Exam 2- Prep Us

Question 1

The nurse and a nursing student are admitting a client with a malignant glioma brain tumor preoperatively for resection of the tumor. The nursing student asks the nurse, “ I was told these types of tumors have a very poor prognosis. Why is the tumor being resected?” Which rationale for this intervention is true?

Answer 1

“Surgical resection of the tumor will decrease intracranial pressure.”
Explanation:
For clients with malignant glioma, complete removal of the tumor and cure are not possible, but the rationale for resection includes relief of intracranial pressure, removal of any necrotic tissue, and reduction in the bulk of the tumor, which theoretically leaves behind fewer cells to become resistant to radiation or chemotherapy. Due to the poor prognosis with this tumor, it is not likely that the surgical resection is considered a life-saving measure. Rather the surgical intervention is a means to manage symptoms in the palliative phase of the client’s disease. Surgical resection does not eliminate the need for chemotherapy. Due to the malignant nature of this tumor, the surgery will not completely eliminate the tumor, but chemotherapy can be administered to eradicate or slow further cell growth to promote comfort in the palliative phase of the disease. In the case of this client, reversal of paralysis caused by brain tumor compression 6 months ago is not possible. This would not be the aim of the surgical resection.

Question 2

A patient with myasthenia gravis is in the hospital for treatment of pneumonia. The patient informs the nurse that it is very important to take pyridostigmine bromide on time. The nurse gets busy and does not administer the medication until after breakfast. What outcome will the patient have related to this late dose?

Answer 2

The muscles will become fatigued and the patient will not be able to chew food or swallow pills.
Explanation:
Maintenance of stable blood levels of anticholinesterase medications, such as pyridostigmine, is imperative to stabilize muscle strength. Therefore, the anticholinesterase medications must be administered on time. Any delay in administration of medications may exacerbate muscle weakness and make it impossible for the patient to take medications orally.

Question 3

Bone density testing will be completed for the client with post-polio syndrome. The nurse teaches the client bone density testing is used to identify what potential complication?

Answer 3

Low bone mass and osteoporosis
Explanation:
Bone density testing in clients with post-polio syndrome has demonstrated low bone mass and osteoporosis. Thus, the importance of identifying risks, preventing falls, and treating osteoporosis must be discussed with clients and their families.

Question 4

A nurse is reviewing a client’s medical record and finds that the client has a spinal cord tumor that involves the vertebral bodies. The nurse identifies this as which type of spinal tumor?

Answer 4

Extradural
Explanation:
Tumors within the spine are classified according to their anatomic relation to the spinal cord. Intramedullary tumors arise from within the spinal cord. Intradural–extramedullary tumors are within or under the spinal dura but not on the actual spinal cord. Extradural tumors are located outside the dura and often involve the vertebral bodies.

Question 5

Which of the following outcomes would be most appropriate to include in the plan of care for a client diagnosed with a muscular dystrophy?

Answer 5

Client participates in activities of daily living using adaptive devices.
Explanation:
The muscular dystrophies are a group of incurable muscle disorders characterized by progressive weakening and wasting of the skeletal or voluntary muscles. Nursing care focuses on maintaining the client at his or her optimal level of functioning and enhancing the quality of life. Therefore, the outcome of participating in activities of daily living with adaptive devices would be most appropriate. Medications are not used to treat these disorders; however, they may be necessary if the client develops a complication such as respiratory dysfunction. The disorder is incurable and progressive, not chronic. Diagnostic follow-up would provide little if any information about the course of the disorder.

Question 6

The nurse is performing an assessment for a patient in the clinic with Parkinson’s disease. The nurse determines that the patient’s voice has changed since the last visit and is now more difficult to understand. How should the nurse document this finding?

Answer 6

Dysphonia
Explanation:
Dysphonia (voice impairment or altered voice production) may occur as a result of weakness and incoordination of the muscles responsible for speech.

Question 7

Which of the following is a late symptom of spinal cord compression?

Answer 7

Paralysis
Explanation:
Later symptoms include evidence of motor weakness and sensory deficits progressing to paralysis. Early symptoms associated with spinal cord compression include bladder and bowel dysfunction (urinary incontinence or retention; fecal incontinence or constipation).

Question 8

A client is scheduled for a laminectomy to repair a herniated intervertebral disk. When developing the postoperative care plan, the nurse should include which action?

Answer 8

Turning the client from side to side, using the logroll technique
Explanation:
To avoid twisting the spine or hips when turning a client onto the side, the nurse should use the logroll technique. (Twisting after a laminectomy could injure the spine.) After surgery, the nurse shouldn’t put anything under the client’s knees or place the client in semi-Fowler’s position because these actions increase the risk of deep vein thrombosis. Typically, the client is allowed out of bed by the first or second day after a laminectomy.

Question 9

The nurse is caring for a client hospitalized after a motor vehicle accident. The client has a comorbidity of Parkinson’s disease. Why should the nurse closely monitor the condition and the drug regimen of a client with Parkinson’s disease?

Answer 9

Drugs administered may cause a wide variety of adverse effects.
Explanation:
Drugs administered for Parkinsonism may cause a wide variety of adverse effects, which requires careful observation of the client. Over time, clients may respond less and less to their standard drug therapy and have more frequent “off episodes” of hypomobility. As a result, the nurse should administer the drugs closely to the schedule. Generally, a single drug called levodopa is administered to clients with Parkinson’s disease. It is also not true that drugs may not cause the requisite therapeutic effect or such clients do not adhere to the drug regimen.

Question 10

The nurse is caring for a patient with Huntington’s disease in the long-term care facility. What does the nurse recognize as the most prominent symptom of the disease that the patient exhibits?

Answer 10

Rapid, jerky, involuntary movements
Explanation:
The most prominent clinical features of the disease are chorea (rapid, jerky, involuntary, purposeless movements), impaired voluntary movement, intellectual decline, and often personality changes (Aubeeluck & Wilson, 2008).

Question 11

A client is admitted reporting low back pain. How will the nurse best determine if the pain is related to a herniated lumbar disc?

Answer 11

Have the client lie on the back and lift the leg, keeping it straight.
Explanation:
A client who can lie on the back and raise a leg in a straight position will have pain radiating into the leg if there is a herniated lumbar disc. This action stretches the sciatic nerve. The client may also have muscle weakness and decreased tendon reflexes and sensory loss. The client should still be able to walk, and have bowel movements, so this assessment will not assist the nurse to confirm the diagnosis. Pain on ambulation is also not specific to this condition.

Question 12

The daughter of a patient with Huntington’s disease asks the nurse what the risk is of her inheriting the disease. What is the best response by the nurse?

Answer 12

“If one parent has the disorder, there is a 50% chance that you will inherit the disease.”
Explanation:
Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia. The disease affects approximately 1 in 10,000 men or women of all races at midlife. It is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder; therefore, each child of a parent with Huntington disease has a 50% risk of inheriting the disorder (Ha & Fung, 2012).

Question 13

A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?

Answer 13

Related to impaired balance
Explanation:
A client with a cerebellar brain tumor may suffer injury from impaired balance as well as disturbed gait and incoordination. Visual field deficits, difficulty swallowing, and psychomotor seizures may result from dysfunction of the pituitary gland, pons, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe — not from a cerebellar brain tumor. Difficulty swallowing suggests medullary dysfunction. Psychomotor seizures suggest temporal lobe dysfunction.

Question 14

A 55-year-old female client presents at the walk-in clinic complaining of feeling like a mask is on her face. While doing the initial assessment, the nurse notes the demonstration of a pill-rolling movement in the right hand and a stooped posture. Physical examination shows bradykinesia and a shuffling gait. What would the nurse suspect is the causative factor for these symptoms?

Answer 14

Parkinson’s disease
Explanation:
Early signs include stiffness, referred to as rigidity, and tremors of one or both hands, described as pill-rolling (a rhythmic motion of the thumb against the fingers). The hand tremor is obvious at rest and typically decreases when movement is voluntary, such as picking up an object. Bradykinesia, slowness in performing spontaneous movements, develops. Clients have a masklike expression, stooped posture, hypophonia (low volume of speech), and difficulty swallowing saliva. Weight loss occurs. A shuffling gait is apparent, and the client has difficulty turning or redirecting forward motion. Arms are rigid while walking. These symptoms are not indicative of MS, Myasthenia gravis, or Huntington’s.

Question 15

Which disease is associated with decreased levels of dopamine due to destruction of pigmented neuronal cells?

Answer 15

Parkinson disease
Explanation:
In some clients, Parkinson disease can be controlled; however, it cannot be cured. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic, degenerative, progressive disease of the central nervous system (CNS) characterized by the occurrence of small patches of demyelination in the brain and spinal cord. Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary dancelike movements and dementia. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare, transmissible, progressive and fatal disease of the CNS characterized by spongiform degeneration of the gray matter of the brain.

Question 16

The nurse is assessing a client who was brought to the emergency department due to a severe headache with sudden onset, lowered level of consciousness and slurred, non-sensical speech. The client completed chemotherapy and radiation treatment for a glioma-type brain tumor 6 months ago. The client has been taking low molecular weight heparin since completing treatment. The nurse should be prepared to provide care for which possible problem?

Answer 16

Intracerebral hemorrhage
Explanation:
Clients receiving anticoagulant agents, such as low molecular weight heparin, must be closely monitored because of the risk of central nervous system hemorrhage, also known as an intercerebral hemorrhage. Both deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism would be prevented or mitigated by the use of anticoagulant medications such as low molecular weight heparin. The nurse should always consider the risk of these latter problems, however, because the client is clearly at risk for impaired coagulation. Spinal metastasis can result in spinal cord compression, which is considered a medical emergency requiring immediate treatment. In this case, the nurse would observe reports of back pain, extremity weakness, ataxia and/or paralysis.

Question 17

Which term is used to describe edema of the optic nerve?

