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psyo 2220 - abnormal behavior > Exam 2 ohhhhh nooo... > Flashcards

Exam 2 ohhhhh nooo... Flashcards

1
Q

Individuals with __ find it difficult to function adequately while having sex

A

Sexual dysfunction

i.e. they may not become aroused or achieve orgasm

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2
Q

In __ disorders, sexual arousal occurs primarily in the context of inappropriate objects or individuals

A

Paraphilic

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3
Q

__ means a strong attraction or liking, and __ indicates that the attraction is abnormal or atypical

A

Philia;

Para

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4
Q

What is gender dysphoria?

A

There is incongruence and psychological distress and dissatisfaction with the gender one has been assigned at birth

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5
Q

In a scientifically sound survey done by Mosher et. al (2005) where they collected data from 12,561 men and women as a part of the National Survey of Family Growth…, what was revealed?`

A

Virtually all men and women studied by Mosher and colleagues were sexually experienced, with vaginal intercourse a nearly universal experience, even for those who had never been married. Furthermore, by the age of 15, 1/4 of males and females have engaged in vaginal intercourse, and the prevalence rate increases steadily with the age of individuals

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6
Q

Which pattern has been used to explain the increases in adolescent STI rates at a time when teen pregnancy rates have been on the decline in Canada and elsewhere?

A

A national survey of Canadian students in Grades 7, 9, and 11 showed that among those who were sexually active, oral contraceptive use was more common (84% to 90%) than condom use (64% to 80%)

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7
Q

Cindy Meston and colleagues surveyed 702 students at the University of Colombia where their findings supported __ percent of men versus only __ percent of women reported masturbating alone

A

80; 48

- Frequency of masturbation was greater for men than for women

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8
Q

Studies of “hooking up” demonstrate similar findings to older studies of casual sex, in that it is often precipitated by __, and women are less likely to consider it a positive experience than men

A

Alchol

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9
Q

Owen and Fincham (2011) found that greater alcohol use leads to greater engagement in __ relationships

A

“Friends with benefits”

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10
Q

Examining trends from 1943 to 1999, we find that almost all existing gender differences became __ over time, especially in regard to attitudes toward marital sex

A

Smaller

  • 12 percent of young women approved of premarital sex in 1943, compared with 73 percent in 1999
  • 40 percent in 1943 and 79 percent in 1999 for men
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11
Q

In the late 1990s and after 2000, investigators have noted a __ in number of sexual partners and a tendency to __ sexual intercourse among adolescents

A

Decrease;

Delay

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12
Q

What are the three stages of the sexual response cycle? They are each associated with specific sexual dysfunctions. In addition, pain can become associated with sexual functioning in women

A

1) Desire
2) Arousal
3) Orgasm

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13
Q

Disorders can either be generalized meaning __, or they can be situational meaning __

A

It occurs every time the individual attempts sex;

It occurs only with some partners or at certain times, but not with other partners or at other times

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14
Q

__ percent of all Canadian women and __ percent of all Canadian men experience sexual dysfunction, making this class of disorder one of the most prevalent of all psychological or physical disorders

A

28; 18

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15
Q

Two of these disorders are characterized by little or no interest in sex that is causing significant distress in the individual. In males this disorder is called __.
In females low sexual interest is almost always accompanied by a diminished ability to become excited or aroused by erotic cues or sexual activity, this is combined in a disorder called __.
For males, there is a specific disorder of arousal called __.

A

Male Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder;
Female Sexual Interest/Arousal Disorder;
Erectile Dysfunction

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16
Q

__ is a specific disorder of arousal; the problem here is not desire; their problem is in becoming aroused

A

Erectile Disorder

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17
Q

Should a sexual problem be identified as a diagnosis when dysfunction is clearly present but the person is not distressed about it?

A

In the DSM-5, the symptoms must clearly cause clinically significant distress in the individual

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18
Q

Males who achieve orgasm only with great difficulty or not at all meet criteria for a condition called __. In women, this is called __

A

Delayed ejaculation;

Female orgasmic disorder

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19
Q

The work of Grenier and Byers (2001) suggests that self-identifying with premature ejaculation had three components:

A

1) Behavioral component (i.e. the regularity of their rapid ejaculation experiences)
2) An emotional component (i.e. worry or concern about ejaculating too early)
3) An efficiency component (i.e. perceiving that they have little control over the timing of their ejaculation)

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20
Q

__ is a sexual dysfunction specific to women that refers to difficulties with penetration during attempted intercourse or significant pain during intercourse

A

Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder
- For some women sexual desire is present, and arousal and orgasm are easily attained, but the pain during attempted intercourse is so severe that sexual behavior is disrupted

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21
Q

What are the three major aspects to the assessment of sexual behavior:

A

1) Interviews, usually supported by numerous questionnaires because patients may provide more information on paper than in a verbal interview
2) A thorough medical evaluation, to rule out the variety of medical conditions that can contribute to sexual problems
3) Psychophysiological assessment, to measure directly the physiological aspects of sexual arousal

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22
Q

A variety of drugs, including some commonly prescribed for __, __, and __, often disrupt sexual arousal and functioning

