Q

consequences of alternative splicing

A

Swapping transactivation domains of transcription factors

  • Swapping DNA-binding domains of transcription factors
  • Loss of regulation of transcription factors and enzymes (become
    constitutive)
  • Changes in intracellular localization (membrane-bound vs cytoplasmic, etc.)
  • Loss of enzymatic activity
  • Changes in RNA stability [note: alt. splicing affects RNA properties as well!]
  • Changes in RNA localization
43
Q

RNA interference (RNAi)

A

describes the inhibition of gene expression by short single-stranded RNAs that bind to target mRNAs via complementary base pairing.

44
Q

3 general classes of small ncRNAs that carry out
RNAi

A

– microRNAs (miRNAs)
– small interfering RNAs (siRNAs)
– piwi-interacting RNAs (piRNAs)

45
Q

MicroRNAs = miRNAs = mIRs

A

s are endogenous ncRNAs that regulate gene
expression. Thus, miRNA precursors are always genomic in
origin.

  • Transcribed by RNA pol II and are capped and polyadenylated
46
Q

Small Interfering RNAs = siRNAs = siRs

A

These double-stranded nucleic acids are actually the precursors of the siRNAs. (In contrast, miRNAs are transcribed by Pol II).

47
Q

Transgenic Expression of Chalcone Synthase in Petunias to Enhance Color

A

Actual outcome: transgenic expression of chalcone synthase actually reduced pigmentation instead of increasing it!

48
Q

Summary: General transcription factors
and what they do

A

TFIID + TBP bind first—binds TATA box, bends the DNA

  • TFIIA binds—stabilizes TFIID/DNA interaction
  • TFIIB binds—recognizes the bend and the BRE
  • RNA pol II comes in, already bound with TFIIF to bring it in to where the others are bound
  • TFIIE comes in and stabilizes everything as a scaffold for bringing in:
  • TFIIH—the unwinder (helicase), which also phosphorylates the CTD (kinase) to signal for other things that are needed
    (processing, etc.
49
Q

TFIID

A

TBP subunit, TAF subunits, TFIIA

50
Q

TBP subunit

A

recognizes TATA box

51
Q

TAF subunits

A

recognizes other DNA sequences near the transcription start point

regulates DNA binding by TBP

52
Q

TFIIA

A

stabilizes TFIID binding

53
Q

TFIIB

A

recognizes BRE in promoters

accurately positions RNA polymerase at the start site of transcription

54
Q

TFIIF

A

stabilizes RNA polymerase interaction with TBP and TFIIB

helps attract TFIIE and TFIIH

55
Q

TFIIE

A

attracts and regulates TFIIH

56
Q

TFIIH

A

unwinds DNA at the transcription start point

phosphorylates Ser5 of the RNA polymerase CTD

releases RNA polymerase from the promoter