Answer 17

Papilledema
Explanation:
Papilledema is edema of the optic nerve. Scotoma is a defect in vision in a specific area in one or both eyes. Lymphedema is the chronic swelling of an extremity due to interrupted lymphatic circulation, typically from an axillary dissection. Angioneurotic edema is a condition characterized by urticaria and diffuse swelling of the deeper layers of the skin.

Question 18

Which diagnostic is most commonly used for spinal cord compression?

Answer 18

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Explanation:
MRI is the most commonly used diagnostic tool, detecting epidural spinal cord compression and metastases.

Question 19

A nurse is working on a surgical floor. The nurse must logroll a client following a:

Answer 19

laminectomy.
Explanation:
The client who has had spinal surgery, such as laminectomy, must be logrolled to keep the spinal column straight when turning. The client who has had a thoracotomy or cystectomy may turn himself or may be assisted into a comfortable position. Under normal circumstances, hemorrhoidectomy is an outpatient procedure, and the client may resume normal activities immediately after surgery.

Question 20

A client who has just been diagnosed with mixed muscular dystrophy asks the nurse about the usual course of this disease. How should the nurse respond?

Answer 20

“You may experience progressive deterioration in all voluntary muscles.”
Explanation:
The nurse should tell the client that muscular dystrophy causes progressive, symmetrical wasting of skeletal muscles, without neural or sensory defects. The mixed form of the disease typically strikes between ages 30 and 50 and progresses rapidly, causing deterioration of all voluntary muscles. Because the client asked the nurse this question directly, the nurse should answer and not simply refer the client to the physician. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy causes a gradual decrease in arm and pelvic muscle strength, resulting in slight disability. Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy is a slowly progressive, relatively benign form of muscular dystrophy; it usually arises before age 10.

Question 21

A nurse is reviewing a client’s medical record and finds that the client has a spinal cord tumor that involves the vertebral bodies. The nurse identifies this as which type of spinal tumor?

Answer 21

Extradural
Explanation:
Tumors within the spine are classified according to their anatomic relation to the spinal cord. Intramedullary tumors arise from within the spinal cord. Intradural–extramedullary tumors are within or under the spinal dura but not on the actual spinal cord. Extradural tumors are located outside the dura and often involve the vertebral bodies.

Question 22

A client with a malignant glioma is scheduled for surgery. The client demonstrates a need for additional teaching about the surgery when he states which of the following?

Answer 22

“The surgeon will be able to remove all of the tumor.”
Explanation:
For clients with malignant gliomas, complete removal of the tumor and cure are not possible but the rationale for resection includes relief of increased intracranial pressure, removal of any necrotic tissue, and reduction in the bulk of the tumor, which theoretically leaves behind fewer cells to become resistant to radiation or chemotherapy.

Question 23

The nurse is providing health education to a client recently diagnosed with a brain tumor. During the appointment, the client states, “I’m really worried that I will have a seizure while I am at work or with my kids. Should I be concerned about this?” How should the nurse respond?

Answer 23

“There is a risk for seizures in people who have this diagnosis. What have you already discussed with your primary health care provider regarding management of seizures?”

Question 24

The nurse is seeing a client who is being investigated for a possible spinal tumor. The nurse knows that a tumor in this region of the body is more likely if the client reports increased pain when:

Answer 24

sleeping on the stomach.
Explanation:
When assessing a client for whom there is suspicion of a spinal tumor, the nurse is alert for early reports of back pain, which occurs in the region of the tumor. The pain typically increases when the client is in the prone position. When lying flat on the stomach, the client is in a prone position. The client is more likely to report pain when in this position. Although pain may be present in other body positions, pain in the prone position can be a cardinal sign.

Question 25

A male client who has undergone a cervical discectomy is being discharged with a cervical collar. Which of the following would be most appropriate to include the client’s discharge plan?

Answer 25

Keeping the head in a neutral position
Explanation:
After a cervical discectomy, the client typically wears a cervical collar. The client should be instructed to keep his head in a neutral position and wear the collar at all times unless the physician has instructed otherwise. The front part of the collar is removed for shaving and the neck should be kept still while the collar is open or off.

Question 26

A client is suspected of having amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). To help confirm this disorder, the nurse prepares the client for various diagnostic tests. The nurse expects the physician to order:

Answer 26

electromyography (EMG).
Explanation:
To help confirm ALS, the physician typically orders EMG, which detects abnormal electrical activity of the involved muscles. To help establish the diagnosis of ALS, EMG must show widespread anterior horn cell dysfunction with fibrillations, positive waves, fasciculations, and chronic changes in the potentials of neurogenic motor units in multiple nerve root distribution in at least three limbs and the paraspinal muscles. Normal sensory responses must accompany these findings. Doppler scanning, Doppler ultrasonography, and quantitative spectral phonoangiography are used to detect vascular disorders, not muscular or neuromuscular abnormalities.

Question 27

The nursing is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with a pituitary adenoma, but has not yet started treatment. The client reports having increased heart rate, hand tremors, difficulty sleeping, weight loss and hyperthermia. The nurse anticipates the client will require blood work to assess for overproduction of which hormone?

Answer 27

Thyroid-stimulating hormone
Explanation:
In clients diagnosed with pituitary tumors, increase may be seen in prolactin hormone, growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, or thyroid-stimulating hormone. In this case, the client is exhibiting symptoms related to hyperthyroidism and the blood work should include the thyroid-stimulating hormone level to determine if an overproduction of this hormone due to the presence of the tumor is the cause of the presenting symptoms.

Question 28

A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?

Answer 28

Related to impaired balance
Explanation:
A client with a cerebellar brain tumor may suffer injury from impaired balance as well as disturbed gait and incoordination. Visual field deficits, difficulty swallowing, and psychomotor seizures may result from dysfunction of the pituitary gland, pons, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe — not from a cerebellar brain tumor. Difficulty swallowing suggests medullary dysfunction. Psychomotor seizures suggest temporal lobe dysfunction.

Question 29

The nurse is seeing the mother of a client who states, “I’m so relieved because my son’s doctor told me his brain tumor is benign.” The nurse knows what is true about benign brain tumors?

Answer 29

They can affect vital functioning.
Explanation:
Benign tumors are usually slow growing but can occur in a vital area, where they can grow large enough to cause serious effects. Surgical removal of a benign tumor is dependent on many factors; even if the tumor is slow growing or not growing at all, the location of the tumor in the brain factors into the decision for surgical removal. The prognosis for all brain tumors is not necessarily poor. Treatment is individualized and can have varying prognostic outcomes. Benign tumors are not metastatic, meaning they do not grow rapidly or spread into surrounding tissue, but they can still be considered life-threatening.

Question 30

The nurse is seeing a client who is suspected of having a glioblastoma multiforme tumor. The nurse anticipates the client will require which diagnostic test to confirm the client has this form of brain tumor?

Answer 30

Tissue biopsy
Explanation:
Glioblastoma multiforme is the most common and aggressive malignant brain tumor. In most cases, a tissue biopsy, which can be obtained at the time of surgical removal, is needed to confirm the diagnosis. A Weber and Rinne test may be useful in assessing asymmetric hearing loss associated with an acoustic neuroma, not glioblastoma multiforme. The diagnosis of an angioma is suggested by the presence of another angioma somewhere in the head or by a bruit (an abnormal sound) that is audible over the skull. Functioning pituitary adenoma can produce one or more hormones, normally by the anterior pituitary. Increase maybe seen in prolactin hormone, growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, or thyroid-stimulating hormone.

Question 31

The nurse teaches the client diagnosed with Huntington disease that it is transmitted as which type of genetic disorder?

Answer 31

Autosomal dominant
Explanation:
Huntington disease is transmitted as an autosomal dominant genetic disorder. It is a genetic mutation , caused by the presences of a repeat of the ( Huntington gene) HTT gene. This disease is a chronic, progressive, hereditary disorder of the nervous system and results in progressive involuntary choreiform movements and dementia.

Question 32

The nurse is providing postoperative care for a client who just underwent surgery to remove a metastatic intramedullary tumor. On postoperative day 3, the client states, “I am really looking forward to going running again, it had become too difficult because of the loss of feeling in my feet.” Which should the nurse address in the client’s care plan?

Answer 32

Knowledge deficit
Explanation:
Clients with extensive neurologic deficits before surgery usually do not make significant functional recovery, even after successful tumor removal. In this case, the client had already developed bilateral sensory loss in the lower extremities indicating the fairly progressed impact of the tumor on the client’s functional ability. The client’s statement reflects a knowledge deficit and it is a priority to provide information regarding the possibility that lower extremity sensation may not return. Although body image disturbance and anxiety may be identified and addressed. This would occur after the client demonstrates an accurate understanding of loss of functional capabilities as a result of the progressed tumor. Ensuring the client understands the extent of functional loss due to the impact of the tumor is a priority. The client does not demonstrate impaired cognition.

Question 33

Which client should the nurse assess for degenerative neurologic symptoms?

Answer 33

The client with Huntington disease.
Explanation:
Huntington disease is a chronic, progressive, degenerative neurologic hereditary disease of the nervous system that results in progressive involuntary choreiform movement and dementia. Paget disease is a musculoskeletal disorder, characterized by localized rapid bone turnover, most commonly affecting the skull, femur, tibia, pelvic bones, and vertebrae. Osteomyelitis is an infection of the bone. Malignant glioma is the most common type of brain tumor.

Question 34

The nurse educator is providing orientation to a new group of staff nurses on an oncology unit. Part of the orientation is to help nurses understand the differences between various types of brain tumors. The nurse educator correctly identifies that glioma tumors are classified based on the fact that they originate where in the brain?

Answer 34

Within the brain tissue
Explanation:
Gliomas tumors are a type of intracerebral brain neoplasm. They originate within brain tissue. Tumors arising from the coverings of the brain include meningiomas. These tumors grow on the membrane covering of the brain, called the meninges. An acoustic neuroma is an example of tumors that grow out of or on cranial nerves and cause compression leading to sensory deficits. Metastasis refers to spreading of any kind of malignant primary tumor. This term is not specific to any one classification of tumor.

