Exam 2: Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following structures would NOT be found in a prokaryotic cell:

  1. Ribosomes in the cytoplasm
  2. DNA
  3. A cell membrane composed of a phospholipid bilayer
  4. A cell wall composed of peptidoglycan
  5. Mitochondria in the cytoplasm
A

Mitochondria in the cytoplasm

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2
Q

The cell walls of gram-positive bacteria contain

  1. A very thin protective peptidoglycan layer
  2. An outer lipopolysaccharide layer
  3. Two unique antigenic components: teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid
  4. All of the above are found in the cell walls of gram positive bacteria
A

Two unique antigenic components: teichoic acid and lipoteichoic acid

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3
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes would most likely have which morphology and arrangement?

  1. Clusters of spheres
  2. Single rods
  3. Chains of rods
  4. Chains of spheres
  5. Clusters of rods
A

Chains of spheres

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4
Q

**In regards to nomenclature guidelines, which of the following is written incorrectly:
**
1. Streptococcus pyogenes

  1. staphylobacillus
  2. Staphylococcus aureus
  3. Escherichia coli O157:H7
A

staphylobacillus

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5
Q

Which of the following lists the steps in the Gram Staining procedure correctly?

  1. Crystal violet, Iodine, Alcohol-Acetone, Safranin
  2. Safranin, Alcohol-Acetone, Crystal violet, Iodine
  3. Carbolfuchsin, Acid-Alcohol, Methylene Blue
  4. Methylene Blue, Acid-Alcohol, Carbolfuchsin
  5. None of these are correct
A

Crystal violet, Iodine, Alcohol-Acetone, Safranin

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6
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheria is the causative agent behind diphtheria. However, not all C. diphtheriae bacteria produce the toxin that causes this disease. To produce the toxin, the bacteria must first become infected with a bacteriophage. The process by which bacterial genes are transferred to new bacteria by a bacteriophage is called:

  1. Transduction
  2. Conjugation
  3. Replication
  4. Transformation
A

Transduction

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7
Q

**When bacteria are growing, they go through a stationary phase when:
**
1. the number of nonviable bacterial cells exceeds the number of viable cells.

  1. the bacterial numbers double with each generation time.
  2. nutrients are becoming limited and the numbers of bacteria remain constant.
  3. they are preparing to divide.
A

nutrients are becoming limited and the numbers of bacteria remain constant.

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8
Q

**Which of the following environmental factors influence the growth of bacteria in the laboratory?
**
1. pH

  1. Temperature
  2. Gaseous composition of the atmosphere
  3. All of the above
A

All of the above

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9
Q

**The anaerobic process carried out by both obligate and facultative anaerobes that uses an organic compound as the final electron acceptor is called
**
1. capnophilic

  1. fermentation
  2. microaerophilic
  3. anaerobic cellular respiration
A

fermentation

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10
Q

**All of the following statements are true about viruses except viruses:
**
can infect bacteria, plants, and animals.

are acellular but are surrounded by a protein coat.

do not need host cells to survive and grow.

have a genome that consists of DNA or RNA but not both.

A

do not need host cells to survive and grow.

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11
Q

**Microorganisms that participate in symbiosis where the microorganism lives at the expense of the host (the host is harmed)
**

mutualism

indigenous microbiota

commensalism

parasitism

host interactions

A

parasitism

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12
Q

**Which of the following “site - bacteria” combinations, would NOT be considered normal microbiota:
**

Gastrointestinal tract - Bacteriodes spp.

Oral cavity - Streptococcus mitis

Stomach - Escherichia coli

Skin - Staphylococcus epidermidis

Vagina - Lactobacillus spp.

A

Stomach - Escherichia coli

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13
Q

**Candida albicans is a member of the resident microbiota of many people, but it may overgrow when a person is taking an antibiotic. This type of infection is called:
**

sexually transmitted infection

an opportunistic infection

symbiosis

a carrier state

a parasitic infection

A

an opportunistic infection

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14
Q

A patient arrives at the emergency room exhibiting the following symptoms: a temperature of 102° F, low blood pressure, elevated white blood cell count, and abnormal blood clotting (DIC). Blood cultures reveal the presence of gram-negative rods. What is the likely cause of these symptoms?