A

Hypertension; anxiety; depression

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23
Q

Because erections most often occur during REM sleep in physically healthy men, psychophysiological measurement of __ was in the past used frequently to determine a man’s ability to obtain normal erectile response

A

Nocturnal penile tumescence

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24
Q

28 percent of men with __ experienced complete erectile failure. Vascular disease is a major cause of erectile difficulties

A

Diabetes

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25
Q

The two relevant vascular problems are __, which makes it difficult for blood to reach the penis, and __, where blood flows out too quickly for an erection to be maintained

A 
Arterial insufficiency (constricted arteries);
Venous leakage
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26
Q

__ can also indirectly affect sexual functioning

A

Chronic illness

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27
Q

__ medications, in the class known as beta-blockers, including propranolol, may contribute to sexual dysfunction. __ antidepressant medications and other antidepressant and antianxiety drugs may also interfere with sexual desire and arousal in both men and women

A

Antihypertensive;

Selective-Serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

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28
Q

Physically, alcohol is a central nervous system __, and for men to achieve erection and women to achieve lubrication is much more difficult when the central nervous system is __

A

Suppressant;

suppressed

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29
Q

This negative cognitive set has been termed __, which is presumably learned early in childhood from families, religious authorities, or others. It seems to predict sexual difficulties later in life

A

Erotophobia

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30
Q

If women experienced sexual victimization through adult sexual contact before puberty or were forced to have sexual contact of some kind, they were approximately __ as likely to have orgasmic dysfunction as women who did not experience that.
For male victims of adult-child contact, the probability of experiencing erectile disorder is more than __ times greater than if they had not had the contact

A

Twice;

Three

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31
Q

__ is when the pelvic muscles in the outer third of the vagina undergo involuntary spasms when intercourse is attempted

A

Vaginismus

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32
Q

One surprising simple treatment is effective for a large number of individuals who experience sexual dysfunction: __

A

Education
- Ignorance of the most basic aspects of the sexual response cycle and intercourse often leads to long-lasting dysfunctions

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33
Q

What are the clinicians’ primary goal in a therapeutic program for sexual dysfunctions?

A

To eliminate psychologically based performance anxiety

  • Also providing basic education about sexual functioning, altering deep-seated myths, and increasing communication
    p. 357
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34
Q

To treat premature ejaculation, most sex therapists use a procedure sometimes called the __, in which the penis is stimulated, usually by the partner, to nearly full erection. At this point the partner firmly squeezes the penis near the top where the head of the penis joins the shaft, which quickly reduces arousal

A

Squeeze technique

- Success rate: 60-90% but drop to 25% after three years or more follow-up

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35
Q

To treat vaginismus, and pain related to penetration in genitopelvic pain/penetration disorder, what is recommended?

A

For the woman and eventually the partner, to gradually insert larger and larger dilators at the woman’s own pace
- Success rate: 80-100%

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36
Q

Researchers argue that additional relevant outcomes that should be (but rarely are) assessed for penile-vaginal intercourse as the indicator of therapy “success”:

A

1) Whether the vaginal muscle spasm has in fact been resolved
2) Whether interference with intercourse has been decreased
3) Whether intercourse is less painful or more pleasurable
4) Whether the couple is experiencing greater sexual satisfaction

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37
Q

What may be the two different types of treatment involving vaginismus?

A

1) Subtype involving a phobia of penetration for which cognitive-behavioral techniques developed for fear reduction would be most appropriate
2) Separate subtype involving genital pain for which psychosocial techniques developed for the treatment of chronic pain would be most appropriate

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38
Q

For some time, __ and __ have been used to treat erectile disorder. But although they are safe and have relatively few side effects, they have only negligible effects on erectile disorder.

A

Yohimbine; also when combined with 1-arginine glutamate, it is superior to placebo in increasing vaginal responses to erotic stimuli among women with sexual arousal disorder
Testosterone

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39
Q

Some urologists teach patients to inject vasodilating drugs such as __ and __ directly into the penis when they want to have sexual intercourse

A

Papaverine; Prostaglandin

  • These drugs dilate the blood vessels, allowing blood to flow to the penis and thereby producing an erection within 15 minutes that can last from one to four hours
    p. 360
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40
Q

Insertion of __ or implants has been a surgical option for almost 100 years; one procedure involves implanting a semirigid silicone rod that can be bent by the male into correct position for intercourse and maneuvered out of the way at other times. In a more popular procedure, the male squeezes a small pump that is surgically implanted into the scrotum, forcing fluid into an inflatable cylinder

A

Penile prostheses

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41
Q

Another approach is __, which works by creating a vacuum in a cylinder placed over the penis. The vacuum draws blood into the penis, which is then trapped by a specifically designed ring placed around the base of the penis

A

Vacuum device therapy

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42
Q

Why are treatment programs for sexual dysfunctions readily available in many locations?