Question 35

The nursing instructor gives their students an assignment of making a plan of care for a client with Huntington’s disease. What would be important for the students to include in the teaching portion of the care plan?

Answer 35

How to facilitate tasks such as using both hands to hold a drinking glass
Explanation:
The nurse demonstrates how to facilitate tasks such as using both hands to hold a drinking glass, using a straw to drink, and wearing slip-on shoes. The teaching portion of the care plan would not include how to exercise, perform household tasks, or take a bath.

Question 36

A client comes to the clinic for evaluation because of complaints of dizziness and difficulty walking. Further assessment reveals a staggering gait, marked muscle incoordination, and nystagmus. A brain tumor is suspected. Based on the client’s assessment findings, the nurse would suspect that the tumor is located in which area of the brain?

Answer 36

Cerebellum
Explanation:
Findings such as ataxic or staggering gait, dizziness, marked muscle incoordination, and nystagmus suggest a cerebellar tumor. A frontal lobe tumor frequently produces personality, emotional, and behavioral changes. A tumor in the motor cortex produces seizure-like movements localized on one side of the body. Occipital lobe tumors produce visual manifestations.

Question 37

The nurse reviews the patient’s drug regimen for treatment of a brain tumor. She explains to the patient why one of the following drugs would not be prescribed, even though it might have therapeutic benefits. Which drug would not be prescribed for this patient?

Answer 37

Coumadin AKA Warfarin
Explanation:
Although deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism occur in about 15% of patients and cause significant morbidity, anticoagulants are not prescribed due to the risk for CNS hemorrhage.

Question 38

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has had surgery for partial removal of a spinal tumor to decompress the spinal cord. Preoperatively, the client had lost sensation to the lower legs. When instructing the client regarding pain management strategies, the nurse should include which information?

Answer 38

Use assistive devices
Explanation:
To prevent falls and pain due to fatigue and overuse, the client should be encouraged to use assistive devices such as canes, walkers and/or wheelchairs when ambulating. When the nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client after spinal surgery, the nurse should ensure that, for a client with residual sensory involvement, the client is aware that extreme temperatures should not be applied to the skin. The client should be alerted to the dangers of heating devices (e.g., hot water bottles, heating pads, space heaters). Sleeping in the recumbent position (three quarters prone) can increase pain. Thus, the client should be encouraged to sleep flat with the head of the bed slightly elevated or closely follow instructions for sleep position provided by the surgeon. Although maintaining muscle strength is important in promoting ability to carry out activities of daily living, moderate exercise may not be possible. The client should follow the rehabilitation plan prescribed by the allied health professional responsible for this aspect of the client’s care (e.g., the physiotherapist).

Question 39

T/F: Type 1 diabetes, which affects approximately 95% of people with the disease, is characterized by insulin resistance and impaired insulin secretion.

Answer 39

FALSE

Type 2

Question 40

T/F: When mixing short-acting and longer-acting insulin, the ADA recommended procedure is that the regular insulin be drawn up first.

Answer 40

TRUE

Question 41

The three main clinical features of diabetic ketoacidosis are hyperglycemia, dehydration with electrolyte loss, and _______________.

Answer 41

acidosis

Question 42

T/F: Latent autoimmune diabetes of adults (LADA) is a subtype of diabetes in which progression of autoimmune beta cell destruction in the pancreas is slower than in types 1 and 2 diabetes.

Answer 42

TRUE

Question 43

Classic clinical manifestations of diabetes include polyuria, polydipsia, and __________________.

Answer 43

polyphagia (Excessive eating from excess hunger or increased appetite.)

Question 44

T/F: Regular insulin is a rapidly acting insulin that has a duration of 4 to 6 hours.

Answer 44

FALSE- it is a short acting insulin

Question 45

T/F: Proliferative retinopathy, a diabetic microvascular disease, represents the greatest threat to vision; it is characterized by the proliferation of new blood vessels growing from the retina into the vitreous.

Answer 45

True

Question 46

The main goal of diabetes treatment is to normalize insulin activity and blood glucose levels to reduce the development of vascular and _______________ complications.

Answer 46

neuropathic

Question 47

The American Dietetic Association recommends that for all levels of caloric intake, the percentage of calories from carbohydrates should not exceed _________%.

Answer 47

60%

Question 48

The __________ phenomenon is an example of morning hyperglycemia that is characterized by a relatively normal blood glucose level until approximately 3:00 AM when blood glucose levels begin to rise.

Answer 48

Dawn

Question 49

___________ disease, an autoimmune disorder, is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism.

Answer 49

Graves

Question 50

T/F: Thyroidectomy is the treatment of choice for thyroid cancer.

Answer 50

True

Question 51

T/F: The major function of the parathyroid hormone is the regulation of serum calcium.

Answer 51

TRUE

Question 52

The major action of the ____________ is controlling the release of pituitary hormones

Answer 52

hypothalamus

Question 53

T/F: Iodine is essential to the thyroid gland for the synthesis of its hormones.

Answer 53

TRUE

Question 54

T/F: Acute hypercalcemic crisis occurs with extreme elevation of serum calcium levels and can be life threatening.

Answer 54

True

Question 55

Following thyroid surgery, the patient should be monitored closely for signs of ______, an indicator of a disturbance in calcium metabolism due to injury or removal of the parathyroid gland.

Answer 55

tetany

Question 56

Oversecretion of the anterior pituitary gland most commonly involves ACTH or growth hormone and results in ____________ syndrome or acromegaly.

Answer 56

cushings

Question 57

T/F: Extreme fatigue, hair loss, brittle nails, and dry skin are common clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism.

Answer 57

FALSE- those are signs of HYPOthyroid

Question 58

____________ disease occurs when the adrenal cortex function is inadequate to meet the patient’s need for cortical hormones.

Answer 58

Addison

Question 59

What is the only insulin that can be given intravenously?

Answer 59

Regular
Explanation:
Insulins other than regular are in suspensions that could be harmful if administered IV.

Question 60

A client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes has an unusual increase in blood glucose from bedtime to morning. The physician suspects the client is experiencing insulin waning. Based on this diagnosis, the nurse expects which change to the client’s medication regimen?

Answer 60

Administering a dose of intermediate-acting insulin before the evening meal
Explanation:
Insulin waning is a progressive rise in blood glucose form bedtime to morning. Treatment includes increasing the evening (before dinner or bedtime) dose of intermediate-acting or long-acting insulin or instituting a dose of insulin before the evening meal if that is not already part of the treatment regimen.

Question 61

A nurse expects to find which signs and symptoms in a client experiencing hypoglycemia?

Answer 61

Nervousness, diaphoresis, and confusion
Explanation:
Signs and symptoms associated with hypoglycemia include nervousness, diaphoresis, weakness, light-headedness, confusion, paresthesia, irritability, headache, hunger, tachycardia, and changes in speech, hearing, or vision. If untreated, signs and symptoms may progress to unconsciousness, seizures, coma, and death. Polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia are symptoms associated with hyperglycemia.

Question 62

A client tells the nurse that she has been working hard for the past 3 months to control her type 2 diabetes with diet and exercise. To determine the effectiveness of the client’s efforts, the nurse should check:

Answer 62

glycosylated hemoglobin level.
Explanation:
Because some of the glucose in the bloodstream attaches to some of the hemoglobin and stays attached during the 120-day life span of red blood cells, glycosylated hemoglobin levels provide information about blood glucose levels during the previous 3 months. Fasting blood glucose and urine glucose levels give information only about glucose levels at the point in time when they were obtained. Serum fructosamine levels provide information about blood glucose control over the past 2 to 3 weeks.

Question 63

Which statement indicates that a client with diabetes mellitus understands proper foot care?

Answer 63

“I’ll wear cotton socks with well-fitting shoes.”
Explanation:
The client demonstrates understanding of proper foot care if he states that he’ll wear cotton socks with well-fitting shoes because cotton socks wick moisture away from the skin, helping to prevent fungal infections, and well-fitting shoes help avoid pressure areas. Aching isn’t a common sign of foot problems; however, a tingling sensation in the feet indicates neurovascular changes. Injecting insulin into the foot may lead to infection. The client shouldn’t go barefoot. Doing so can cause injury.

Question 64

An agitated, confused client arrives in the emergency department. The client’s history includes type 1 diabetes, hypertension, and angina pectoris. Assessment reveals pallor, diaphoresis, headache, and intense hunger. A stat blood glucose sample measures 42 mg/dl, and the client is treated for an acute hypoglycemic reaction. After recovery, the nurse teaches the client to treat hypoglycemia by ingesting:

Answer 64

10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate.
Explanation:
To reverse hypoglycemia, the American Diabetes Association recommends ingesting 10 to 15 g of a simple carbohydrate, such as three to five pieces of hard candy, two to three packets of sugar (4 to 6 tsp), or 4 oz of fruit juice. Then the client should check his blood glucose after 15 minutes. If necessary, this treatment may be repeated in 15 minutes. Ingesting only 2 to 5 g of a simple carbohydrate may not raise the blood glucose level sufficiently. Ingesting more than 15 g may raise it above normal, causing hyperglycemia.

Question 65

Which type of insulin acts most quickly?

Answer 65

Lispro
Explanation:
The onset of action of rapid-acting lispro is within 10 to 15 minutes. The onset of action of short-acting regular insulin is 30 minutes to 1 hour. The onset of action of intermediate-acting NPH insulin is 3 to 4 hours. The onset of action of very long-acting glargine is ~6 hours.

Question 66

The nurse is explaining glycosylated hemoglobin testing to a diabetic client. Which of the following provides the best reason for this order?

Answer 66

Reflects the amount of glucose stored in hemoglobin over past several months.
Explanation:
Hemoglobin A1c tests reflect the amount of glucose that is stored in the hemoglobin molecule during its life span of 120 days. This test provides a more accurate picture of overall glucose control in a client. Glycosylated hemoglobin test does not indicate normal blood functioning or nutritional state of the client. Self-monitoring with a glucometer is still encouraged in clients who are taking insulin or have unstable blood glucose levels.

