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Pharmacology > Exam 2 Review > Flashcards

Exam 2 Review Flashcards

1
Q

What vitamins are fat-soluble? (SATA)

A

D, A, K, E.

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2
Q

In what foods is vitamin K found?

A

Parsley, dark leafy greens, grapes, hard boiled eggs.

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3
Q

True or false: fat-soluble vitamins can be toxic in high doses

A

True

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4
Q

What route is Thiamine commonly given?

A

IV

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5
Q

What is thiamine also called?

A

Vitamin B1

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6
Q

Where is folic acid absorbed and stored?

A

Absorbed in small intestine and stored in the liver and tissues

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7
Q

_________ plays a role in maintaining normal calcium and potassium balance and promotes neuromuscular activity in the CNS.

A

Magnesium

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8
Q

You are administering TPN (total parenteral nutrition) to a patient. You know that you must administer TPN through what?

A

Central line

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9
Q

An RN is being shadowed by a student nurse. Which statement by the student demonstrates proper understanding of the frequency of blood glucose checks with TPN?

A

“The patient needs a blood glucose check every 6 hours”.

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10
Q

True or False: The high glucose content of TPN puts the patient at risk for infection and the tubing should be changed daily.

A

True

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11
Q

True or False: Enteral nutrition does not require a functional GI system.

A

False

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12
Q

Elevating the head of the bed in tube feeding decreases the risk for __________.

A

aspiration

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13
Q

True or false: You should always assess bowel sounds before and after tube feedings.

A

True

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14
Q

__________ is used to supplement pancreatic enzymes in chronic pancreatic insufficiency such as chronic pancreatitis, gastrectomy, GI bypass surgery, and controls steatorrhea.

A

Pancreatin

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15
Q

Pancreatin is excreted through what?

A

The stool

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16
Q

What bacteria is known to cause peptic ulcers?

A

H.pylori

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17
Q

What are other causes of peptic ulcer disease?

A

NSAIDS
Surgery
Alcohol
Stress

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18
Q

Preventative measures for GERD include what?

A

Eating several hours before bedtime
Avoiding alcohol and smoking
Losing weight
Avoiding spicy and fatty foods

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19
Q

Omeprazole falls under what classification of medications?

A

PPI- proton pump inhibitors

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20
Q

How long should omeprazole be used for?

A

2 months

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21
Q

Omeprazole is metabolized by CYP450 enzymes. This means you should use caution in which patients?

A

Patients with hepatic impairment

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22
Q

True or False: It is okay to crush omeprazole.

A

False

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23
Q

What drugs interact with omeprazole?

A

Benzodiazepines
Warfarin
Clarithromycin
Sucralfate
Phenytoin

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24
Q

__________ inhibits the action of histamine at H2 receptor sites in gastric parietal cells resulting in inhibition of gastric acid secretion.

A

Famotidine

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25
Q

Patients taking famotidine should eat foods high in what vitamin?

A

Vitamin B12

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26
Q

True or False: There are systemic and non-systemic antacids.

A

True

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27
Q

True or False: Antacids neutralize HCL and promote ulcer healing.

A

True

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28
Q

________ is added to diphenoxylate HCL to discourage abuse.

A

Atropine

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29
Q

True or False: Lomotil promotes reabsorption of fluid through a prolonged transit time.

A

True

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30
Q

The patient taking Lomotil should avoid taking medications that ________ CNS depression.

A

Increase

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31
Q

Loperamide (Imodium) _________ intestinal motility

A

Decreases

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32
Q

Why should children not take bismuth subsalicylate?

A

May cause Reye’s syndrome.

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33
Q

Patients that are displaying which of the following should not take laxatives?

A

Severe abdominal pain that has not been diagnosed.
Hase nausea and vomiting.
Has a bowel obstruction.

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34
Q

What are the different classifications of laxitives.

A

Stimulant
Bulk forming
Emollients
Osmotic or saline

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35
Q

Hyperosmotic laxatives

A

Chronic constipation, diagnostic and surgical preps.

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36
Q

Emollient laxatives

A

Acute and chronic constipation, fecal impaction, facilitation of bowel movements in anorectal conditions.

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37
Q

Stimulant laxatives

A

Acute constipation, diagnostic and surgical preps

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38
Q

Bulk forming laxatives

A

Acute and chronic constipation, IBS, diverticulosis.

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39
Q

Saline laxatives

A

Constipation, diagnostic and surgical preps.

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40
Q

What condition are saline laxatives contraindicated in?

A

Heart failure

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41
Q

A patient admitted to the hospital reports that they use a laxative at home. When asked what the name is, the patient states that they can’t remember the name, but they DO know that it tastes chalky. What laxative is the patient most likely taking?

