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Epi > Exam 2 Review - Practice Qs > Flashcards

Exam 2 Review - Practice Qs Flashcards

1
Q

Between Salmonella, Norovirus, Botulism, and E. coli, which may cause an outbreak with a single incident?

A

BOTULISM

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2
Q

How does Hantavirus spread and infect via its reservoir host?

A

Saliva, urine, feces

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3
Q

A dog living a life of luxury in sunny CA may come into contact with what regionally distributed zoonotic disease?

A

Leptospira (as well as tick-born dz)

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4
Q

Yersinia pestis and Francisella tularensis are 2 examples of what, in regards to cats?

A

Regional distributed zoonotic diseases

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5
Q

Who regulates catfish?

A

USDA

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6
Q

When a DVM states that a carcass is condemned, this is an example of what?

A

Disposition: refers to the ultimate handling of a carcass or its parts according to current regulations

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7
Q

Dr. Yu is a marine veterinarian who is treating a sea lion suspected of having Leptospirosis. What is the most likely way he might contract Leptospirosis?

A

Exposure to sea lion’s urine

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8
Q

Dr. Yu is performing a necropsy on a bird suspected of dying from complications from WNV. Is he at risk of being infected if he doesn’t have the right PPE?

A

NO- no solid evidence that handling a bird carcass (or live birds for that matter) infected with WNV are infectious to humans

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9
Q

Dr. Yu is working on a farm treating an abortion storm. What are 3 pathogens that he should be concerned about contracting?

A

Brucella,
Coxiella burnetii,
Mycobacterium bovis

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10
Q

How is DFD meat handled regarding inspection?

A

Downgraded and passed!

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11
Q

How is PSE meat handled regarding inspection?

A

CONDEMNED!

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12
Q

T or F:

PSE meat is most common in swine, occurs PM, and has increased prevalence in warmer weather

A

TRUE.

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13
Q

What do C. Perfringens, C. Botulinum, and Bacillus cereus have in common?

A

They’re all spore-forming intoxicating bacteria

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14
Q

What bacteria is associated with Hemorrhagic Uremic Syndrome?

A

E. Coli

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15
Q

What would be the primary zoonotic pathogen of concern in regards to an iguana?

A

Salmonella

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16
Q

Most likely bacteria to infect the rice in Ritual’s sushi?

A

Bacillus cereus

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17
Q

What is aka the “Cafeteria germ”? (Infects GI tract)

A

Clostridium perfringens!

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18
Q

At a summer BBQ, what would be the primary pathogen of concern with regard to spreading infection to people when cooking chicken?

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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19
Q

Why should you be cautious when small children consume honey?

A

Clostridium botulinum!

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20
Q

Hep A vaccines may reduce cases up to what percentage?

A

90%!

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21
Q

In regards to “ready to eat” foods such as deli meat and cheeses, what bacteria is most likely to cause an infection?

A

Listeria monocytogenes!

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22
Q

Of the foodborne viruses, which has the longest incubation time?

A

Hep A!

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23
Q

“Night soil” is produced by humans after consuming infected water with what ?

A

Vibrio cholera!

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24
Q

Friends are headed on a cruise ship journey. After lunch, one friend becomes ill. Soon thereafter, the whole ship is ill, and the one friend is ill for weeks after the trip. What did she most likely contract?

A

Norovirus!

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25
Q

Is inspection/exam required prior to slaughter of privately owned chickens? (According to PPIA)

A

NO!

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26
Q

Hep A, Norovirus, and Rotovirus have what in common with regard to transmission?

A

All have direct fecal-oral transmission!

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27
Q

Regarding VEEV, horses are the ________ reservoirs and rodents are the ______ reservoirs.

A

Horses–> epizootic;

Rodents–> enzootic

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28
Q

Which of the echinococcus pathogen species is encapsulated, less pathogenic, and has canids as a reservoir?

A

E. Granulosus

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29
Q

Which echinococcus species forms alveolar cysts?

A

E. Multilocularis!

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30
Q

Which echinococcus species forms hydatid cysts?

A

E. Granulosus!

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31
Q

Although EEEV and WEEV share the same reservoir (bird), which is more pathogenic?

A

EEEV!

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32
Q

Regulation of cheese, ice cream, and the ensurance of grade A milk being cooled to 45F/7C within 2 hours of milking are examples carried out by what organization?

A

PMO: pasteurized milk ordinance!

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33
Q

During what stage of processing does meat have the highest risk of being contaminated?

A

Being dressed!

34
Q

What demographic is M. Bovis more likely to occur?

A

Countries without pasteurization of milk or control programs in cattle

35
Q

Is there an eradication program in the US for Coxiella burnetii?

A

NO; >90% of dairy herds have it!

36
Q

How can people contract Y. Pestis?

A

Directly from infected animal blood,
Abscesses,
Rat flea bites,
And other ways…

37
Q

“Downer cows” are immediately condemned upon inspection for what reason?

A

Fear of BSE prions.. the mad cow

38
Q

TB & Brucellosis are regulated diseases for meat inspections - what does that mean?

A

Infected tissues can be trimmed/cut away an the rest passed with restrictions

39
Q

During a meat inspection, what condition will prohibit the passing of the liver?

A

Cirrhosis

40
Q

Under what conditions would TB NOT be passed?

A

Mild active lesions,
Extensive lesions (encapsulated),
Mild but generalized

*localized lesions will be passed!

41
Q

HAACP follows a 7-step standard to ensure what?

A

FOOD SAFETY TO THE PUBLIC! (NOT quality…)

42
Q

What is the result of embryonal nephroma (neoplasia) during a meat inspection if the affected areas are removed?

A

Passed!