Question 67

A client with type 1 diabetes presents with a decreased level of consciousness and a fingerstick glucose level of 39 mg/dl. His family reports that he has been skipping meals in an effort to lose weight. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

Answer 67

Administering 1 ampule of 50% dextrose solution, per physician’s order
Explanation:
The nurse should administer 50% dextrose solution to restore the client’s physiological integrity. Feeding through a feeding tube isn’t appropriate for this client. A bolus of normal saline solution doesn’t provide the client with the much-needed glucose. Observing the client for 1 hour delays treatment. The client’s blood glucose level could drop further during this time, placing him at risk for irreversible brain damage.

Question 68

A client with diabetes is receiving an oral antidiabetic agent that acts to help the tissues use available insulin more efficiently. Which of the following agents would the nurse expect to administer?

Answer 68

Metformin
Explanation:
Metformin is a biguanide and along with the thiazolidinediones (rosiglitazone and pioglitazone) are categorized as insulin sensitizers; they help tissues use available insulin more efficiently. Glyburide and glipizide which are sulfonylureas, and repaglinide, a meglitinide, are described as being insulin releasers because they stimulate the pancreas to secrete more insulin.

Question 69

A client is admitted with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). Which laboratory finding should the nurse expect in this client?

Answer 69

Blood glucose level 1,100 mg/dl
Explanation:
HHNS occurs most frequently in older clients. It can occur in clients with either type 1 or type 2 diabetes mellitus but occurs most commonly in those with type 2. The blood glucose level rises to above 600 mg/dl in response to illness or infection. As the blood glucose level rises, the body attempts to rid itself of the excess glucose by producing urine. Initially, the client produces large quantities of urine. If fluid intake isn’t increased at this time, the client becomes dehydrated, causing BUN levels to rise. Arterial pH and plasma bicarbonate levels typically remain within normal limits.

Question 70

A client with diabetes mellitus has a prescription for 5 units of U-100 regular insulin and 25 units of U-100 isophane insulin suspension (NPH) to be taken before breakfast. At about 4:30 p.m., the client experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. What is the most probable cause of these signs and symptoms?

Answer 70

Serum glucose level of 52 mg/dl
Explanation:
Headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness typically result from hypoglycemia, an insulin reaction in which serum glucose level drops below 70 mg/dl. Hypoglycemia may occur 4 to 18 hours after administration of isophane insulin suspension or insulin zinc suspension (Lente), which are intermediate-acting insulins. Although hypoglycemia may occur at any time, it usually precedes meals. Hyperglycemia, in which serum glucose level is above 180 mg/dl, causes such early manifestations as fatigue, malaise, drowsiness, polyuria, and polydipsia. A serum calcium level of 8.9 mg/dl or 10.2 mg/dl is within normal range and wouldn’t cause the client’s symptoms.

Question 71

After being sick for 3 days, a client with a history of diabetes mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should evaluate which diagnostic test results to prevent dysrhythmias?

Answer 71

Serum potassium level
Explanation:
The nurse should monitor the client’s potassium level because during periods of acidosis, potassium leaves the cell, causing hyperkalemia. As blood glucose levels normalize with treatment, potassium reenters the cell, causing hypokalemia if levels aren’t monitored closely. Hypokalemia places the client at risk for cardiac arrhythmias such as ventricular tachycardia. DKA has a lesser affect on serum calcium, sodium, and chloride levels. Changes in these levels don’t typically cause cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 72

A 16-year-old client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes has a very low body weight despite eating regular meals. The client is upset because friends frequently state, “You look anorexic.” Which statement by the nurse would be the best response to help this client understand the cause of weight loss due to this condition?

Answer 72

“Your body is using protein and fat for energy instead of glucose.”
Explanation:
Persons with type 1 diabetes, particularly those in poor control of the condition, tend to be thin because when the body cannot effectively utilize glucose for energy (no insulin supply), it begins to break down protein and fat as an alternate energy source. Patients may be underweight at the onset of type 1 diabetes because of rapid weight loss from severe hyperglycemia. The goal initially may be to provide a higher-calorie diet to regain lost weight and blood glucose control.

Question 73

A nurse explains to a client that she will administer his first insulin dose in his abdomen. How does absorption at the abdominal site compare with absorption at other sites?

Answer 73

Insulin is absorbed more rapidly at abdominal injection sites than at other sites.
Explanation:
Subcutaneous insulin is absorbed most rapidly at abdominal injection sites, more slowly at sites on the arms, and slowest at sites on the anterior thigh. Absorption after injection in the buttocks is less predictable.

Question 74

The nurse is administering lispro insulin. Based on the onset of action, how long before breakfast should the nurse administer the injection?

Answer 74

10 to 15 minutes
Explanation:
The onset of action of rapid-acting lispro insulin is within 10 to 15 minutes. It is used to rapidly reduce the glucose level.

Question 75

A patient who is 6 months’ pregnant was evaluated for gestational diabetes mellitus. The doctor considered prescribing insulin based on the serum glucose result of:

Answer 75

138 mg/dL, 2 hours postprandial.
Explanation:
The goals for a 2-hour, postprandial blood glucose level are less than 120 mg/dL in a patient who might develop gestational diabetes.

Question 76

Insulin is secreted by which of the following types of cells?

Answer 76

Beta cells
Explanation:
Insulin is secreted by the beta cells, in the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas. In diabetes, cells may stop responding to insulin, or the pancreas may decrease insulin secretion or stop insulin production completely. Melanocytes are what give the skin its pigment. Neural cells transmit impulses in the brain and spinal cord. Basal cells are a type of skin cell.

Question 77

Exercise lowers blood glucose levels. Which of the following are the physiologic reasons that explain this statement. Select all that apply.
Increases lean muscle mass
Increases resting metabolic rate as muscle size increases
Decreases the levels of high-density lipoproteins
Decreases total cholesterol
Increases glucose uptake by body muscles

Answer 77

Increases lean muscle mass
Increases resting metabolic rate as muscle size increases
Decreases total cholesterol
Increases glucose uptake by body muscles

Question 78

The client with diabetes asks the nurse why shoes and socks are removed at each office visit. The nurse gives which assessment finding as the explanation for the inspection of feet?

Answer 78

Sensory neuropathy
Explanation:
Neuropathy results from poor glucose control and decreased circulation to nerve tissues. Neuropathy involving sensory nerves located in the periphery can lead to lack of sensitivity, which increases the potential for soft tissue injury without client awareness. The client’s feet are inspected on each visit to ensure no injury or pressure has occurred. Autonomic neuropathy, retinopathy, and nephropathy affect nerves to organs other than feet.

Question 79

A young adult client with type 1 diabetes does not want to have to self-administer insulin injections several times a day. Which medication approach would the nurse recommend that best controls the condition and meets the client’s needs?

Answer 79

Insulin pump

Explanation:
The insulin pump most closely mimics regular pancreas function and increases meal and exercise flexibility. The use of the pump would meet the client’s needs of not wanting to self-administer several injections of insulin every day. With one injection per day, there is difficulty controlling fasting blood glucose if the type of insulin does not last. The client could also develop afternoon hypoglycemia if the single dose is increased in order to control the morning fasting glucose level. Two injections per day might meet the client’s needs of minimal self-injections; however, for this regimen, there needs to be a fixed schedule of meals and exercise and it is difficult to adjust the dose if premixed insulin is used. Self-administering insulin before each meal will not meet the client’s needs since this requires more injections than any other regimen.

Question 80

Which clinical characteristic is associated with type 2 diabetes (previously referred to as non-insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus)?

Answer 80

Blood glucose can be controlled through diet and exercise
Explanation:
Oral hypoglycemic agents may improve blood glucose concentrations if dietary modification and exercise are unsuccessful. Individuals with type 2 diabetes are usually obese at diagnosis. Individuals with type 2 diabetes rarely demonstrate ketosis, except with stress or infection. Individuals with type 2 diabetes do not demonstrate islet cell antibodies.

Question 81

A nurse is preparing to administer insulin to a child who’s just been diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. When the child’s mother stops the nurse in the hall, she’s crying and anxious to talk about her son’s condition. The nurse’s best response is:

Answer 81

“I’m going to give your son some insulin. Then I’ll be happy to talk with you.”
Explanation:
Attending to the mother’s needs is a critical part of caring for a sick child. In this case however, administering insulin in a prompt manner supersedes the mother’s needs. By informing the mother that she’s going to administer the insulin and will then make time to talk with her, the nurse recognizes the mother’s needs as legitimate. She provides a reasonable response while attending to the priority of administering insulin as soon as possible. Telling the mother that she can’t talk with her or telling her to wait for the physician could increase the mother’s fear and anxiety. The nurse shouldn’t tell the mother that everything will be fine; the nurse doesn’t know that everything will be fine.

Question 82

Which instruction about insulin administration should a nurse give to a client?

Answer 82

“Always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe.”
Explanation:
The nurse should instruct the client to always follow the same order when drawing the different insulins into the syringe. Insulin should never be shaken because the resulting froth prevents withdrawal of an accurate dose and may damage the insulin protein molecules. Insulin should never be frozen because the insulin protein molecules may be damaged. The client doesn’t need to discard intermediate-acting insulin if it’s cloudy; this finding is normal.

Question 83

A client is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which assessment finding best supports a nursing diagnosis of Ineffective coping related to diabetes mellitus?

Answer 83

Crying whenever diabetes is mentioned
Explanation:
A client who cries whenever diabetes is mentioned is demonstrating ineffective coping. A recent weight gain and failure to monitor blood glucose levels would support a nursing diagnosis of Noncompliance: Failure to adhere to therapeutic regimen. Skipping insulin doses during illness would support a nursing diagnosis of Deficient knowledge related to treatment of diabetes mellitus.