A

Milk of magnesia

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42
Q

A patient who has orders for Polyethylene glycol (golytely) reports that they don’t want to drink it because of the taste. What can make drinking this more palatable to the patient?

A

Refrigerate the medication

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43
Q

Lactulose is also used in _______ encephalopathy.

A

Hepatic

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44
Q

Lactulose reduces blood _______ levels.

A

Ammonia

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45
Q

Stimulant laxatives ________ the sensory nerve endings in the intestinal mucosa.

A

Irritate

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46
Q

True or false: You should administer stimulant laxatives at the hour of sleep.

A

False

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47
Q

Bulk forming laxatives are non__________

A

Absorbable

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48
Q

_______ and ______ is mixed with 8 oz of water, followed by another 8 oz of water. (separate answers with the word “and”)

A

methylcellulose and psyllium

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49
Q

Emollients ________ water retention in the stool

A

Increase

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50
Q

In open-angle glaucoma, theye trabecular meshwork is ____.

A

Open

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51
Q

In closed-angle glaucoma, the trabecular meshwork is blocked by the ____.

A

Iris

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52
Q

A patient presents with open-angle glaucoma and a change in iris color. What medication are they most likely taking?

A

Prostaglandin analogues

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53
Q

Beta adrenergic blockers reduce intraocular pressure by _________ the production of aqueous humor.

A

Decreasing

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54
Q

Most prostaglandin analogues end in what suffix?

A

-Prost

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55
Q

True or False: Rho kinase inhibitors lower the intraocular pressure by modulating the conventional aqueous outflow pathway.

A

True

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56
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors are ____ effective than other anti-glaucoma drugs.

57
Q

Anti-inflammatory agents are used for only _ week(s).

58
Q

Ranibizumab, bevacizumab, pegaptanib, and aflibercept are drugs used for ___________________.

A

Macular degeneration

59
Q

Anti-infectives used in ear disorders are used to treat what?

A

Acute otitis media
Acute otitis externa

60
Q

Amoxicillin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin are used to treat acute otitis _____.

61
Q

Acetic acid, neomycin, hydrocortisone, and fluoroquinolones are used to treat acute otitis _______.

62
Q

Cerumenolytics are separated into two different kinds. What are they?

A

Water and oil based

63
Q

Pregnancy and breastfeeding should be avoided for how long after taking radioactive iodine?

64
Q

PTU inhibits iodine and peroxidase from their normal interactions with _____________ to form T4 and T3.

A

Thyroglobulin

65
Q

In hypothyroidism, T3 and T4 are _____

66
Q

In hyperthyroidism, T3 and T4 are _____.

67
Q

True or false: Levothyroxine cannot be crushed

68
Q

Armour thyroid is derived from _______ glands.

69
Q

Addison’s disease is an excess in glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids.

A

False
It’s a deficit

70
Q

True or False: Cushing’s disease is a deficit in glucocorticoids

A

False
It’s an excess

71
Q

What kind of corticosteroid is prednisone?

A

Glucocorticoid

72
Q

What electrolytes should be monitored while taking prednisone?

A

Potassium
Sodium

73
Q

What drug inhibits accumulation of inflammatory cells at inflammation sites, phagocytosis, lysosomal enzyme release and synthesis, and release of mediators of inflammation?

A

Hydrocortisone

74
Q

Glucose is stored in the liver as ________.

75
Q

Insulin promotes uptake of _______ and ______ into the cell.

A

Potassium
Glucose

76
Q

A normal A1C should be:

77
Q

A normal fasting blood glucose level should be between:

78
Q

What suffix does rapid-acting insulin end in

A

-Log
Lispro (Humalog)
aspart (Novolog)

79
Q

What suffix does short-acting insulin end in?

A

-Lin
Regular (Humalin, Novolin)

80
Q

NPH insulin is normally…

81
Q

When drawing up both NPH and regular insulin, which one do you draw up first?

82
Q

True or False: It is okay to draw up insulin in non-insulin syringes.

83
Q

Insulin can last how many months when refrigerated?

A

3 months after opening

84
Q

True or False: It is okay to freeze insulin

A

False
Do not freeze insulin

85
Q

What is an off-label use for metformin?

86
Q

What route is metformin administered?

87
Q

True or False: Metformin should be held before a patient has surgery or when a patient will be NPO for a prolonged or unknown period of time.

88
Q

Metformin should be taken _______ food.

89
Q

Decongestants

A

Shrink nasal mucus membranes.

90
Q

Nasal glucocorticoid

A

Decrease inflammation

91
Q

Antihistamines

A

Reduces nasopharyngeal secretions.