A

Because few health and mental health professionals are trained to apply them, although the availability of Viagra for male erectile disorder is widespread

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43
Q

These disorders of sexual arousal and attraction - if they cause distress or impairment to the individual, or cause personal harm, or cause the risk of harm to others - are called __

A

Paraphilic disorders

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44
Q

The DSM-5 does not consider a(n) __ a disorder unless it is associated with distress and impairment or harm or the threat of harm to others

A

Paraphilia

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45
Q

It is not uncommon for individuals with paraphilic disorder to also have comorbid __, ___, and __

A

Mood, anxiety, and substance abuse disorders

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46
Q

What is frotteuristic disorder?

A

Takes place in a public setting, in which a person takes advantage of forced physical contact with strangers to become aroused
- Frotteuristic act is usually successful because victims cannot escape easily

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47
Q

What is fetishistic disorder?

A

A person is sexually attracted to nonliving objects

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48
Q

Fetishistic arousal is associated with two different classes of objects or activities:

A

1) An inanimate object

2) A source of specific tactile stimulation, such as rubber, etc.

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49
Q

(In terms of fetishistic arousal) A third source of attraction, sometimes called partialism is:

A

A part of the body, such as the foot, DAT ASS, or hair

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50
Q

What is voyeuristic disorder?

A

The practice of observing an unsuspecting individual undressing or naked in order to become aroused

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51
Q

What is Exhibitionistic disorder?

A

Achieving sexual arousal and gratification by exposing one’s genitals to unsuspecting strangers

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52
Q

Anxiety actually increases __ under some circumstances

A

Arousal

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53
Q

To meet diagniss for exhibitionistic disorder, the behavior:

A

Must occur repeatedly and be compulsive or out of control

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54
Q

Another specifier for transvestism describes a pattern of sexual arousal associated not with clothing itself but rather with thoughts or images of oneself as a female. This specifier is called __

A

“Autogynephilia”

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55
Q

Both __ and __ are associated with either inflicting pain or humiliation (sadism) or suffering pain or humiliation (masochism)

A

Sexual sadism disorder; sexual masochism disorder

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56
Q

In many such cases something goes wrong and the individual accidentally hangs himself or herself, an event that should be distinguished from the closely related condition called __, which involves self-strangulation to reduce the flow of oxygen to the brain and enhance sensation of orgasm

A

Hypoxiphilia

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57
Q

Sexual attraction to children (or very young adolescents generally aged 13 years or younger), called __

A

Pedophilic disorder

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58
Q

__ disorders are seldom seen in women and were thought to be totally absent in women for many years, with the possible exception of sadomasochistic practices. But in recent years, several reports have appeared describing individual cases or small series of cases

A

Paraphilic

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59
Q

Therapists and sex researchers who work with individuals with paraphilic disorders have observed what seems to be a(n) __

A

Incredibly strong sex drive

- It is not uncommon for some individuals to masturbate three or four times a day

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60
Q

Several treatment procedures are available for decreasing unwanted arousal. Most are behavior therapy procedures directed at changing:

A

The associations and context from arousing and pleasurable to neutral

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61
Q

What is covert desensitization?

A

Sexually arousing images are associated with the very consequences of the behavior that bring the patient to treatment in the first place

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62
Q

__ is present if a person’s physical sex (male or female anatomy, also called “natal” sex) is not consistent with the person’s sense of who he or she really is or with his or her experienced gender

A

Gender dysphoria

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63
Q

What is the primary purpose of cross-dressing and the primary goal of gender dysphoria?

A

Cross-dressing: Sexual gratification

Gender dysphoria: The desire to live life openly in a manner consistent with that of the other gender

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64
Q

__, in which gender dysphoria begins with a strong and specific sexual attraction to a fantasy of oneself (auto) as a female (gyne)

A

Autogynephilia

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65
Q

Slightly higher levels of __ or __ at certain critical periods of development might masculinize a female fetus or feminize a male fetus

A

Testosterone; estrogen

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66
Q

At least some evidence suggests that gender identity firms up between __ months and __ years of age and is relatively fixed after that

A

18; three

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67
Q

One study found that exposure to higher levels of __ was associated with more masculine play behavior in both boys and girls

A

Fetal testosterone

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68
Q

What are the qualifications for sex reassignment surgery at a reputable clinic?

A

Individuals must live in the desired gender for one to two years so that they can be sure they want to change sex. They also must be stable psychologically, financially, and socially

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69
Q

__ represent a number of related problems that involve the inability to resist acting on a drive or temptation

A

Impulse-control disorders

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70
Q

__ refers to using multiple substances

A

Polysubstance use

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71
Q

__ substances alter mood, behavior, or both.

A

Psychoactive

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72
Q

List some symptoms of intoxication?

A

Impaired judgment, mood changes, and lowered motor ability (e.g., problems walking or talking)

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73
Q

How does the DSM-5 define substance abuse?

A

How significantly it interferes with the user’s life
i.e. if substances disrupt your education, job, or relationships with others, and put you in physically dangerous situations (while driving), you would be considered a drug abuser

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74
Q

What is alcohol withdrawal delirium?