Question 84

When referred to a podiatrist, a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus asks, “Why do you need to check my feet when I’m having a problem with my blood sugar?” The nurse’s most helpful response to this statement is:

Answer 84

“Diabetes can affect sensation in your feet and you can hurt yourself without realizing it.”
Explanation:
The nurse should make the client aware that diabetes affects sensation in the feet and that he might hurt his foot but not feel the wound. Although it’s important that the client’s shoes fit properly, this isn’t the only reason the client’s feet need to be checked. Telling the client that diabetes mellitus increases the risk of infection or stating that the circulation in the client’s feet indicates the severity of his diabetes doesn’t provide the client with complete information.

Question 85

The nurse is describing the action of insulin in the body to a client newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following would the nurse explain as being the primary action?

Answer 85

It enhances the transport of glucose across the cell membrane.
Explanation:
Insulin carries glucose into body cells as their preferred source of energy. Besides, it promotes the liver’s storage of glucose as glycogen and inhibits the breakdown of glycogen back into glucose. Insulin does not aid in gluconeogenesis but inhibits the breakdown of glycogen back into glucose.

Question 86

A patient has been newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes, and the nurse is assisting with the development of a meal plan. What step should be taken into consideration prior to making the meal plan?

Answer 86

Reviewing the patient’s diet history to identify eating habits and lifestyle and cultural eating patterns
Explanation:
The first step in preparing a meal plan is a thorough review of the patient’s diet history to identify eating habits and lifestyle and cultural eating patterns.

Question 87

An older adult patient that has type 2 diabetes comes to the emergency department with second-degree burns to the bottom of both feet and states, “I didn’t feel too hot but my feet must have been too close to the heater.” What does the nurse understand is most likely the reason for the decrease in temperature sensation?

Answer 87

Peripheral neuropathy
Explanation:
As the neuropathy progresses, the feet become numb. In addition, a decrease in proprioception (awareness of posture and movement of the body and of position and weight of objects in relation to the body) and a decreased sensation of light touch may lead to an unsteady gait. Decreased sensations of pain and temperature place patients with neuropathy at increased risk for injury and undetected foot infections.

Question 88

A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding suggests that the client has developed hyperglycemia?

Answer 88

Increased urine output
Explanation:
Glucose supplies most of the calories in TPN; if the glucose infusion rate exceeds the client’s rate of glucose metabolism, hyperglycemia arises. When the renal threshold for glucose reabsorption is exceeded, osmotic diuresis occurs, causing an increased urine output. A decreased appetite and diaphoresis suggest hypoglycemia, not hyperglycemia. Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by a period of apnea lasting 10 to 60 seconds, followed by gradually increasing depth and frequency of respirations. Cheyne-Stokes respirations typically occur with cerebral depression or heart failure.

Question 89

A client with diabetes is receiving an oral antidiabetic agent that acts to help the tissues use available insulin more efficiently. Which of the following agents would the nurse expect to administer?

Answer 89

Metformin
Explanation:
Metformin is a biguanide and along with the thiazolidinediones (rosiglitazone and pioglitazone) are categorized as insulin sensitizers; they help tissues use available insulin more efficiently. Glyburide and glipizide which are sulfonylureas, and repaglinide, a meglitinide, are described as being insulin releasers because they stimulate the pancreas to secrete more insulin.

Question 90

The client who is managing diabetes through diet and insulin control asks the nurse why exercise is important. Which is the best response by the nurse to support adding exercise to the daily routine?

Answer 90

Increases ability for glucose to get into the cell and lowers blood sugar
Explanation:
Exercise increases trans membrane glucose transporter levels in the skeletal muscles. This allows the glucose to leave the blood and enter into the cells where it can be used as fuel. Exercise can provide an overall feeling of well-being but is not the primary purpose of including in the daily routine of diabetic clients. Exercise does not stimulate the pancreas to produce more cells. Exercise can promote weight loss and decrease risk of insulin resistance but not the primary reason for adding to daily routine.

Question 91

The nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of insulin and about mixing regular and neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin. Which information is important to include in the teaching plan?

Answer 91

When mixing insulin, the regular insulin is drawn up into the syringe first.
Explanation:
When rapid-acting or short-acting insulins are to be given simultaneously with longer-acting insulins, they are usually mixed together in the same syringe; the longer-acting insulins must be mixed thoroughly before being drawn into the syringe. The American Diabetic Association recommends that the regular insulin be drawn up first. The most important issues are that patients (1) are consistent in technique, so the wrong dose is not drawn in error or the wrong type of insulin, and (2) do not inject one type of insulin into the bottle containing a different type of insulin. Injecting cloudy insulin into a vial of clear insulin contaminates the entire vial of clear insulin and alters its action.

Question 92

A client has type 1 diabetes. Her husband finds her unconscious at home and administers glucagon, 0.5 mg subcutaneously. She awakens in 5 minutes. Why should her husband offer her a complex carbohydrate snack as soon as possible?

Answer 92

To restore liver glycogen and prevent secondary hypoglycemia
Explanation:
A client with type 1 diabetes who requires glucagon should be given a complex carbohydrate snack as soon as possible to restore the liver glycogen and prevent secondary hypoglycemia. A complex carbohydrate snack doesn’t decrease the possibility of nausea and vomiting or stimulate the appetite, and it increases the amount of glycogen in the system.

Question 93

The nurse is assessing a patient with nonproliferative (background) retinopathy. When examining the retina, what would the nurse expect to assess? Select all that apply.
 Leakage of fluid or serum (exudates)
  Microaneurysms
  Focal capillary single closure
  Detachment
  Blurred optic discs

Answer 93

Leakage of fluid or serum (exudates)
Microaneurysms
Focal capillary single closure
Almost all patients with type 1 diabetes and the majority of patients with type 2 diabetes have some degree of retinopathy after 20 years (ADA, 2013). Changes in the microvasculature include microaneurysms, intraretinal hemorrhage, hard exudates, and focal capillary closure.

Question 94

Which intervention is essential when performing dressing changes on a client with a diabetic foot ulcer?

Answer 94

Using sterile technique during the dressing change
Explanation:
The nurse should perform the dressing changes using sterile technique to prevent infection. Applying heat should be avoided in a client with diabetes mellitus because of the risk of injury. Cleaning the wound with povidone-iodine solution and debriding the wound with each dressing change prevents the development of granulation tissue, which is essential in the wound healing process.

Question 95

A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is conscious. The nurse should first administer:

Answer 95

15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate such as orange juice.
Explanation:
This client is experiencing hypoglycemia. Because the client is conscious, the nurse should first administer a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice, hard candy, or honey. If the client has lost consciousness, the nurse should administer I.M. or subcutaneous glucagon or an I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%. The nurse shouldn’t administer insulin to a client who’s hypoglycemic; this action will further compromise the client’s condition.

Question 96

A nurse is caring for a client with type 1 diabetes who exhibits confusion, light-headedness, and aberrant behavior. The client is conscious. The nurse should first administer:

Answer 96

15 to 20 g of a fast-acting carbohydrate such as orange juice.
Explanation:
This client is experiencing hypoglycemia. Because the client is conscious, the nurse should first administer a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as orange juice, hard candy, or honey. If the client has lost consciousness, the nurse should administer I.M. or subcutaneous glucagon or an I.V. bolus of dextrose 50%. The nurse shouldn’t administer insulin to a client who’s hypoglycemic; this action will further compromise the client’s condition.

Question 97

During a follow-up visit 3 months after a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes, a client reports exercising and following a reduced-calorie diet. Assessment reveals that the client has only lost 1 pound and did not bring the glucose-monitoring record. Which value should the nurse measure?

Answer 97

Glycosylated hemoglobin level
Explanation:
Glycosylated hemoglobin is a blood test that reflects the average blood glucose concentration over a period of approximately 2 to 3 months. When blood glucose is elevated, glucose molecules attach to hemoglobin in red blood cells. The longer the amount of glucose in the blood remains above normal, the more glucose binds to hemoglobin and the higher the glycosylated hemoglobin level becomes.

Question 98

A client with diabetes mellitus has a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL. Which rapidly absorbed carbohydrate would be most effective?

Answer 98

1/2 cup fruit juice or regular soft drink
Explanation:
In a client with hypoglycemia, the nurse uses the rule of 15: give 15 g of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate, wait 15 minutes, recheck the blood sugar, and administer another 15 g of glucose if the blood sugar is not above 70 mg/dL. One-half cup fruit juice or regular soft drink is equivalent to the recommended 15 g of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate. Eight ounces of skim milk is equivalent to the recommended 15 g of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate. One tablespoon of honey or syrup is equivalent to the recommended 15 g of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate. Six to eight LifeSavers candies is equivalent to the recommended 15 g of rapidly absorbed carbohydrate.

Question 99

A client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus asks why he needs ketone testing when the disease affects his blood glucose levels. How should the nurse respond?

Answer 99

“Ketones will tell us if your body is using other tissues for energy.”
Explanation:
The nurse should tell the client that ketones are a byproduct of fat metabolism and that ketone testing can determine whether the body is breaking down fat to use for energy. The spleen doesn’t release ketones when the body can’t use glucose. Although ketones can damage the eyes and kidneys and help the physician evaluate the severity of a client’s diabetes, these responses by the nurse are incomplete.

Question 100

A nurse has been caring for a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The client is overwhelmed by what he’s facing and not sure he can handle giving himself insulin. This client has been discharged and the charge nurse is insisting the nurse hurry because she needs the space for clients being admitted. How should the nurse handle the situation?

Answer 100

Ask the physician to delay the discharge because the client requires further teaching.
Explanation:
The nurse’s primary concern should be the safety of the client after discharge. She should provide succinct information to the physician concerning the client’s needs, express her concern about ensuring the client’s safety, and ask the physician to delay the client’s discharge. The nurse shouldn’t suggest that the client rely on a friend or family member because she doesn’t know if a friend or family member will be available to help. Refusing to rush and telling the charge nurse she isn’t sure the client will be safe demonstrate appropriate intentions, but these actions don’t alleviate the pressure to discharge the client. Asking a physician to refer the client to a diabetic nurse-educator addresses the client’s needs, but isn’t the best response because there’s no guarantee a diabetic nurse-educator will be available on such short notice.