Exotoxin

Endotoxin

Extracellular enzymes

Exfoliating toxin

A

Endotoxin

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15
Q

Innate immunity consists of which of the following components?

Physical and chemical barriers, such as the skin and mucous membranes

Blood proteins that act as mediators of infection

Cells capable of phagocytosis

All of the above are part of the innate immune system.

A

All of the above are part of the innate immune system.

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT a virulence factor found on/in at lease some pathogenic bacteria?

Fimbriae

Protein A

Cilia

Capsules

Ability to resist phagocytosis

A

Cilia

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17
Q

Indirect routes of transmission of infectious disease include all of the following EXCEPT?

Airborne - aerosols suspended in the air

Water

Fomites

Sexual contact

Food

A

Sexual contact

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18
Q

Health care-associated infections are commonly associated with:

foodborne illness.

respiratory aerosol transmission.

preexisting infections.

breaks in aseptic technique.

A

breaks in aseptic technique.

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19
Q

What process helps public health and health care officials recognize outbreaks, increasing trends of infections, and positive effects of interventions?

Intervention

Handwashing techniques

Antimicrobial resistance

Surveillance

A

Surveillance

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20
Q

**How quickly would rabies need to be reported as a disease of major public health concern? (this is true for MN and OH like the chart)
**

By the end of the next business day

Immediately

During a monthly report

By the end of the work week

It doesn’t need to be reported at all

A

Immediately

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21
Q

Methods used to destroy all life are called

bacteriostatic

sterilization

bactericidal

disinfection

A

sterilization

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22
Q

The most resistant microbes to heat, chemicals, and radiation are:

parasites

viruses

prions

bacteria

A

prions

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23
Q

After working in the microbiology lab, the laboratory scientist sprayed the bench top with a chemical spray. This process will not kill all microbes, but will reduce the number of microbes, including pathogens, on this non-living surface. What is this called?

Sterilization

Antiseptic

Bactericidal

Bacteriostatic

Disinfection

A

Disinfection

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24
Q

Which type of gas has commonly been used for gas sterilization of heat sensitive material in a hospital setting?

oxygen

nitrous oxide

ethylene oxide

carbon dioxide

A

ethylene oxide

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25
Q

What is the most common iodophor used in the U.S. for preoperative skin preparation?

calcium iodophor

95% ethanol and iodine

tincture of iodine

povidone iodine

A

povidone iodine

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26
Q

**Which of the following is NOT contained on a SDS
**

Disposal recommendations

Precautions to take while using chemical and control measures

Directions for using the chemical experimentally

Spill cleanup procedures

Name, address, and telephone of manufacturer

A

Directions for using the chemical experimentally

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27
Q

Which Biosafety Level is used in most hospital labs, where there is a moderate potential for encountering hazardous material?

1

2

3

4

A

2

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28
Q

Which of the following is NOT considered a major source of biological hazard for people working in clinical microbiology?

Patient samples during processing and handling

Actively growing culture materials

Appropriately disposed of infectious waste

None of these are sources of biological hazard

A

Appropriately disposed of infectious waste

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29
Q

**Why is quality control important?
**

ensures that the correct BSL is used.

ensures that incidence of emerging infectious diseases is decreasing.

ensures that standard precautions are followed.

ensures the medical reliability of laboratory data.

A

ensures the medical reliability of laboratory data.

30
Q

Select the answer that best fills in the blank: 100 patients who have gonorrhea are tested for that disease and the test yields positive results in 95 and is negative in the other 5. Five of these 100 patients had false-negative (FN) test results. The _of the test is 95%

Clinical specificity

Incidence

Analytic specificity

Clinical sensitivity

A

Clinical sensitivity

31
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE of correct specimen collection?

label the specimen accurately with the specific anatomic site and the patient information.

select the correct anatomic site to collect the specimen.

pack the specimen to maintain viability and prevent leakage

collect the appropriate quantity of specimen.

it is acceptable to collect specimens after antibiotics are administered on a routine basis.