A

In which a person can experience frightening hallucinations and body tremors. Withdrawal from many substances can bring on chills, fever, diarrhea, nausea and vomiting, and aches and pains

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75
Q

Which drug is this most likely? Withdrawal that has a pattern that includes anxiety, lack of motivation, and boredom

A

Cocaine

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76
Q

Which drug is this most likely? Withdrawal which includes symptoms such as nervousness, appetite change, and sleep disturbance

A

420 blaze it ~~

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77
Q

The repeated use of a drug, a desperate need to ingest more of the substance (stealing money to buy drugs, standing outside in the cold to smoke), and the likelihood that use will resume after a period of abstinence are behaviors that define the extent of drug dependence; this is referred to __

A

Psychological dependence (different from physiological)

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78
Q

Substance-related disorders are now described by levels of severity, including:

A
  • Mild (i.e. the person exhibits only two or three of the eleven criteria met)
  • Moderate (i.e. four or five criteria met)
  • Severe (i.e. six or more criteria met)
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79
Q

Some researchers have estimated that more than half the people with alcohol disorders have an additional psychiatric disorder, such as:

A

Major depression, antisocial personality disorder, or bipolar disorder

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80
Q

__ disorders were found to be highly comorbid with __ and __ disorders

A

Mood; anxiety

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81
Q

Research suggests that alcohol’s effects in increasing risk-taking may contribute to the high co-occurrence of alcohol and __ disorders

A

Gambling

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82
Q

What are the six general categories of substances?

A

1) Depressants
2) Stimulants
3) Opiates
4) Hallucinogens
5) Other drugs of abuse
6) Gambling disorder

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83
Q

__ are substances that result in behavioral sedation and can induce relaxation. They include alcohol and the sedative and hypnotic drugs in the families of barbiturates i.e. Seconal and benzodiazepines (Valium, Xanax, etc).

A

Depressants

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84
Q

__ are substances that cause us to be more active and alert and can elevate mood. Included in this group are amphetamines, cocaine, nicotine, and caffeine

A

Stimulants

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85
Q

__ are substances with the major effect to produce analgesia temporarily (reduce pain) and euphoria. Heroin, opium, codeine, morphine, and oxycodone are included

A

Opiates

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86
Q

__ are substances that alter sensory perception and can produce delusions, paranoia, hallucinations. Cannabis and LSD are included

A

Hallucinogens

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87
Q

__ are substances that are abused but do not fit neatly into one of the categories here include inhalants (i.e. airplane glue), anabolic steroids, over-the-counter medication. They produce a variety of psychoactive effects

A

Other drugs of abuse

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88
Q

__ is associated with the ingestion of substances, and they are individuals who are unable to resist the urge to gamble, which in turn results in negative personal consequences (e.g., divorce, loss of employment)

A

Gambling disorder

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89
Q

__ primarily decrease central nervous system activity. Their principal effect is to reduce our levels of physiological arousal and help us relax

A

Depressants

90
Q

__ influences a number of different neuroreceptor systems, which makes it difficult to study; for example: GABA system

A

Alcohol

91
Q

Blackouts, the loss of memory for what happens during intoxication, may result from the interaction of alcohol with the __. The __ also appears to be sensitive to alcohol as it affects mood, sleep, and eating behavior and is thought to be responsible for alcoholic cravings

A

Glutamate system; Serotonin system

92
Q

Alcohol also exerts effects on the dopamine reward system, and these effects may be responsible for:

A

The pleasurable feelings people experience when drinking alcohol

93
Q

Alcohol also results in release of __, our bodies’ naturally occurring analgesics

A

Endogenous opioids

- Which may explain why alcohol has pain numbing effects

94
Q

What is withdrawal delirium?

A

A condition that can produce frightening hallucinations and body tremors

95
Q

Consequences of long-term excessive drinking include:

A

Liver disease, pancreatitis, cardiovascular disorders, and brain damge

96
Q

Two types of organic brain syndromes may result from long-term heavy alcohol use:

A

Dementia and Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome

97
Q

What does Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome result in?

A

Confusion, loss of muscle coordination, and unintelligible speech
- It is believed to be caused by a deficiency of thiamine, a vitamin metabolized poorly by heavy drinkers

98
Q

Mild to moderate intake of alcohol (especially wine) may actually serve a protective role in:

A

Cognitive decline as we age

99
Q

__ is now generally recognized as a combination of problems that can occur in a child whose mother drank while she was pregnant. These problems include fetal growth retardation, cognitive deficits, behavior problems, and learning difficulties

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)

100
Q

Men are __ likely than women to drink alcohol and are __ likely to drink heavily

A

More; more

101
Q

__ percent of Canadian drinkers experience some level of problem with alcohol, however, with about __ percent of Canadian adults thought to be alcohol dependent in any given year

A

9; 3

102
Q

Among the general population, __ are most likely to be heavy drinkers and to have alcohol use problems

A

Young (18-29) single males

103
Q

About 20 percent of people with __ alcohol dependence have a spontaneous remission and do not re-experience problems with drinking

A

Severe

104
Q

Centre for Addiction and Mental Health found that drinking at an early age, from __ to __, was predictive of later alcohol-related disorders

A

11; 14

105
Q

Does alcohol cause aggression?

A

No, but it may reduce the fear associated with being punished, and it may impair the ability to consider the consequences of acting impulsively

106
Q

The general group of depressants also includes:

A
  • Sedatives (calming)
  • Hypnotic (sleep-inducing)
  • Anxiolytic (anxiety-reducing)
    These drugs include the barbiturates and the benzodiazepines
107
Q

In general, __ are considered much safer than barbiturates, with less risk of abuse and dependence

A

Benzodiazepines

108
Q

At low doses, barbiturates:
At larger doses, barbiturates:
At extremely high doses, barbiturates:

A

Low: Relax the muscles and can produce a mild feeling of well-being
Larger: Results similar to those of heavy drinking; slurred speech and problems walking, concentrating, and working
Extreme: Diaphragm muscles can relax so much as to cause death by suffocation

109
Q

Sedative, hypnotic, and anxiolytic drugs affect the brain by acting on the __

A

GABA neurotransmitter system

110
Q

At low doses, amphetamines can:

A

Induce feelings of elation and vigour, and can reduce fatigue. You feel “up” and then you “crash” feeling depressed or tired

111
Q

Some research also shows that repeated use of __ can cause lasting memory problems

A

MDMA

112
Q

Amphetamines stimulate the central nervous system by enhancing the activity of __ and __

A

Norepinephrine; dopamine

113
Q

In small amounts, cocaine:

A

Increases alertness, produces euphoria, increases blood pressure and pulse, and causes insomnia and loss of appetite

114
Q

Cocaine enters the bloodstream and is carried to the brain. There, the cocaine molecules:

A

Block the reuptake of dopamine

115
Q

What are the negative effects of continued cocaine use?

A

Sleep is disrupted, increased tolerance causes a need for higher doses, paranoia and other negative symptoms set in, and cocaine user gradually becomes socially isolated

116
Q

Cocaine withdrawal isn’t like that of alcohol, instead of rapid heartbreat, tremors, or nausea, withdrawal from cocaine:

A

Produces pronounced feelings of apathy and boredom

117
Q

The DSM-5 does not describe an intoxication pattern for tobacco-related disorders. Rather:

A

It lists withdrawal symptoms, which include depressed mood, insomnia, irritability, anxiety, difficulty concentrating, restlessness, and increased appetite and weight gain

118
Q

Nicotine appears to stimulate specific receptors:

A

Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors - in the midbrain reticular formation and the limbic system

119
Q

One potential explanation for the finding that nicotine increases alcohol responding is that:

A

Simultaneous smoking may make drinking alcohol more rewarding in terms of effects on the dopamine reward system

120
Q

__ is the most common of the psychoactive substances, used regularly by 90 percent of all North Americans

A

Caffeine

121
Q

Caffeine in small doses can:

Caffeine in larger doses can:

A

Elevate your mood and decrease fatigue;

Make you feel jittery and can cause insomnia

122
Q

The DSM-5 includes caffeine use disorder, defined as:

A

Problematic caffeine use that causes significant impairment and distress

123
Q

What is caffeine’s effect on the brain?

A

It involves the neuro-modulator adenosine, and to a lesser extent the neurotransmitter dopamine; it seems to block adenosine reuptake

124
Q

__ refers to the family of substances that includes natural opiates, synthetic variations (methadone, pethidine), and the comparable substances that occur naturally in the brain (enkephalins, beta-endorphins, dynorphins)

A

Opioid-related disorders

125
Q

__ induce euphoria, drowsiness, and slowed breathing

A

Opiates

- They are also analgesics (substances that help relieve pain)

126
Q

People who cease or reduce their opioid intake begin to experience symptoms within 6 to 12 hours; these include:

A

Excessive yawning, nausea and vomiting, chills, muscle aches, diarrhea, and insomnia
- These symptoms can persist for one to three days, and the process is completed in about a week

127
Q

The high or “rush” experienced by users come from activation of the body’s:

A

Natural opioid system (called enkephalins and endorphins) that provide narcotic effects

128
Q

Marijuana contains more than 80 varieties of the chemicals called __, which are believed to alter mood and behavior. The most common of these chemicals includes the __

A

Cannabinoids;

Tetrahydrocannabinols (THC)

129
Q

__ is the most common hallucinogenic drug. It is produced synthetically in laboratories

A

LSD (sometimes called acid)

130
Q

The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for hallucinogen intoxication are similar to those for cannabis. These criteria include:

A

Perceptual changes such as the subjective intensification of perceptions, depersonalization, and hallucinations. Physical symptoms include pupillary dilation, rapid heartbeat, sweating, and blurred vision

131
Q

__ develops quickly to many of the hallucinogens including LSD. Sensitivity returns after about a week of abstinence, however. For most hallucinogens, no withdrawal symptoms are reported

A

Tolerance

132
Q

Inhalant use is most commonly observed among __

A

Young males (aged 13 to 15) who are economically disadvantaged

133
Q

The high associated with the use of inhalants resembles that of alcohol intoxication and usually includes:

A

Dizziness, slurred speech, poor coordination, euphoria, lethargy

134
Q

Long-term use of inhalants can:

A

Damage bone marrow, the kidneys, the liver, and the brain

135
Q

What is “cycling” and “stacking”?

A

Cycling: When users administer the drug on a schedule of several weeks or months followed by a break from its use
Stacking: Combining several types of steroids

136
Q

Long-term effects of steroid use suggests:

A

Mood disturbances are common (depression, anxiety, panic attacks), and there is concern that more serious physical consequences may result from its regular use

137
Q

The term __ is applied to a growing group of drugs developed by pharmaceutical companies to target specific diseases and disorders

A

Designer drugs

i.e. MDMA or Ecstasy

138
Q

__ is a dissociative anesthetic that produces a sense of detachment along with a reduced awareness of pain

A

Ketamine (K, Special K, and Cat Valium)

139
Q

Several studies suggest that genetics has __ influence on alcoholism in women

A

Relatively little

140
Q

__ helps people stop drinking by chemically preventing the breakdown of acetaldehyde so that people feel sick when they drink

A

Antabuse
- In some people of Asian descent, ADH seems to be absent naturally, so many Asians have difficulty metabolizing alcohol (dat flush doeeee)

141
Q

The liver produces an enzyme called __, that breaks down acetaldehyde, a by-product of alcohol

A

Alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH)

142
Q

Alcohol may be related to a particular gene, __, and it appears to regulate the sensitivity of receptors to dopamine

A

DRD2

143
Q

The role of dopamine in drug rewards is the phenomenon of sensitization. This refers to:

A

Repeated exposure to stimulant drugs like amphetamines leads to an increased dopamine release when taking the drug

144
Q

Individuals at __ risk for alcoholism may experience more of a pleasurable response to alcohol ingestion than do others

A

High familial genetic

145
Q

In addition to initial euphoria, many drugs provide escape from __, from __, or from __

A 
Physical pain (opiates); stress (alcohol); panic and anxiety (benzodiazepines)
--> Tension reduction, negative affect, and self-medication
146
Q

What is the opponent-process theory?

A

An increase in positive feelings will be followed by an increase in negative feelings a short time later; similarly, an increase in negative feelings will be followed by a period of positive feelings

147
Q

__ explains why people are more likely to take health risks (e.g. engaging in unprotected sex)

A

Alcohol myopia

148
Q

According to the __, drug use is seen as a failure of self-control in the face of temptation (psychosocial perspective)

A

Moral weakness view

149
Q

The __, assumes that drug dependence is caused by an underlying physiological disorder (biological perspective)

A

Disease model

150
Q

__ involves providing the person with a safer drug that has a chemical makeup similar to the addictive drug

A

Agonist substitution

151
Q

Trading a more harmful behavioral pattern for a much less harmful alternative, is a notion referred to as __

A

Harm reduction

152
Q

A newer substitution treatment for heroin dependence is with the drug __

A

Buprenorphine

153
Q

The most often prescribed opiate-antagonist drug, __, has had only limited success with individuals who are not simultaneously participating in a structured treatment program

A

Naltrexone

154
Q

The most commonly known averse treatment uses __, with people who are alcohol dependent

A

Disulfiram (Antabuse)

155
Q

What is covert sensitization in terms of alcoholism?

A

The negative associations can also be made by imagining unpleasant scenes, or for example, a person might be offered a drink of alcohol and receive a painful shock with the glass reaches their lips

156
Q

What is contingency management?

A

The clinician and client together select the behaviors that the client needs to change and decide on the reinforcers that will reward reaching certain goals

157
Q

What is community reinforcement approach?

A

Several different facets of the drug problem are addressed, to help identify and correct aspects of the person’s life that might contribute to substance use, or interfere with efforts to abstain

158
Q

People with __ have episodes in which they act on aggressive impulses that result in serious assaults or destruction of property

A

Intermittent explosive disorder

159
Q

People with __ score high on assessments of impulsivity, reflecting their inability to judge the immediate gratification of stealing compared with the long-term negative consequences i.e. arrest, embarrassment

A

Kleptomania

160
Q

Patients with kleptomania often report having no memory (amnesia) about the act of shoplifting, True or False?

A

TRUUU

- Brain imaging research supports these observations

161
Q

What is pyromania? What is the treatment?

A

An impulse-control disorder that involves having an irresistible urge to set fires
Treatment: Cognitive-behavioral and involves helping the person identify the signals that initiate the urges and teaching coping strategies to resist the temptation to start fires

162
Q

__ are one of the most common reasons children are referred for mental health services

A

ADHD

163
Q

For ADHD, the DSM-5 differentiates two categories of symptoms:

A

1) Inattention - People may appear not to listen to others, lose things, make careless mistakes
2) Hyperactivity - includes figeting, having trouble sitting for any length of time and impulsivity - blurting out answers before questions have been completed and having trouble waiting turns

164
Q

In terms of ADHD and with respect to gender distribution, boys outnumber girls roughly __ to __

A

Four; one

165
Q

What happens to children and adolescents with ADHD as they become adults?

A

According to a study, when compared with a group without ADHD, the majority of these men (84 percent) were employed but in jobs with significantly lower positions than the comparison group, had 2.5 fewer years of education and were much less likely to hold higher degrees

166
Q

ADHD is frequently comorbid with other __ disorders, including oppositional defiant disorder

A

Disruptive behavior

167
Q

ADHD is considered to be highly influenced by __

A

Genetics; environmental influences play a relatively small role in the cause of the disorder when compared to many other disorders

168
Q

There is strong evidence that ADHD is associated with the dopamine __

A

D4 receptor gene, dopamine transporter gene (DAT1), and the dopamine D5 receptor gene

169
Q

What did the general finding from brain-imaging studies of those with and without ADHD?

A

Although no major damage is found in the brains of those with ADHD, there are subtitle differences: One of the more reliable findings is that the volume (or overall size) of the brain is smaller than is typical - the frontal cortex, basal ganglia, and the cerebellar vermis

170
Q

__ is characterized by performance that is substantially below what would be expected given the person’s age, IQ, and education

A

Specific learning disorder

171
Q

Three major characteristics of ASD are expressed in the DSM-5:

A

1) Impairments in social communication and social interaction
2) Restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities

172
Q

Individuals with the less severe form of ASD may also lack appropriate facial expressions or tone of voice, known as __

A

Prosody

173
Q

The DSM-5 identifies difficulties of intellectual disability (ID) in three domains:

A
  • Conceptual (language, reasoning, knowledge, memory)
  • Social (social judgment and ability to make and retain friendships)
  • Practical (difficulties managing personal care or job)
174
Q

What are the three categories to identify the abilities of students with ID?

A

1) Educable intellectual disability (IQ of 50 to approximately 70-75)
2) Trainable intellectual disability (IQ of 30 to 50)
3) Severe intellectual disability (IQ below 30)

175
Q

To be diagnosed with ID, a person must have:

A

Significantly subaverage intellectual functioning

176
Q

What are the known causes of ID?

A
  • Environmental (i.e. deprivation, abuse, and neglect)
  • Prenatal (exposure to disease or drugs while still in the womb)
  • Perinatal (difficulties during labour and delivery)
  • Postnatal (Infections, head injury)
177
Q

__ is a second common chromosomally related cause of ID. It is caused by an abnormality on the X chromosome, a mutation that makes the tip of the chromosome look as though it were hanging from a thread, giving it the appearance of fragility

A

Fragile X syndrome

178
Q

Cultural influences that may contribute to ID can include abuse, neglect, and social deprivation. Sometimes referred to as __

A

Cultural-familial intellectual disability

179
Q

__ is a type of intellectual disability caused by the presence of an extra 21st chromosome

A

Down syndrome

180
Q

Each province and territory has __ under the provincial or territorial Mental Health Acts that detail when a person can be legally detained in a psychiatric institution - even against his or her will

A

Civil commitment laws

181
Q

What is the criteria for civil commitment?

A

1) The person has a “mental disorder”
2) The person is dangerous to himself or herself or others
3) The person is in need of treatment

182
Q

Two types of authority permit the government to take actions that are against a citizen’s will:

A

1) Police power

2) Parens patriae “state as the parent”

183
Q

Under __, the government takes responsibility for protecting the public health, safety, and welfare and can create laws and regulations to ensure this protection

A

Police power

184
Q

The provinces and territories apply the second rationale for civil commitment - __ power - in circumstances in which citizens are not likely to act in their own best interest

A

Parens patriae
i.e. It is used to commit individuals with severe mental illness to mental health facilities when it is believed that they might be harmed because they are unable to secure the basic necessities of life, such as food and shelter, or because they do not recognize their need for treatment

185
Q

In Canada, people deemed suitable for commitment are not necessarily committed to a hospital. Instead, there are also options for __, for the mentally ill

A

Compulsory Community Treatments (CCT)

186
Q

What are CCT’s main goals?

A

To prevent relapse and to provide care in a less restrictive environment

187
Q

In Canadian jurisdictions, the patient must satisfy one of two necessary criteria for CCT:

A

The patient must have some risk of increased mental deterioration or possibly pose harm to themselves

188
Q

__ is a legal concept, typically meaning severe emotional or thought disturbances that negatively affect an individual’s health and safety

A

Mental health

189
Q

Among incarcerated individuals, inmates with serious mental illnesses like schizophrenia are less likely to commit a new violent offence upon release than inmates without serious mental illnesses. True or False?

A

True

190
Q

Many advances in assessing dangerousness have been made by Canadian research teams. A series of studies showed that a rating scale based on important predictors of violence and can reliably predict violence among individuals who have already been violent, are:

A
  • Psychopathy score
  • Never have been married
  • Failure on prior conditional release
191
Q

Two trends have influenced the number of people in Canada who are involuntary committed each year:

A

(1) The increase in the number of people who were homeless

2) Deinstitutionalization (the movement of people were severe mental illness out of institutions

192
Q

Which groups of people are overrepresented among the Canadian homeless?