Question 101

What is the duration of regular insulin?

Answer 101

4 to 6 hours
Explanation:
The duration of regular insulin is 4 to 6 hours; 3 to 5 hours is the duration for rapid-acting insulin such as Novolog. The duration of NPH insulin is 12 to 16 hours. The duration of Lantus insulin is 24 hours.

Question 102

Which of the following factors would a nurse identify as a most likely cause of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) in a client with diabetes?

Answer 102

The client has eaten and has not taken or received insulin.
Explanation:
If the client has eaten and has not taken or received insulin, DKA is more likely to develop. Hypoglycemia is more likely to develop if the client has not consumed food and continues to take insulin or oral antidiabetic medications, if the client has not consumed sufficient calories, or if client has been exercising more than usual.

Question 103

After taking glipizide (Glucotrol) for 9 months, a client experiences secondary failure. What should the nurse expect the physician to do?

Answer 103

Switch the client to a different oral antidiabetic agent.
Explanation:
The nurse should anticipate that the physician will order a different oral antidiabetic agent. Many clients (25% to 60%) who take glipizide respond to a different oral antidiabetic agent. Therefore, it wouldn’t be appropriate to initiate insulin therapy at this time. However, if a new oral antidiabetic agent is unsuccessful in keeping glucose levels at an acceptable level, insulin may be used in addition to the antidiabetic agent. Restricting carbohydrate intake isn’t necessary.

Question 104

A patient who is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes would be expected to:

Answer 104

Need exogenous insulin.
Explanation:
Type 1 diabetes is characterized by the destruction of pancreatic beta cells that require exogenous insulin.

Question 105

When administering insulin to a client with type 1 diabetes, which of the following would be most important for the nurse to keep in mind?

Answer 105

Accuracy of the dosage
Explanation:
The measurement of insulin is most important and must be accurate because clients may be sensitive to minute dose changes. The duration, area, and technique for injecting should also to be noted.

Question 106

A client with diabetes is asking the nurse what causes diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following is a correct statement by the nurse?

Answer 106

“DKA can be caused by taking too little insulin.”
Explanation:
Three main causes of DKA are decreased or missed dose of insulin, illness or infection, and undiagnosed and untreated diabetes. DKA may be the initial manifestation of type 1 diabetes. For prevention of DKA related to illness, the client should attempt to consume frequent small portions of carbohydrates. Drinking fluid every hour is important to prevent dehydration. Blood glucose and urine ketones must be assessed every 3 to 4 hours, and the client should take the usual dose of insulin.

Question 107

An older adult patient is in the hospital being treated for sepsis related to a urinary tract infection. The patient has started to have an altered sense of awareness, profound dehydration, and hypotension. What does the nurse suspect the patient is experiencing?

Answer 107

Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome
Explanation:
Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS) occurs most often in older people (50 to 70 years of age) who have no known history of diabetes or who have type 2 diabetes (Reynolds, 2012). The clinical picture of HHS is one of hypotension, profound dehydration (dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor), tachycardia, and variable neurologic signs (e.g., alteration of consciousness, seizures, hemiparesis).

Question 108

A nurse is preparing to administer two types of insulin to a client with diabetes mellitus. What is the correct procedure for preparing this medication?

Answer 108

The short-acting insulin is withdrawn before the intermediate-acting insulin.
Explanation:
When combining two types of insulin in the same syringe, the short-acting regular insulin is withdrawn into the syringe first and the intermediate-acting insulin is added next. This practice is referred to as “clear to cloudy.”

Question 109

Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in a client with severe hyperthyroidism?

Answer 109

Exophthalmos
Explanation:
Exophthalmos that results from enlarged muscle and fatty tissue surrounding the rear and sides of the eyeball is seen in clients with severe hyperthyroidism. Tetany is the symptom of acute and sudden hypoparathyroidism. Buffalo hump and striae are the symptoms of Cushing’s syndrome.

Question 110

A client presents with a huge lower jaw, bulging forehead, large hands and feet, and frequent headaches. What could be causing this client’s symptoms?

Answer 110

hyperpituitarism
Explanation:
Acromegaly (hyperpituitarism) is a condition in which growth hormone is oversecreted after the epiphyses of the long bones have sealed. A client with acromegaly has coarse features, a huge lower jaw, thick lips, a thickened tongue, a bulging forehead, a bulbous nose, and large hands and feet. When the overgrowth is from a tumor, headaches caused by pressure on the sella turcica are common.

Question 111

A client is scheduled for a diagnostic test to measure blood hormone levels. The nurse expects that this test will determine which of the following?

Answer 111

The functioning of endocrine glands
Explanation:
Measuring blood hormone levels helps determine the functioning of endocrine glands. A radioimmunoassay determines the concentration of a substance in plasma. The measurement of blood hormone levels will not reveal a client’s blood sugar level. Radiographs of the chest or abdomen determine the size of the organ and its location.

Question 112

The primary function of the thyroid gland includes which of the following?

Answer 112

Control of cellular metabolic activity
Explanation:
The primary function of the thyroid hormone is to control cellular metabolic activity. Oxytocin facilitates milk ejection during lactation and increases the force of uterine contraction during labor and delivery. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release results in reabsorption of water into the bloodstream rather than excretion by the kidneys. Calcitonin reduces the plasma level of calcium by increasing its deposition in bone.

Question 113

A client with hypothyroidism is afraid of needles and doesn’t want to have his blood drawn. What should the nurse say to help alleviate his concerns?

Answer 113

“I’ll stay here with you while the technician draws your blood.”
Explanation:
The nurse should tell the client that she will stay with him as the blood is drawn. This response provides the client with the reassuring presence of the nurse and enhances the therapeutic alliance, possibly providing a greater opportunity to educate the client. Although telling the client that blood won’t need to be drawn as often when thyroid levels are stable provides the client with a rationale for needing blood work, it’s more appropriate for the nurse to stay with the client. Saying that the procedure will be over quickly or that the physician has ordered the blood draw ignores the client’s stated fear.

Question 114

During an assessment of a client’s functional health pattern, which question by the nurse directly addresses the client’s thyroid function?

Answer 114

“Do you experience fatigue even if you have slept a long time?”
Explanation:
With the diagnosis of hypothyroidism, extreme fatigue makes it difficult for the person to complete a full day’s work or participate in usual activities.

Question 115

A nursing student asks the instructor why the pituitary gland is called the “master gland.” What is the best response by the instructor?

Answer 115

“It regulates the function of other endocrine glands.”
Explanation:
The pituitary gland is called the master gland because it regulates the function of other endocrine glands. The term is somewhat misleading, however, because the hypothalamus influences the pituitary gland. The gland has many other hormones that it secretes.

Question 116

Which intervention is the most critical for a client with myxedema coma?

Answer 116

Maintaining a patent airway
Explanation:
Because respirations are depressed in myxedema coma, maintaining a patent airway is the most critical nursing intervention. Ventilatory support is usually needed. Although myxedema coma is associated with severe hypothermia, a warming blanket shouldn’t be used because it may cause vasodilation and shock. Gradual warming with blankets is appropriate. Thyroid replacement is administered I.V., not orally. Although recording intake and output is important, these interventions aren’t critical at this time.

Question 117

A client is admitted for treatment of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which nursing intervention is appropriate?

Answer 117

Restricting fluids
Explanation:
To reduce water retention in a client with the SIADH, the nurse should restrict fluids. Administering fluids by any route would further increase the client’s already heightened fluid load.

Question 118

When preparing teaching plan for a client with an endocrine disorder, the nurse includes information about hormone regulation. Which of the following would the nurse include?

Answer 118

Most disorders result from over- or underproduction of the hormone.
Explanation:
Most endocrine disorders result from an overproduction or underproduction of specific hormones. A negative feedback loop controls hormone levels, such that a decrease in levels stimulates the releasing gland. Glandular enlargement is not involved with hormonal regulation.

Question 119

The nurse obtains a complete family history of a client with a suspected endocrine disorder based on which rationale?

Answer 119

Endocrine disorders can be inherited.
Explanation:
Some endocrine disorders are inherited or have a tendency to run in families. Therefore, it is essential to take a complete family history. A complete blood count and chemistry profile are performed to determine the client’s general status and to rule out disorders. Obtaining information about an allergy to iodine is important because diagnostic testing may involve the use of contrast dyes. However, an allergy to iodine is not related to endocrine disorders. Diet and drug histories, although important information, are not associated with the family history.

Question 120

A nurse explains to a client with thyroid disease that the thyroid gland normally produces:

Answer 120

T3, thyroxine (T4), and calcitonin.
Explanation:
The thyroid gland normally produces thyroid hormone (T3 and T4) and calcitonin. The pituitary gland produces TSH to regulate the thyroid gland. The hypothalamus gland produces TRH to regulate the pituitary gland.

Question 121

A client with a history of Addison’s disease and flu-like symptoms accompanied by nausea and vomiting over the past week is brought to the facility. His wife reports that he acted confused and was extremely weak when he awoke that morning. The client’s blood pressure is 90/58 mm Hg, his pulse is 116 beats/minute, and his temperature is 101° F (38.3° C). A diagnosis of acute adrenal insufficiency is made. What should the nurse expect to administer by IV infusion?

Answer 121

Hydrocortisone
Explanation:
Emergency treatment for acute adrenal insufficiency (addisonian crisis) is IV infusion of hydrocortisone and saline solution. The client is usually given a dose containing hydrocortisone 100 mg I.V. in normal saline every 6 hours until blood pressure returns to normal. Insulin isn’t indicated in this situation because adrenal insufficiency is usually associated with hypoglycemia. Potassium isn’t indicated because these clients are usually hyperkalemic. The client needs normal — not hypotonic — saline solution.

Question 122

A female client with hyperglycemia who weighs 210 lb (95 kg) tells the nurse that her husband sleeps in another room because her snoring keeps him awake. The nurse notices that the client has large hands and a hoarse voice. Which disorder would the nurse suspect as a possible cause of the client’s hyperglycemia?