A

it is acceptable to collect specimens after antibiotics are administered on a routine basis.

32
Q

Why are bone marrow, synovium, and blood specimens mixed after collection with anticoagulants?

Anticoagulants dissolve part of the bacteria’s cell wall and congeal many bacteria into groups.

It ensures the specimen will work when using an automated spreader device.

Prevent organisms from becoming bound up in the clotted material, making them difficult to isolate.

It kills all the normal microbiota and only leaves the pathogens in the specimen.

It breaks down eukaryotic nuclear material, but not bacterial for nucleotide amplification tests.

A

Prevent organisms from becoming bound up in the clotted material, making them difficult to isolate.

33
Q

Which of the following normally has the highest level of specimen prioritization?

Feces

Cerebrospinal fluid

Urine

Bone

Sputum

A

Cerebrospinal fluid

34
Q

**Which of the following is NOT a normal reason to reject a specimen?
**

Specimen is received in the wrong preservative.

The transport time was 30 minutes.

All of these are normal reasons to reject a specimen

The transport container is leaking.

Requisition information does not match specimen label

Specimen is dried up.

A

The transport time was 30 minutes.

35
Q

You receive a specimen through the mail from a smaller lab. The package has a small watertight vial in a larger watertight tube. The smaller tube has absorbent material around it. No other packaging is present. What was wrong with this?

The primary container does not need to be watertight.

It is not necessary to have a second watertight tube to enclose the smaller vial.

Absorbent material should be around the larger tube not the primary receptacle.

Secondary container should be enclosed in a outer container made of fiberboard.

Specimen was placed in a small watertight vial.

A

Secondary container should be enclosed in a outer container made of fiberboard.

36
Q

Which of the following media would be classified as nonselective and enriched?

Mannitol salt agar

Eosin methylene blue agar

MacConkey agar

Chocolate agar

CNA agar

A

Chocolate agar

37
Q

Which of the following media / classification pairings is incorrect?

Sheep’s blood agar / Differential media

CNA / Selective media

MacConkey agar / Selective Media

Sheep’s blood agar / Selective media

MacConkey agar / Differential Media

A

Sheep’s blood agar / Selective media

38
Q

A common method to isolate individual colonies of bacteria on a culture plate is called a _plate. It allows grading of a relative concentration of organisms using four quadrants.

39
Q

Cotton swabs are the best specimen collection devise.

True
False
40
Q

Both written and verbal instructions are necessary to provide patients expected to collect a clean catch urine sample.

True
False
41
Q

Which of the following is NOT a critical value in microbiology?

Positive blood culture

Positive cerebrospinal fluid culture

Positive acid-fast smears

Streptococcus agalactiae from genital site of pregnant women at term

Streptococcus pyogenes from a sterile site

All of these are examples of critical values in microbiology

A

All of these are examples of critical values in microbiology

42
Q

If you are looking at a specimen under the 100X oil objective of a compound microscope with a 10X ocular magnification, what would be the total magnification?

10X

60X

110X

500X

1,000X

43
Q

Which type of microscope is usually used in the clinical microbiology lab?

Darkfield compound

Fluorescent

Brightfield compound

Dissecting

A

Brightfield compound

44
Q

In the Gram stain technique, Safranin functions as the

Mordant

Decolorizer

Counterstain

Primary stain

A

Counterstain

45
Q

**Which of the following staining procedures would be used as a differential stain of infected materials to stain infected materials suspected of containing bronchoalveolar fungi?
**

Leifson stain

Acid-fast stain

Calcofluor white stain

Methylene blue stain

Wright-Giemsa stain

A

Calcofluor white stain

46
Q

When making slides of thin materials such as urine and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

use the two-slide pull method to ensure evenly distributed material over the slides

spread the material once, let the specimen dry, then spread another layer on top to ensure enough specimen to stain

mark the area of the sample drop on the reverse side with a wax pencil and then place a drop of the specimen into the marked area

dip a swab into the specimen, then roll the swab over the glass slide to ensure adequate coverage for staining

A

mark the area of the sample drop on the reverse side with a wax pencil and then place a drop of the specimen into the marked area

47
Q

What elements should be included in the direct examination of a microbial smear?

