Exam 2 Pathology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. City dwellers’ adaptation to air pollutants.
    a) Squamous metaplasia
    b) Glandular metaplasia
    c) Osseous metaplasia
    d) Bronchial mucous hyperplasia
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. In hypoxemia, the following are the cellular happening:
    a) Decrease cytocelic gly
    b) Increase cellular pH
    c) Increase translational problem
    d) Increase cellular impermeability
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Free readicals most commonly destroy the:
    a) smooth ER
    b) rough ER
    c) nucleus
    d) phospholipid bilayer membrane
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is an example of an ultrastructure finding in reversible cell injury?

a) Pyknosis
b) lysosomal rupture
c) blebbing
d) mitochondrial vacuolization

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is an irreversible ultra structural change?

a) Lysosomal rupture
b) autophagy
c) chromatin clumping
d) endoplasmic reticulum swelling

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. What’s the right sequence of cell change during injury/death?
    a) Function retains until cell death
    b) Function loss occurs RIGHT after cell death
    c) Cell death precede all functional & histologic change
    d) Ultrastructural changes antedate eosinophilic changes
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Not true of hypoxic injury:
    a) Hydropic degeneration
    b) Anaerobic respiratory mechanisms terminated
    c) Protein synthesis, transport and packaging deranged
    d) Reactive oxygen species produced
A

?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. In this organ, hypoxic death is due predominantly to autolysis rather than protein denaturation
    a) lungs
    b) GIT
    c) Brain
    d) Testis
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. True of saponification in enzymatic fat necrosis:
    a) Release of enzymes in hypercalcemic milieu
    b) Release of fatty acids despite of normal calcium levels
    c) Neutrophile digestion and calcium deposition
    d) Release of fatty acids. The process of saponification
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Preservation of cellular outline but with loss of cellular detail is due to:
    a) Protein denaturation
    b) autolysis
    c) autophagy
    d) infarction
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. The pattern of necrosis in myocardial infarction is:
    a) coagulation necrosis
    b) fat necrosis
    c) liquetactive necrosis
    d) cafeation necrosis
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Refers to focal accumulation of carbon pigment laden macrophages is the connective tissues of lung parenchyma
    a) steatosis
    b) xanthoma
    c) cholesterolosis
    d) anthracosis
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Changes in a chronic smoker

A

Squamous metaplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. The first manifestation of almost all cell injury
    a) Fat accumulation
    b) Dystrophic calcification
    c) Hyaline
    d) Cellular swelling
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. In this type of cellular adaptation, there’s a marked increase in number of autophagosomes accompanied by a decrease in number of myofilaments, ER, and mitochondria
    a) hypertrophy
    b) hyperplasia
    c) atrophy
    d) metaplasia
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. A reversible change or alteration in adult cells characterized by variation in size, shape and orientation:
    a) metaplasia
    b) dysplasia
    c) hyperplasia
    d) atrophy
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. Increased hormonal stimulation may cause cells to undergo
    a) Metaplasia
    b) Hyperplasia
    c) Dysplasia
    d) Atrophy
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. the most common mechanism facilitating increased vascular permeability
    a) Endothelial injury
    b) leukocyte – mediated endothelial injury
    c) Gaps due to endothelial contraction
    d) increased transcytosis
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sources of histamine and serotonin is/are

a) mast cells
b) Basophils
c) platelet
d) AOTA

A

D

20
Q

Which of the following generates prostaglandin and thromboxanes

a) lipoxygenase
b) cycloxgenase
c) kinins
d) complement

A

C

21
Q

Which is/are true about acute information?

a) In chemotaxis, the injurious agent goes to the phagocytic cell for phagocytes
b) In activation of phagocytic all, secretions are not only confined to phagosome but also leaks out to the extracellular matrix
c) Leukocyte adhesion consists of migration, rolling, and adhesion
d) B and C are true

A

D

22
Q
  1. Protein C, fibronectin and amyloid proteins are examples of
    a) chemokines
    b) acute phase proteins
    c) cytokines
    d) complement
A

B

23
Q
  1. Leukoid reaction occurs when:
    a) leukocyte count reaches 15,000-20,000 cells/mL
    b) leukocyte count reaches 40,000 – 100,000 cells/mL
    c) leukocyte count drops 5,000 – 10,000 cells/mL
    d) leukocyte count drops 1,000 – 5,000 cell/mL
A