Answer 122

Acromegaly
Explanation:
Acromegaly, which is caused by a pituitary tumor that releases excessive growth hormone, is associated with hyperglycemia, hypertension, diaphoresis, peripheral neuropathy, and joint pain. Enlarged hands and feet are related to lateral bone growth, which is seen in adults with this disorder. The accompanying soft tissue swelling causes hoarseness and, commonly, sleep apnea. Type 1 diabetes is usually seen in children, and newly diagnosed persons are usually very ill and thin. Hypothyroidism and growth hormone deficiency aren’t associated with hyperglycemia.

Question 123

A nurse is reviewing the laboratory order for a client suspected of having an endocrine disorder. The lab slip includes obtaining cortisol levels. What is being tested?

Answer 123

adrenal function
Explanation:
The adrenal cortex manufactures and secretes glucocorticoids, such as cortisol, which affect body metabolism, suppress inflammation, and help the body withstand stress.

Question 124

The preferred preparation for treating hypothyroidism includes which of the following?

Answer 124

Levothyroxine (Synthroid)
Explanation:
Synthetic levothyroxine (Synthroid or Levothroid) is the preferred preparation for treating hypothyroidism and suppressing nontoxic goiters (enlargements of the thyroid gland). Radioactive iodine is the most common form of treatment for Graves’ disease in North America. Both PTU and Tapazole are used for hyperthyroidism.

Question 125

Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform to determine the development of peptic ulcers when caring for a patient with Cushing’s syndrome?

Answer 125

Observe the color of stool.
Explanation:
The nurse should observe the color of each stool and test the stool for occult blood. Bowel patterns, vital signs, and urine output do not help in determining the development of peptic ulcers.

Question 126

The nurse is caring for a client with hypoparathyroidism. When the nurse taps the client’s facial nerve, the client’s mouth twitches and the jaw tightens. What is this response documented as related to the low calcium levels?

Answer 126

Positive Chvostek’s sign
Explanation:
If a nurse taps the client’s facial nerve (which lies under the tissue in front of the ear), the client’s mouth twitches and the jaw tightens. The response is identified as a positive Chvostek’s sign. A positive Trousseau’s sign is elicited by placing a BP cuff on the upper arm, inflating it between the systolic and diastolic BP, and waiting 3 minutes. The nurse observes the client for spasm of the hand (carpopedal spasm), which is evidenced by the hand flexing inward. Positive Babinski’s sign is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot. Paresthesia is not a symptom that can be elicited; it is felt by the client.

Question 127

The nurse is evaluating a client’s neck for thyroid enlargement. Which action by the nurse is appropriate during the evaluation?

Answer 127

Palpate the thyroid gland gently.
Explanation:
The nurse should inspect the neck for thyroid enlargement and gently palpate the thyroid gland. Repeated palpation of the thyroid in case of thyroid hyperactivity can result in a sudden release of a large amount of thyroid hormones, which may have serious implications. Pigment changes in the neck and excessive oiliness of the skin are not related to assessment for thyroid enlargement.

Question 128

Which of the following hormones controls secretion of adrenal androgens?

Answer 128

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
  Explanation:
ACTH controls the secretion of adrenal androgens. When secreted in normal amounts, the adrenal androgens appear to have little effect, but when secreted in excess, as in certain inborn enzyme deficiencies, masculinization may result. The secretion of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland is controlled by TSH. Parathormone regulates calcium and phosphorous metabolism. Calcitonin reduces the plasma level of calcium by increasing its deposition in bone.

Question 129

A middle-aged female client complains of anxiety, insomnia, weight loss, the inability to concentrate, and eyes feeling “gritty.” Thyroid function tests reveal the following: thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.02 U/ml, thyroxine 20 g/dl, and triiodothyronine 253 ng/dl. A 6-hour radioactive iodine uptake test showed a diffuse uptake of 85%. Based on these assessment findings, the nurse should suspect:

Answer 129

Graves’ disease, an autoimmune disease causing hyperthyroidism, is most prevalent in middle-aged females. In Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, the most common form of hypothyroidism, TSH levels would be high and thyroid hormone levels low. In thyroiditis, radioactive iodine uptake is low (?2%), and a client with a multinodular goiter will show an uptake in the high-normal range (3% to 10%).

Question 130

Because there is no one cause for Graves’ disease, treatment is relegated to the management of symptoms, or in severe cases, surgery to remove the thyroid gland. Which is not a symptom of Graves’ disease?

Answer 130

constipation
Explanation:
Clients with Graves’ disease commonly experience diarrhea, increased appetite, weight loss, visual changes such as blurred or double vision, and fine tremors of the hands, causing unusual clumsiness.

Question 131

Trousseau’s sign is elicited by which of the following?

Answer 131

Carpopedal spasm is induced by occluding the blood flow to the arm for 3 minutes with the use of a blood pressure cuff.
Explanation:
A positive Trousseau’s sign is suggestive of latent tetany. A positive Chvostek’s sign is demonstrated when a sharp tapping over the facial nerve just in front of the parotid gland and anterior to the ear causes spasm or twitching of the mouth, nose, and eye. A positive Allen’s test is demonstrated by the palm remaining blanched with the radial artery occluded. A positive Homans’ sign is demonstrated when the patient complains of pain in the calf when his foot is dorsiflexed.

Question 132

The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes who developed hypoglycemia. What can the nurse administer to the client to raise the blood sugar level?

Answer 132

Glucagon
Explanation:
Glucagon, a hormone released by alpha islet cells, raises blood sugar levels by stimulating glycogenolysis, the breakdown of glycogen into glucose, in the liver. Insulin is released to lower the blood sugar levels. Cortisone and estrogen are not released from the pancreas.

Question 133

A client is being seen in the clinic to receive the results of the lab work to determine thyroid levels. The nurse observes the client’s eyes appear to be bulging, and there is swelling around the eyes. What does the nurse know that the correct documentation of this finding is?

Answer 133

Exophthalmos
Explanation:
Exophthalmos is an abnormal bulging or protrusion of the eyes and periorbital swelling. These findings are not consistent with retinal detachment.

Question 134

A client has a dysfunction in one of his glands that is causing a decrease in the level of calcium in the blood. What gland should be evaluated for dysfunction?

Answer 134

Parathyroid gland
Explanation:
The parathyroid glands secrete parathormone, which increases the level of calcium in the blood when there is a decrease in the serum level. The thyroid, thymus, and adrenal gland do not secrete calcium.

Question 135

The nurse is aware that the best time of day for the total large corticosteroid dose is between:

Answer 135

7:00 AM and 8:00 AM
Explanation:
The best time of day for the total large corticosteroid dose is in the early morning, between 7:00 AM and 8:00 AM, when the adrenal gland is most active. Therefore, dosage at this time of day will result in the maximum suppression of the adrenal gland.

Question 136

The nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find?

Answer 136

Reports of increased appetite
Explanation:
Signs and symptoms of hyperthyroidism reflect the increased metabolic rate and would include reports of increased appetite, weight loss, and intolerance to heat. Sleepiness, thick hard nails, and intolerance to cold are associated with hypothyroidism.

Question 137

After a thyroidectomy, the client develops a carpopedal spasm while the nurse is taking a BP reading on the left arm. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

Answer 137

Administer IV calcium gluconate as ordered.
Explanation:
When hypocalcemia and tetany occur after a thyroidectomy, the immediate treatment is administration of IV calcium gluconate. If this does not immediately decrease neuromuscular irritability and seizure activity, sedative agents such as pentobarbital may be administered.

Question 138

A nurse is instructing a client with newly diagnosed hypoparathyroidism about the regimen used to treat this disorder. The nurse should state that the physician probably will order daily supplements of calcium and:

Answer 138

ponse:
vitamin D.
Explanation:
Typically, clients with hypoparathyroidism are ordered daily supplements of vitamin D along with calcium because calcium absorption from the small intestine depends on vitamin D. Hypoparathyroidism doesn’t cause a deficiency of folic acid, potassium, or iron. Therefore, the client doesn’t require daily supplements of these substances to maintain a normal serum calcium level.

Question 139

Which of the following would the nurse need to be alert for in a client with severe hypothyroidism?

Answer 139

Myxedemic coma
Explanation:
Severe hypothyroidism is called myxedema and if untreated, it can progress to myxedemic coma, a life-threatening event. Thyroid storm is an acute, life-threatening form of hyperthyroidism. Addison’s disease refers to primary adrenal insufficiency. Acromegaly refers to an oversecretion of growth hormone by the pituitary gland during adulthood.

Question 140

A client with Cushing syndrome is admitted to the hospital. During the initial assessment, the client tells the nurse, “The worst thing about this disease is how awful I look. I want to cry every time I look in the mirror.” Which statements by the nurse is the best response?

Answer 140

“If treated successfully, the major physical changes will disappear with time.”
Explanation:
If treated successfully, the major physical changes associated with Cushing syndrome disappear with time. The client may benefit from discussion of the effect the changes have had on his or her self-concept and relationships with others. Weight gain and edema may be modified by a low-carbohydrate, low-sodium diet, and a high protein intake may reduce some of the other bothersome symptoms.

Question 141

A nurse is assessing a client after a thyroidectomy. The assessment reveals muscle twitching and tingling, along with numbness in the fingers, toes, and mouth area. The nurse should suspect which complication?

Answer 141

Tetany
Explanation:
Tetany may result if the parathyroid glands are excised or damaged during thyroid surgery. Hemorrhage is a potential complication after thyroid surgery but is characterized by tachycardia, hypotension, frequent swallowing, feelings of fullness at the incision site, choking, and bleeding. Thyroid storm is another term for severe hyperthyroidism — not a complication of thyroidectomy. Laryngeal nerve damage may occur postoperatively, but its signs include a hoarse voice and, possibly, acute airway obstruction.

Question 142

What interventions can the nurse encourage the client with diabetes insipidus to do in order to control thirst and compensate for urine loss?