A
  • First Nations people
  • Refugees
  • Ethnic minorities
193
Q

Deinstitutionalization had two goals:

A

1) To downsize or even close the large provincial and territorial mental hospitals
2) To create a network of community mental health services in which the released individuals could be treated

194
Q

__ or the movement of people with severe mental illness from large psychiatric hospitals to nursing homes or other group residences, including jails and prisons, many of which provide only marginal services

A

Transinstitutionalization

195
Q

The Supreme Court of Canada has acknowledged that in certain extreme cases involving battered woman syndrome, an accused may well be under a reasonable apprehension of death even though she is not in danger of __

A

Imminent or immediate harm at the moment that fore is used to protect herself

196
Q

__ is the process by which people are held because 1) they have been accused of committing a crime and are detained in a mental health facility until they can be assessed as fit or unfit to participate in legal proceedings against them or 2) they have been found not criminally responsible on account of a mental disorder

A

Criminal commitment

197
Q

Almost __ percent agreed that “insanity plea is a loophole that allows too many guilty people to go free”

A

90

198
Q

According to the Canadian Criminal Code, what does “unfit to stand trial” mean on account of mental disorder?

A

A) To understand the nature or object of the proceedings
B) Understand the possible consequences of the proceedings
C) Communicate with counsel

199
Q

What are expert witnesses?

A

Individuals who have specialized knowledge, to assist them in making decisions

200
Q

What is malingering?

A

To malinger is to fake or grossly exaggerate symptoms, usually to be absolved from blame
- Malingering is detectable using MMPI

201
Q

__, or formal agreement by the subject to participate after being fully apprised of all important aspects of the study, including any possibility of harm

A

Informed consent

202
Q

The __ axis is a thorough consideration of the scientific evidence to determine whether the intervention in question is effective

A

Clinical efficacy (internal validity) - Measure of whether a treatment works

203
Q

The __ axis is concerned with the effectiveness of the intervention in the practice setting in which it is to be applied

A

Clinical utility (external validity) - Measure of whether treatment is effective

204
Q

What is duty to warn?

A

An American legal standard and Canadian professional ethical standard that sets forth the responsibility of the therapist to warn potential victims that a client may attempt to hurt or kill them

205
Q

In __, people become acutely aware of any tension in their bodies and counteract it by relaxing specific muscle groups

A

Progressive muscle relaxation

206
Q

In __, attention is focused solely on a repeated syllable, or the mantra

A

Transcendental meditation (TM)

207
Q

What is the relaxation response?

A

A person silently repeats a mantra to minimize distraction by closing the mind to intruding thoughts

208
Q

Why are appraisals and attitudes an important part of stress?

A

Clients learn how they exaggerate the negative impact of events in their daily lives

209
Q

Individuals undergoing coronary artery bypass surgery who were optimistic recovered __ quickly, returned to normal activities __ rapidly, and reported a __ quality of life six months after surgery than those who were not optimistic

A

More; more; stronger

210
Q

Studies discovered that optimistic people are less likely to use __ as a means of coping with a severe stressor such as surgery

A

Denial

211
Q

Psychological and social factors influencing health and physical problems in two distinct ways:

A

Directly affecting biological processes and through unhealthy lifestyle

212
Q

What are the three most common behaviors that put us at risk in the long term for many physical disorders?

A
  • Unhealthy eating habits
  • Lack of exercise
  • Smoking
213
Q

__ are the fourth leading cause of death in Canada across all age ranges and the top cause of death for people aged 1 to 45

A

Injuries

214
Q

What were the five interventions of HIV prevention in a classroom-based intervention?

A

1) Factual information about HIV transmission and prevention and dispelling myths
2) Changing students’ attitudes and social norms about HIV risk and prevention
3) Enhancing students’ motivation to engage in HIV prevention
4) Training in behavioral skills for abstinence from sex and for acquiring and using condoms
5) Training in effectively communicating about safer sex

215
Q

What are the myths that characterize Chinese smokers?

A

1) The identification of smoking as a symbol of personal freedom
2) A perception that tobacco is important in social and cultural interactions
3) The perception that the health effects of smoking can be controlled through reasonable and measured use
4) The importance of tobacco to the economy

216
Q

__ is a relatively new disorder attributed at least in part to stress but may also have an as yet undiscovered viral or immune system dysfunction component

A

Chronic fatigue syndrome

217
Q

Approximately __ people in China are habitual smokers, __ percent of them male

A

250; 90

218
Q

What are the biological means of prevention for AIDS?

A

There is none, the disease is always fatal. However, drug therapy may control the virus and delay it

219
Q

__ typically involves joints, muscles, and tendons; may result from enlarged blood vessels, tissue degeneration, or cancerous tumours

A

Chronic pain

220
Q

The heart and blood vessels can be damaged by:

A
  • Stroke: blockage or rupture of blood vessels in the brain
  • Coronary heart disease: blockage of arteries supplying blood to the heart
  • Biological, psychological, and social factors also contribute
221
Q

More women are infected with AIDS through intravenous drug use than through heterosexual interactions. True or False?

A

False, more women are infected through heterosexual interactions

222
Q

Regarding injury control, children’s injury prevention focuses on:

A
  • Escaping fires
  • Crossing streets
  • Using car seats, seat belts, helmets
  • First aid

psyo 2220 - abnormal behavior (2 decks)

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