B

24
Q
  1. Which statement is correct?
    a) In acute inflammation, the major players are mononuclear inflammatory cells
    b) The most common cause of leukocyte defect is bone marrow suppression
    c) The chemical mediators of inflammation does not have the potential to have harmful effects
    d) Kinin, clotting, fibrinolytic, and complement cascades are interellated systems that are activated by factor V
A

B

25
Q
  1. effects of tumor necrosis factor
    a) increase fibroblast proliferation
    b) decrease acute phase proteins
    c) increase anticoagulant activity
    d) decrease cytokine secretion
A

A

26
Q
  1. True of Nitric Oxide
    a) pleiomorphic of vasodilation
    b) aka endothelium-derived relaxation factor
    c) inhibits platelet aggregation and adhesion
    d) all of the above
A

B

27
Q
  1. Outcome/s of acute inflammation
    a) resolution
    b) abscess formation
    c) chronic inflammation
    d) all of the above
A

D

28
Q
  1. Which of the following organs is normally involved in low-level proliferation but is capable of rapid replication upon stimulation?
    a) Skeletal muscle
    b) liver
    c) bone marrow
    d) neurons
A

B

29
Q
  1. A cell producing substances that affect target cells in close proximity:
    a) Paracrine
    b) Endocrine
    c) Paracrine
    d) Ecrine
A

A

30
Q
  1. This allows ECM to sketch and recoil
    a) Fibrillin
    b) Colllagen
    c) Elastin
    d) Cartilage
A

C

31
Q
  1. True of collagen?
    a) Type 1: predominant in skin & bones
    b) has at least 5 types
    c) type 2: in basement membrane
    d) Enzymatic activity Vitamin E
A

A

32
Q
  1. Vessel function in adult tissues is:
    a) vasculogenesis
    b) angiogenesis
    c) neovascularisation
    d) Both B and C
A

D

33
Q
  1. True of granulation tissue
    a) hallmark of malignancy
    b) proliferating blood vessels
    c) pink, soft, granular, loose ECM
    d) All of the above
A

d

34
Q
  1. Characterized by wound contraction in which the size of the wound is markedly decreased by the action of myofibroblast
    a) healing by first intention
    b) healing by second intention
    c) fibrosis
    d) scar formation
A

B

35
Q
  1. Same type of tissue replaced the injured one
    a) replacement
    b) regeneration
    c) hyperplasia
A

B

36
Q
  1. Gives ECM turgor resistance to compression
    a) hyaluronan
    b) Laminin
    c) Fabrillin
A

A

37
Q
  1. A benign tumor arising from the lymph vessels is properly termed as:
    a) Lipoma
    b) Lymphoma
    c) Lymphangioma
    d) Lymphangiosarcoma
A

D

38
Q
  1. the malignant counterpart of ovarean dermoid cyst is termed as:
    a) Dermatofibroma
    b) Cystadenoma
    c) choriocarcinoma
    d) immature teratoma
A

D

39
Q
  1. The single most common abnormality in dominant oncogene of tumors in humans in the point mutation in:
    a) RAS
    b) RET
    c) cylin – DI
A

A

40
Q
  1. In adenoma carcinoma model of colon carcinogenesis, the initial event is:
    a) Activation of APC
    b) Activation of RAS
    c) Loss of tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 18q
    d) loss of p53
A

A

41
Q
  1. dysregulation in MYC gene occurs in
    a) CML
    b) Neuroblastoma
    c)
    d) Burkette
A

D

42
Q
  1. Reduplication of DNA sequences produced by several changes in the proto-oncogene are exemplified by
    a) BCR 2/neu in breast cancer
    b) BCR – ABL in chronic myelogenous leukemia
    c) Rb in retinoblastoma
    d) Bcl2 in follicular lymphoma
A

A

43
Q
  1. Example of apoptosis gene
    a) ras
    b) n-myc
    c) rb
    d) bcl – 2
A

D

44
Q
  1. molecular policeman:
    a) APC
    b) p 53
    c) rb gen
A

B

45
Q
  1. The phenomenon resulting from obstruction of arterial blood supply or venous drainage and subsequent neurosis of recipient tissues is called
    a) haemorrhage
    b) congestion
    c) infarction
    d) hypermia
A

C

46
Q
  1. A patient with tuberculoid leprosy has
    a) adequate T-cell immune response
    b) adequate B-cell immune response
    c) adequate complement function immune response
    d) erythema nodosum leprosum
A

?