Answer 142

Consume adequate amounts of fluid.
Explanation:
The nurse teaches the client to consume sufficient fluid to control thirst and to compensate for urine loss. The client will not be required to come in daily for IV fluid therapy. The client should not limit fluid intake at night if thirst is present. Weighing daily will not control thirst or compensate for urine loss.

Question 143

Early this morning, a client had a subtotal thyroidectomy. During evening rounds, the nurse assesses the client (who now has nausea) and records a temperature of 105°F (40.5°C), tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. What is the most likely cause of these signs?

Answer 143

Thyroid crisis
Explanation:
Thyroid crisis usually occurs in the first 12 hours after thyroidectomy and causes exaggerated signs of hyperthyroidism, such as high fever, tachycardia, and extreme restlessness. Diabetic ketoacidosis is more likely to produce polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. Hypoglycemia is likely to produce weakness, tremors, profuse perspiration, and hunger. Tetany typically causes uncontrollable muscle spasms, stridor, cyanosis, and possibly asphyxia.

Question 144

A client is suspected to have a pituitary tumor due to signs of diabetes insipidus. What initial test does the nurse help to prepare the client for?

Answer 144

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
Explanation:
A computed tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan is performed to detect a suspected pituitary tumor or to identify calcifications or tumors of the parathyroid glands. A radioactive iodine uptake test would be useful for a thyroid tumor. Radioimmunoassay determines the concentration of a substance in plasma.

Question 145

An incoherent client with a history of hypothyroidism is brought to the emergency department by the rescue squad. Physical and laboratory findings reveal hypothermia, hypoventilation, respiratory acidosis, bradycardia, hypotension, and nonpitting edema of the face and periorbital area. Knowing that these findings suggest severe hypothyroidism, the nurse prepares to take emergency action to prevent the potential complication of:

Answer 145

myxedema coma.
Explanation:
Severe hypothyroidism may result in myxedema coma, in which a drastic drop in the metabolic rate causes decreased vital signs, hypoventilation (possibly leading to respiratory acidosis), and nonpitting edema. Thyroid storm is an acute complication of hyperthyroidism. Cretinism is a form of hypothyroidism that occurs in infants. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a common chronic inflammatory disease of the thyroid gland in which autoimmune factors play a prominent role.

Question 146

When describing the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands, which of the following would the instructor include as characteristic of endocrine glands?

Answer 146

The secretions are released directly into the blood stream.
Explanation:
The endocrine glands secrete hormones, chemicals that accelerate or slow physiologic processes, directly into the bloodstream. This characteristic distinguishes endocrine glands from exocrine glands, which release secretions into a duct. Hormones circulate in the blood until they reach receptors in target cells or other endocrine glands. They play a vital role in regulating homeostatic processes.

Question 147

Which group of clients should not receive potassium iodide?

Answer 147

Those who are allergic to seafood
Explanation:
Potassium iodide should not be administered to anyone who is allergic to seafood, which is also high in iodine. Clients who take corticosteroids or cough medicines and those who are pregnant would be appropriate candidates for potassium iodide therapy.

Question 148

The nurse is aware that the clinical symptoms of a patient with hypoparathyroidism are the result of the initial physiologic response of:

Answer 148

Hypocalcemia.
Explanation:
Hypoparathyroidism results in hypocalcemia, which triggers a series of physiologic responses, including the choices presented.

Question 149

A patient is ordered desmopressin (DDAVP) for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What therapeutic response does the nurse anticipate the patient will experience?

Answer 149

A decrease in urine output
Explanation:
Desmopressin (DDAVP), a synthetic vasopressin without the vascular effects of natural ADH, is particularly valuable because it has a longer duration of action and fewer adverse effects than other preparations previously used to treat the disease. DDAVP and lypressin (Diapid) reduce urine output to 2 to 3 L/24 hours. It is administered intranasally; the patient sprays the solution into the nose through a flexible calibrated plastic tube. One or two administrations daily (i.e., every 12 to 24 hours) usually control the symptoms (Papadakis, McPhee, & Rabow, 2013). Vasopressin causes vasoconstriction; thus, it must be used cautiously in patients with coronary artery disease.

Question 150

Dilutional hyponatremia occurs in which disorder?

Answer 150

Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
Explanation:
Clients diagnosed with SIADH exhibit dilutional hyponatremia. They retain fluids and develop a sodium deficiency.

Question 151

A group of students is reviewing material about endocrine system function. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which of the following as secreted by the adrenal medulla?

Answer 151

Epinephrine
Explanation:
The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine. The adrenal cortex manufactures and secretes glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and small amounts of androgenic sex hormones. Glucagon is released by the pancreas.

Question 152

A nurse should perform which intervention for a client with Cushing’s syndrome?

Answer 152

Explain that the client’s physical changes are a result of excessive corticosteroids.
Explanation:
The nurse should explain to the client that Cushing’s syndrome causes physical changes related to excessive corticosteroids. Clients with hyperthyroidism, not Cushing’s syndrome, are heat intolerant and must have cool clothing and bedding. Clients with Cushing’s syndrome should have a high-protein, not low-protein, diet. Clients with Addison’s disease must increase sodium intake and fluid intake in times of stress of prevent hypotension.

Question 153

A client who is frightened of needles has been told that the client will have to have an intravenous (IV) line inserted. The client’s blood pressure and pulse rate increase, and the nurse observes the pupils dilating. What does the nurse recognize has occurred with this client?

Answer 153

The client is showing the fight-or-flight response.
Explanation:
The adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine. These two hormones are released in response to stress or threat to life. They facilitate what is referred to as the physiologic stress response, also known as the fight-or-flight response. Many organs respond to the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine. Responses include increased blood pressure and pulse rate, dilation of the pupils, constriction of blood vessels, bronchodilation, and decreased peristalsis. The client does not demonstrate the signs of infection, dehydration, or hypertensive crisis.

Question 154

The nurse is caring for a client who has developed diabetes insipidus. The cause is unknown, and the physician has ordered a diagnostic test to determine if the cause is nephrogenic or neurogenic. What test will the nurse prepare the client for?

Answer 154

Fluid deprivation test
Explanation:
A fluid deprivation test can diagnose diabetes insipidus (DI) and differentiate neurogenic DI from nephrogenic DI. The other tests listed are nonspecific tests that help support diagnosis.

Question 155

The actions of parathyroid hormone (PTH) are increased in the presence of which vitamin?

Answer 155

D
Explanation:
The actions of PTH are increased by the presence of vitamin D.

Question 156

A client is having chronic pain from arthritis. What type of hormone is released in response to the stress of this pain that suppresses inflammation and helps the body withstand stress?

Answer 156

Glucocorticoids
Explanation:
Glucocorticoids, such as cortisol, affect body metabolism, suppress inflammation, and help the body withstand stress. Mineralocorticoids, primarily aldosterone, maintain water and electrolyte balances. The androgenic hormones convert to testosterone and estrogens.

Question 157

A client is returned to his room after a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which piece of equipment is most important for the nurse to keep at the client’s bedside?

Answer 157

Tracheostomy set
Explanation:
After a subtotal thyroidectomy, swelling of the surgical site (the tracheal area) may obstruct the airway. Therefore, the nurse should keep a tracheostomy set at the client’s bedside in case of a respiratory emergency. Although an indwelling urinary catheter and a cardiac monitor may be used for a client after a thyroidectomy, the tracheostomy set is more important. A humidifier isn’t indicated for this client.

Question 158

The nurse knows to assess a patient with hyperthyroidism for the primary indicator of:

Answer 158

Intolerance to heat
Explanation:
With hypothyroidism, the individual is sensitive to cold because the core body temperature is usually below 98.6°F. Intolerance to heat is seen with hyperthyroidism.

Question 159

During physical examination of a client with a suspected endocrine disorder, the nurse assesses the body structures. The nurse gathers this data based on the understanding that it is an important aid in which of the following?

Answer 159

Detecting evidence of hormone hypersecretion
Explanation:
The evaluation of body structures helps the nurse detect evidence of hypersecretion or hyposecretion of hormones. This helps in the assessment of findings that are unique to specific endocrine glands. Radiographs of the chest or abdomen are taken to detect tumors. Radiographs also determine the size of the organ and its location.

Question 160

When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects to administer:

Answer 160

vasopressin.
Explanation:
Because diabetes insipidus results from decreased antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin) production, the nurse should expect to administer synthetic vasopressin for hormone replacement therapy. Furosemide, a diuretic, is contraindicated because a client with diabetes insipidus experiences polyuria. Insulin and dextrose are used to treat diabetes mellitus and its complications, not diabetes insipidus.

Question 161

A client has been diagnosed with myxedema from long-standing hypothyroidism. What clinical manifestations of this disorder does the nurse recognize are progressing to myxedema coma? Select all that apply.
  Hypothermia
  Hypertension
  Hypotension
  Hypoventilation
  Hyperventilation

Answer 161

Hypothermia

Hypotension
Hypoventilation

Question 162

Which outcome indicates that treatment of a client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

Answer 162

Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day.
Explanation:
Diabetes insipidus is characterized by polyuria (up to 8 L/day), constant thirst, and an unusually high oral intake of fluids. Treatment with the appropriate drug should decrease both oral fluid intake and urine output. A urine output of 200 ml/hour indicates continuing polyuria. A blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg and a heart rate of 126 beats/minute indicate compensation for the continued fluid deficit, suggesting that treatment hasn’t been effective.

Question 163

The nurse is reviewing a client’s history which reveals that the client has had an oversecretion of growth hormone (GH) that occurred before puberty. The nurse interprets this as which of the following?

Answer 163

Gigantism
Explanation:
When oversecretion of GH occurs before puberty, gigantism results. Dwarfism occurs when secretion of GH is insufficient during childhood. Oversecretion of GH during adulthood results in acromegaly. An absence of pituitary hormonal activity causes Simmonds’ disease.

Question 164

A client who is being tested for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion asks the nurse to explain the diagnosis. While explaining, the nurse states that excessive antidiuretic hormone is secreted from which gland?

Answer 164

Posterior pituitary
Explanation:
Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland.