Exam 2 Review Flashcards

1
Q

3 subdivisions of a vertebrae

A

Body
Pedicles
Posterior elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Vertebral body role and location

A

Anterior protection, primary weight baring portion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Posterior elements of vertebrae

A

TP, SP, laminae, and articular processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pedicles

A

The bridge that connects the body with the posterior elements
Transfer the muscle forces applied to the posterior elements to the discs/body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Vertebral canal role

A

Houses and protects the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lamina role

A

Protects the posterior aspect of the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Costovertebral joint

A

Connects the head of the rib to a PAIR of costal demifacets (spans 2 adjacent vertebrae)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Costotransverse joint

A

Connects articular tubercle of rib w/ costal facet on transverse process of corresponding rib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sternum anterior vs posterior

A

Anteriorly: Slightly convex and rough
Posteriorly: slightly concave and smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Sternum parts (3)

A

Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sternum facets (2)

A

clavicular facets, costal facets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Intrasternal joints (2)

A

Manubriosternal and xiphisternal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which ribs attach directly to sternum

A

1-7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the sternocostal joint attach

A

Sternum and costal cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the costochondral joint attach

A

Rib and costal cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Natural position of c/s

A

Lordosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Natural position of t/s

A

Kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Natural position of l/s

A

Lordosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Natural position of sacrococcygeal

A

Kyphosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Line of gravity points

A

Mastoid process/ external auditory meatus- near
S2- anterior
Hip joints- posterior
Knee joint- anterior
Ankle- anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many vertebra

A

33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Does the line of gravity typically fall to the concave or convex side? Why?

A

Concave. Alters sagittal plane so minor torques are offset to minimize muscular need.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Ligamentum Flavum location and role

A

Anterior surface on lamina
Resists flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Interspinous ligament location and role

A

Fills space between adjacent spinous processes
Resists flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Supraspinous ligament location and role

A

Attaches between the tip of the SP
Resists flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Intertransverse ligament location and role

A

Between TPs and poorly defined
Resists contralateral lateral flexion
* slightly taught in flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Anterior longitudinal ligament (ALL) location and role

A

Anterior side of vertebral bodies, “strap like”
Resists extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Posterior longitudinal ligament (PLL) location and role

A

Attached to posterior surface of vertebral bodies
Resists flexion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Capsular ligaments of the apophyseal joints

A

Attaches to rim of facet joints
Slack in neutral, taut in each end ROM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Define neutral zone

A

The amount of intervertebral movement that occurs with the least passive resistance from the surrounding tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What happens with larger neutral zones?

A

More laxity or instability in the spine to control and more demands are placed on the stabilizing systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The passive system is thought to…

A

Send feedback about joint positions and challenge stability at the passive level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Core stability

A

When the neutral zone becomes larger than normal the spinal segments become unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

C3 - C6 characteristics

A

Short and curved pedicules
Thin Lamina
Large vertebral canal
Short SP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Atlas (C1)

A

No body ,Pedicles, Lamina, or SP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Axis (C2)

A

Dens
20° from horizontal
Pedicles,
bifurcated SP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Atypical thoracic vertebrae

A

T1, T10, T11, T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

T1 features

A

Full costal facet
Demifacet for rib 2
Elongated SP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

T10-T12 features

A

Single full costal facet

40
Q

Atypical ribs

A

1, 2, 10, 11, 12

41
Q

3 functional components of IV joints

A

Transverse and spinous process
Apophyseal (facet) joint
Intervertebral body

42
Q

Osteokinematics of IV joints

A

-small movement
-3 cardinal planes
-axis near interbody joint
-rotation reference point is anterior

43
Q

Arthokinematics of intervertebral joints

A

-flat facets
-approximation, separation/gapping, sliding

44
Q

Apophyseal joints

A

-24 pairs
-plane joints
-guide intervertebral motion
-act as mechanical barricades
-most frequent in upper cervical and lumbar
-subcapsular fat pads are superior and inferior

45
Q

Nucleus pulposus

A

-Shock absorber
-dissipates and transfers loads across vertebra
-small # of chondrocyes and fibroblasts

46
Q

The ____________-__________ nature of the disc results from ___________ groups on _____________ molecules

A

Negatively-charged, charged, GAGs

47
Q

Annulus fibrosis

A

-15-25 concentric rings of collagen fibers
-prevents distraction/shear/torsion
-50-60% collagen
-binder to ALL PLL
-disc only sensory nerves

48
Q

Vertebral endplates

A

-thin caps that cover most of vertebral bodies
-surface facing disc is fibrocartilage which binds directly/ strongly to collagen in AF
-limited healing at disc
-diffusion of O2 and glucose

49
Q

Degenerated intervertebral disc

A

-reduced permeability
-less proteoglycans-less water
-less ability to absorb and transfer loads
-not just with aging

50
Q

the IVD as a pressure distributor

A

-80% of load on intervertebral joints is in standing
-discs are shock absorbers to handle force of BW and muscle activation
-load sharing system: interaction between NP and annular rings

51
Q

_____________ and full lumbar __________ reduces pressures in discs and can allow water to b reabsorbed into disc

A

Sustained, extension

52
Q

Diurnal fluctuation in spine

A

-in supine attracts water
-in WB forces water out of disc
-as proteoglycan reduces, water retaining reduces

53
Q

Atlanto-occipital joint

A

-convex condyles, concave facets
-Flexion/extension and lateral flexion

54
Q

Atlanto-axial joint

A

-pivot joint
-lateral apophyseal joints
-rotation and flexion/extension

55
Q

AA joint ligaments

A

Tectorial membrane and alar ligaments

56
Q

Tectorial membrane

A

Posterior to transverse ligament and dens

57
Q

Alar ligament

A

Runs from side of the dense to lateral foramen magnum

58
Q

Where is cervical flexion/extension the greatest?

A

C4,C5,C6

59
Q

what is the average amount of flexion and extension at the AA joint?

A

15°

60
Q

How much of the total cervical flexion (45-50) is from the AO/AA joint?

A

20-25%, rest is from C2-7

61
Q

How many degrees of extension does the cervical spine get?

A

80°

62
Q

What is the range of rotation in the cervical spine?

A

65-75 each side

63
Q

How much of rotation at the cervical spine is at the AA joint?

A

35-40 each direction

64
Q

What stretches both vertebral arteries?

A

Full rotation

65
Q

What is the range of cervical lateral flexion?

A

35-40 each side

66
Q

Where does most of cervical lateral flexion occur?

A

C2-7

67
Q

How many degrees is normal kyphosis?

A

40-45

68
Q

Amount of flexion in thoracic spine

A

30-40

69
Q

Amount of extension in thoracic spine

A

15 - 20

70
Q

Amount of axial rotation in thoracic spine

A

25 - 35

71
Q

amount of lateral flexion in thoracic spine

A

25-30

72
Q

Ventral nerve root is primarily

A

Efferent (outgoing) axons and motor commands

73
Q

Dorsal nerve root is primarily

A

Afferent (incoming) dendrites and sensory commands

74
Q

All nerve roots below C8 exit ____________ to their respective vertebral bodies

A

Inferior

75
Q

Ventral ramus forms nerves that

A

innervate muscles, joints, skin of anterior lateral trunk/neck and the extremities

76
Q

Dorsal ramus forms nerves that

A

Innervate muscles, joints and skin of posterior trunk and neck

77
Q

The ventral rami become the…

A

Plexi (axial and brachial)

78
Q

Ventral rami individual named nerves:

A

Intercostal and recurrent meningeal

79
Q

Each of the 12 ventral rami form ________ which innervates…

A

Intercostal nerves, intercostal dermatome and muscles

80
Q

Each of the 12 ventral rami form ________ which innervates…

A

Intercostal nerves, intercostal dermatome and muscles

81
Q

Recurrent meningeal nerve

A

A single recurrent nerve that are sensory and carry pain signals to the brain when the tissue is damaged

82
Q

3 cervical nerves

A

Suboccipital, greater occipital, third occipital

83
Q

What is the main sensory nerve to the occipital area that can cause HAs and migraines?

A

Greater occipital nerve

84
Q

Bilateral activation

A

Produces pure FLX or EXT of axial skeleton

85
Q

Unilateral activation

A

Tends to produce FLX or EXT in axial skeleton as well as lateral flexion and rotation

86
Q

The action of a muscle in the axial skeleton depends on…

A

Degree of fixation/stabilization of the attachments of the muscle

87
Q

Deep layers of the back

A

Erector spinae, transversospinal, short segment

88
Q

What are the scalenes innervated by?

A

C4-C6, posterior by C6-C8

89
Q

Neck muscles innervated by ventral rami

A

Longus coli, longus capitis, rectus capitis anterior/lateralis

90
Q

scalenes proximal and distal

A

P: transverse processes of Cervical vertebra
D: ribs 1-2

91
Q

Longus coli function

A

Functions as a dynamic ALL (dynamic stability)

92
Q

Longus capitis function

A

Flexes and stabilizes upper cervical spine

93
Q

Which muscles are dedicated to providing precise control over OA/AA?

A

Suboccipital muscles

94
Q

Viscoelasti as a pressure distributor

A

Flexible low loads, rigid at higher loads

95
Q

Base of the skull include

A

Occipital, sphenoid, and petrous part of temporal