Only those elements pertaining to the amount of gram-positive cocci present in the specimen

Only those elements useful in characterizing the specimen

Only those elements of contaminating material present in the specimen

Only elements pertaining to the necrosis present in the specimen

A

Only those elements useful in characterizing the specimen

48
Q

A cytocentrifuge is an excellent method for preparing nonviscous fluids, because

it deposits cellular elements and microorganisms from the specimen onto the surface of a glass slide as a monolayer.

the sediment is mixed with 70% albumin before spreading it on the surface of a slide.

the cytocentrifuge not only spreads the specimen over the surface of a slide but also stains the specimen.

it concentrates the protein evenly throughout the slide surface.

A

it deposits cellular elements and microorganisms from the specimen onto the surface of a glass slide as a monolayer.

49
Q

You prepare cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cultures and read the results. You notice no growth on sheep blood agar (BAP) or MacConkey (MAC) agar, but that there is growth on chocolate agar (CHOC). The Gram stain showed a gram-negative bacillus. What organism should be suspected?

Haemophilus influenzae

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Escherichia coli

Staphylococcus aureus

A

Haemophilus influenzae

50
Q

If a symptomatic patient presents to a physician with a bacterial infection, the physician will treat the patient with antibiotics. What role does the laboratory play in antibiotic selection if the physician has already treated the patient before receiving the laboratory results?

**
The physician has only given the patient antibiotic samples, and they will only last for a couple days—until the culture results are ready and a proper prescription can be written.**

Physicians will only write antibiotic prescriptions for patients who are infected with a large number of bacteria, so the laboratory needs to tell the physician which antibiotic to use to treat the patient infected with a small number of bacteria.

The physician can treat the patient for bacterial infections, but if the patient has a fungal infection, the physician relies on the laboratory to tell her or him if the patient has a fungal infection.

The physician expects the laboratory to affirm or reject the antibiotic choice made after the presumptive diagnosis.

A

The physician expects the laboratory to affirm or reject the antibiotic choice made after the presumptive diagnosis.

51
Q

Plate reading is:

a comparative examination of bacteria growing on a variety of culture media.

examining the colonial morphology of bacteria on slants.

determining if the inoculum is mixed.

setting up biochemical tests to identify bacteria.

A

a comparative examination of bacteria growing on a variety of culture media.

52
Q

A commonly used medium containing lactose and bile salts that is a selective and differential medium for the isolation of gram-negative bacteria is .

Sabouraud dextrose agar

Anaerobic blood agar

MacConkey agar

Chocolate agar

A

MacConkey agar

53
Q

β-Hemolysis is:

when organisms have no lytic effect on the erythrocytes in the blood agar plate.

partial lysing of erythrocytes in a blood agar plate around and under the colony.

complete clearing of erythrocytes in a blood agar plate around and under the colony.

a pink “halo” around a colony.

A

complete clearing of erythrocytes in a blood agar plate around and under the colony.

54
Q

Which of the following is not used to describe the edge of colonies?

filamentous

umbonate

rough

rhizoid

irregular

smooth

55
Q

Which bacterial species is said to smell like a musty basement?

Haemophilus spp.

Nocardia sp.

Proteus mirabilis

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Staphylococcus aureus

A

Haemophilus spp.

56
Q

Which of the following organisms form scumlike growth when grown in thioglycollate broth?

Gram-negative rods (Enterobacteriaceae)

Pseudomonas spp.

Yeast

Streptococcus spp.

A

Pseudomonas spp.

57
Q

**Why should laboratory professionals look for contamination of a specimen by normal microbiota?
**

Normal microbiota always preclude the possibility of a pathogen infecting the area where they reside.

Contamination of specimens with normal flora that are not collected from sterile sites diminishes the value of the culture studies.

The normal microbiota will be found in clumps, and any pathogenic bacteria will be found with the normal flora.

Contaminated specimens will have much amorphous debris that also goes with them.

A

Contamination of specimens with normal flora that are not collected from sterile sites diminishes the value of the culture studies.

58
Q

When reading stool culture plates, a microbiologist observes an organism that has a dry, pink colony with a surrounding halo of pink on MAC. What organism are they likely observing?

Klebsiella/Enterobacter-like organism

Haemophilus influenzae

Escherichia/Citrobacter-like organism

Enteric pathogen

A

Escherichia/Citrobacter-like organism

59
Q

When examining colony size on culture plates, what organisms generally have larger colonies y comparison?

Gram-positive rods

Gram-negative rods

Gram-negative diplococci

Gram-positive cocci

A

Gram-negative rods

60
Q

When examining a vaginal culture, a microbiologist observes very white colonies that are non-hemolytic on BAP but appear to have feet. What organism is likely present?

Gram-negative rods

Yeast

Haemophilus influenzae

Gram-positive cocci

61
Q

All of the colors below are commonly used to describe bacteria, except

buff

gray

white

orange

62
Q

Biochemical tests are based on microbial .

mitochondria

phenotype characteristics

plasmid number

antibiodies

lysogeny formation

A

phenotype characteristics

63
Q

Arguably the most important carbohydrate determination, screening of gram-negative rods is first performed by testing for the use of _.

glucose

mannitol

sucrose

lactose

64
Q

**When performing the O/F test two tubes are used. Why is one tube covered with mineral oil?
**

To create an asaccharolytic environment

To create an anaerobic (fermentative) environment

To create a reductive environment

To create an aerobic (oxidative) environment

A

To create an anaerobic (fermentative) environment

65
Q

Semi-solid medium that is helpful in differentiating gram-negative bacteria in the Enterobacteriaceae family. Used to determine motility, production of H2S, and indole production.

Urease agar

SIM agar

Citrate agar

LIA slant

66
Q

Commercial identification systems fall into all of the following categories, except

enzyme-based reactions

use of nitrogen and sulfur sources

visual detection of bacterial growth

pH-based reactions

molecular assays

A

use of nitrogen and sulfur sources

67
Q

**The identification system for gram-negative fermentative bacteria that has a series of 20 cupules attached to a plastic strip. Inside the cupules are lyophilized pH-based substrates. What is the name of this system?
**

Enterotube II

Microbact

None of the other answers are correct

API 20E

ID Tri-Panel

68
Q

What result is shown for the TSI agar slant below?

A

Ferments glucose, lactose (or sucrose), no gas is produced, but hydrogen sulfide is produced.

69
Q

The ONPG test is used to test for

ornithine decarboxylation vs deamination

delayed lactose fermenters vs nonlactose fermenters

sucrose fermenters vs nonfermenters

citrate utilization vs unable to utilize citrate

A

delayed lactose fermenters vs nonlactose fermenters

70
Q

**Why is zinc added during the nitrate reduction test?
**

To determine if nitrate was reduced to nitrite and then further reduced to a product like nitrogen gas

To determine if nitrite is reduced completely to nitrate and the further reduced to a product like nitrogen gas

To determine the presence of urease within the media

To determine the presence of the cytochorome oxidase system within the bacteria

A

To determine if nitrate was reduced to nitrite and then further reduced to a product like nitrogen gas

71
Q

Enterics use two separate pathways for glucose metabolism within the Embden-Meyerhof pathway. Which test determine whether the bacterium uses the butylene glycol pathway for this type of metabolism?

Voges-Proskauer (VP)

Methyl Red (MR)

Phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) test

Motility-Indole-Ornithine (MIO) test

A

Voges-Proskauer (VP)