92
Q

Mucolytics

A

Thins and enhances flow of secretions

93
Q

Expectorants

A

Loosen bronchial secretions

94
Q

Antitussives

A

Suppresses cough

95
Q

Phenylephrine and pseudoephedrine ____________ nasal capillaries.

A

Vasoconstrict

96
Q

1st generation antihistamines (benadryl) cause drowsiness and 2nd generation antihistamines (claritin and zyrtec) are non-sedating.

97
Q

Dextromethorphan when abused, gives the patient a sense of _______.

98
Q

A patient was recently prescribed an expectorant.It is important to educate the patient to ________ fluid intake when taking this drug to help thin and loosen secretions.

99
Q

___________ blocks the allergic cascade by inhibiting multiple inflammatory mediators and binding to the glucocorticoid receptors.

A

Fluticasone

100
Q

When using an inhaler, a ______ is commonly used to increase delivery to the lungs.

101
Q

_________ don’t require hand-breath coordination

A

Dry powder inhalers

102
Q

Nebulizers convert a drug solution into a ____.

103
Q

Albuterol is a ______ adrenergic agonist.

104
Q

True or False: A patient taking theophylline is at an increased risk for toxicity due to the narrow therapeutic index of the drug.

105
Q

Is theophylline commonly used?

106
Q

Ipratropium ______ muscarinic receptors in the lungs.

107
Q

Montelukast is used as a _______ therapy.

A

Adjunct (secondary)

108
Q

__________ binds to glucocorticoid receptors in the cytoplasm of cells in the airways to decrease airway inflammation.

A

Budesonide

109
Q

Cations carry a ________ charge.

110
Q

Anions carry a ________ charge.

111
Q

The extracellular fluid compartment is called what?

A

Interstitials
Intravascular
Transcellular or third space

112
Q

True or False: The elderly are composed of more fluid than a newborn.

113
Q

Signs of fluid volume _______ include low BP, tachycardia, dry mucous membranes, and decreased urine output.

114
Q

Signs of fluid volume _______ include edema, crackles of the lungs, increased urine output, weight gain, and respiratory distress.

115
Q

Those with a fluid volume overload are most likely going to be put on what diet?

A

Sodium restriction

116
Q

What is the normal range for sodium levels?

117
Q

Hyponatremia is treated usually with what fluid?

118
Q

What mnemonic is used to remember the signs and symptoms of hyponatremia?

A

SALTLOSS
Stupor anorexia lethargy tendon reflexes (decreased) limp muscles (weakness) orthostatic hypotension seizures stomach cramping

119
Q

What fluid replacement is used in hypernatremia?

120
Q

What is the normal level for potassium?

121
Q

True or False: It is standard procedure to administer potassium via IV bolus.

122
Q

Medications that are usually given for hyperkalemia include

A

10% calcium gluconate IV push -stabilizers cardiac membrane.
IV insulin and glucose- shift k+ back in cells
IV Sodium bicarb- increases pH & k+ back in cells
Kayexalate- poop k+ out
Albuterol nebulizer -lowers k+

Dialysis- in extreme cases

123
Q

A normal calcium level is:

124
Q

Calcium has an inverse relationship with:

A

Phosphorus

125
Q

True or False: When giving PO calcium, you must also administer vitamin D.

126
Q

Crystalloids

A

Contain fluid and electrolytes and freely cross capillary walls. NO proteins. Short term maintenance fluid, early plasma expansion.

127
Q

Colloids

A

Large molecules, increased osmolarity without dissolving solution, expand vascular compartment.

128
Q

Tonicity

A

Used primarily as a measurement of the concentration of IV solutions compared with the osmolality of body fluids.

129
Q

Osmolarity

A

Refers to the concentration of particles in a solution.

130
Q

Osmolality

A

Its number of particles per liter of solution.

131
Q

D5W in neuro patients can cause _____________.

A

Cerebral edema

132
Q

The only fluid that is hung with blood products is _________.

A

Normal saline

133
Q

Potassium sparing diuretics

A

Spironolactone (Aldactone)

134
Q

Thiazide diuretics

A

Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)

135
Q

Loop diuretics

A

Furosemide (Lasix)

136
Q

Furosemide can cause what electrolyte imbalances?

A

Hypokalemia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
Hypomagnasemia

137
Q

Thiazide diuretics can cause what electrolyte imbalances?

A

Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesemia
Hypercalcemia
Hyperglycemia
Hyperuricemia

138
Q

Thiazide diuretics are contraindicated in:

A

Renal failure

139
Q

Potassium sparing diuretics can cause what electrolyte imbalances?

A

Hypomagnesemia
Hyponatremia
Hypocalcemia
Hyperkalemia
Hyperglycemia
Hyperuricemia

Pharmacology (7 decks)

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