43
Q

What happens if T. Solium is detected during a meat inspection?

A

ALWAYS CONDEMNED! Even if the localized lesions are removed!!

44
Q

What happens if T. Saginata is detected during a meat inspection if localized lesions are removed?

A

Passed with restrictions!

45
Q

What is the goal of meat inspection?

A

Foodborne-pathogen-free!

46
Q

What type of test produces a lot of false positives?

A

Low SPECificity!

47
Q

How do we describe a very sensitive test?

A

Many TRUE POSITIVES

48
Q

What type of test produces a lot of false negatives?

A

Low sensitivity!

49
Q

How do we describe a very specific test?

A

Many true negatives!

50
Q

You appoint a technician to create emergency and evacuation plans and emergency drills. Which phase of disaster planning is this an example of?

A

Preparedness

51
Q

What does the NRF do?

A

National Response Framework

1) establishes a comprehensive all-hazards approach
2) builds on the National Incident Management System (NIMS)
3) Mandates the use of the incident command system

IS ALWAYS IN EFFECT, not JUST during a disaster

52
Q

If we used a species other than humans to monitor the risk of WNV, what type of surveillance are we using?

A

Sentinel!

53
Q

When humans are the DEFINITIVE hosts of a cestode infection, the pathogenicity is _______; whereas when humans are the INTERMEDIATE hosts of a cestode infection, the pathogenicity is _____.

A

Decreased;

Increased

54
Q

Cysticercosis with T.solium in humans occurs when we are what type of host?

A

Intermediate! (Increased pathogenicity)

55
Q

What type of host are we (humans) for E.granulosus and E.multilocularis?

A

INTERMEDIATE for BOTH

56
Q

Vaccinations are a good example of what type of prevention?

A

PRIMARY

57
Q

Testing and slaughtering is a good example of what type of prevention?

A

SECONDARY

58
Q

Managing a diabetic cat is an example of which type of prevention?

A

TERTIARY

59
Q

A DVM visits a farm to collect samples from a population. What type of surveillance is this?

A

ACTIVE

60
Q

USDA ACCREDITED practicing DVMS are responsible for providing ____ _____,
Performing ____ to regulate disease, and filling out ____ _____.

A

Providing continuous surveillance;

Performing activities to regulate disease;

Filling out health certificates

61
Q

What type of veterinarians are responsible for monitoring animal movements?

A

USDA vets

62
Q

What is the final step in dz control in which the dz agent is completely eliminated?

A

Eradication

63
Q

Who is the definitive host for T.solium?

A

Humans.

If we are inadvertently the intermediate, we get cysticercosis

64
Q

Smallpox is a disease exclusively found in humans, but it originated in camels. What stage of cross species disease emergence is this?

A

Stage 5 ; last stage of a cross species dz emergence

65
Q

What is the best prevention practice of T.solium transmission?

A

Proper human sewage protocols

66
Q

WEEV and EEEV share the same _____, but birds are the epizootic dead end hosts for _____.

A

Reservoir;

WEEV

67
Q

Rabid cows and horses do not bite other animals to transmit the dz and are therefore considered dead end hosts. What stage of cross-species dz emergence is this?

A

Stage 2;

Other examples:
WNV, EEV, WEEV–>humans, horses, and dogs

Bird flu–>humans

68
Q

A 3 yo dog was attacked by raccoons. Dr. Yu performs a physical exam and the patient is healthy other than a few superficial scratches and a couple of bite wounds. The dog is overdue on his rabies vaccine by about 2 years. What is the recommended protocol?

A

Euthanize immediately;
But if the owners are unwilling, vaccinate within 96 hours of exposure and strict quarantine for 4 months. NOTIFY proper authorities immediately!

69
Q

Tonsils and distal ileum are examples of what in regards to the risk of BSE transmission to humans?

A

Specified risk materials (SRM)

Also, if >30 mo: brain, skull, eyes, trigeminal ganglia, spinal cord, dorsal root ganglia

70
Q

T or F:

A primary determinant must always be present in order for a disease to occur.

A

TRUE; a cow can’t be infected with FeLV

71
Q

Who regulates meat, poultry, catfish, and imported shell eggs?

A

USDA

72
Q

What is the best cowside mastitis screen test?

A

CMT California Mastitis Test!!

73
Q

3 criteria for a confounder?

A

1) associated with the exposure
2) associated with the outcome
3) NOT the causal pathway between the exposure and the outcome

74
Q

Reservoir for Vibrio cholera?

A

Brackish/costal water

75
Q

Dr. Mangiameli is seeing a case with Rinderpest, an internationally notifiable dz. Who would she report this case to immediately?

A

OIE!

76
Q

Viral vs Bacterial vs Parasitic foodborne pathogens…?

A

Viruses typically have a short incubation period (Hep A being the exception) with more vomiting and less diarrhea;

Bacterial infections typically lack vomiting and have a LONGER duration of illness compared to viruses;

Parasitic infections have long incubation and longer duration of illness

77
Q

Regarding Trypanosoma percutaneous infections, T.brucei causes what ?

A

Sleeping sickness

78
Q

Regarding Trypanosoma percutaneous infections, what does T.cruzi cause?

A

Chagas Dz

79
Q

T or F:

Trypanosoma percutaneous infections by T.cruzi and T.brucei may be fata.

A

TRUE

80
Q

Tsetse flies transmit which Trypanosoma percutaneous infection?

A

T.brucei

81
Q

Kissing bugs transmit which Trypanosoma percutaneous infection?

A

T.cruzi

82
Q

What causes Cat Scratch dz (fever)?

A

Bartonella Henselae; no vaccines!

Epi (3 decks)

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