Exam 1 - Ch. 1,2,3, & 5 Flashcards

1
Q

__ is the field devoted to the scientific study of abnormal behavior to describe, predict, explain, and change abnormal patterns of functioning

A

Abnormal psychology

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2
Q

Abnormality usually determined by the presence of several characteristics at one time such as:

A
  • Statistical infrequency
  • Violation of norms
  • Personal distress
  • Disability or dysfunction
  • Unexpectedness
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3
Q

Anti-social behavior of the __ violates __ and is threatening to others

A

Psychopath; social norms

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4
Q

“Violation of norms” needs to be considered in reference to prevailing __

A

Cultural norms

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5
Q

Homosexuality removed from DSM in __

A

1973

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6
Q

__ is a behavior that creates personal suffering, distress or torment in the person

A

Personal distress

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7
Q

__ is a behavior that causes impairment in some important area of life i.e. work, personal relationships, recreational activities

A

Impairment

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8
Q

__ is a surprising or out-of-proportion response to environmental stressors can be considered abnormal

A

Unexpectedness

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9
Q

Although generally is defined as behavior that is deviant, distressful, dysfunctional, and dangerous, these criteria often are __

A

Vague / subjective

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10
Q

__ are inflexible and maladaptive, causing distress and/or impairment

A

Predispositions

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11
Q

A personality disorder typically becomes recognizable in __ or __

A

Adolescence; early adulthood

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12
Q

What are the ABCs of psychological functioning:

A

Affect
Behavior
Cognition

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13
Q

__ is the range, intensity, and changeability of emotions and emotional responsiveness

A

Affect

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14
Q

__ is the ability to control impulses and interactions with others

A

Behavior

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15
Q

__ is perceptions and interpretations of events, other people, and oneself

A

Cognition

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16
Q

Those diagnosed with personality disorders are often also diagnosed with an Axis I disorder. This relationship is called __

A

Comorbidity

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17
Q

The various personality disorders __ each other so much that it can be difficult to distinguish one from another

A

Overlap

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18
Q

The frequent __ between clinicians and diagnosticians has raised concerns about the validity (accuracy) and reliability (consistency) of these categories

A

Lack of agreement

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19
Q

Personality disorders Cluster A:

A
  • Paranoid
  • Schizoid
  • Schizotypal
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20
Q

Personality disorders Cluster B:

A
  • Anti-social
  • Borderline
  • Histrionic
  • Narcissistic
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21
Q

Personality disorders Cluster C:

A
  • Avoidant
  • Dependent
  • Obsessive-compulsive
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22
Q

Between __% and __% of the general population is estimated to have paranoid personality disorder

A

0.5; 4.5

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23
Q

__ is characterized by persistent avoidance of social relationships and limited emotional expression

A

Schizoid personality disorder

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24
Q

Which disorder is this?

  • Withdrawn and reclusive, people with this disorder do not have close ties with other people; they genuinely prefer to be alone
  • Focus mainly on themselves and are often seen as flat, cold, humorless, and dull
  • Estimated to affect fewer than 1% of the population (slightly more likely to occur in men than in women)
A

Schizoid Personality Disorder

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25
What are the clinical features of the Schizotypal Personality Disorder?
- Behavior and dress is odd and unusual - Most are socially isolated and may be highly suspicious of others - Magical thinking, ideas of reference, and illusions are common - Risk for developing schizophrenia is high in this group - Many also meet criteria for major depression
26
The behaviors of people with these disorders are so dramatic, emotional, or erratic that it is almost impossible for them to have relationships that are truly giving and satisfying. Which disorder is this?
"Dramatic" personality disorder
27
__ is a negative mood state characterized by bodily symptoms of physical tension, and apprehension about the future
Anxiety
28
__ is an immediate alarm reaction to danger
Fear
29
A __ is defined as an abrupt experience of intense fear or acute discomfort, accompanied by physical symptoms that usually include heart palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath, and possibly dizziness
Panic attack
30
What does DSM stand for?
The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
31
Depleted levels of gamma aminobutyruc acid (GABA), are associated with increased __
Anxiety
32
The __ system, as well as the serotonergic neurotransmitter system, is also involved in anxiety
Noradrenergic
33
The most common additional diagnosis for all anxiety disorders was __
Major depression
34
The area of the brain most often associated with anxiety is the __
Limbic system
35
The __ acts as a mediator between the brain stem and the cortex
Limbic system
36
The __ is activated by signals from the brain stem of unexpected events, such as major changes in body functioning that might signal danger
Behavioral inhibition system
37
The __ originates in the brain stem and travels through several midbrain structures, including the amygdala, the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus, and the central gray matter; when stimulated produces an immediate alarm-and-escape response
Fight/flight system (FFS) | - Believed that the FFS is activated partly by deficiencies in serotonin
38
__ cues are places or situations similar to the one where the initial panic attack occurred, whereas __ cues are increases in heart rate or respiration that were associated with the initial panic attack, even if they are now the result of normal circumstances i.e. exercise
External; internal
39
__ trigger our biological and psychological vulnerabilities to anxiety
Stressful life events
40
Putting the factors together in an integrated way, we have described a theory of development of anxiety called the __
Triple vulnerability theory
41
The first vulnerability (or diathesis) is a __
Generalized biological vulnerability | --> We can see that a tendency to be uptight or high-strung might be inherited
42
The second vulnerability is a __, for example you might grow up believing the world is dangerous and out of control and you might not be able to cope when things go wrong based on your early experiences
Generalized psychological vulnerability
43
The third vulnerability is a __ in which you learn from early experience, such as being taught by your parents, that some situations or objects are fraught with danger (even if they really aren't)
Specific psychological vulnerability
44
Anxiety disorders combined with depression will make the risk of suicide significantly __ than the risk for a person who has depression alone
Greater
45
__ describes worrying and being unable to decide what to do about an upcoming problem or situation
Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
46
Anxiety is associated with specific __ (e.g., behavioral inhibition system or fight/flight system) and __ systems (e.g., noradrenergic)
Brain circuits; neurotransmitter
47
__ is associated with autonomic arousal, presumably as a result of a sympathetic nervous system surge (i.e., increased heart rate, palpitations)
Panic
48
__ is characterized by muscle tension, mental agitation, susceptibility, some irritability, and difficult sleeping
GAD
49
People with __ mostly worry about minor, everyday life events, a characteristic that distinguishes GAD from other anxiety disorders
GAD
50
GAD was found to be most common in the __ group, and least common in the __ group
Older (45+ years); youngest (15-24 years)
51
What causes GAD?
There may be a genetic contribution - Several studies have found that individuals with GAD show less responsiveness on most physiological measures i.e. heart rate, blood pressure, skin conductance, etc.
52
The one physiological measure that consistently distinguishes the anxious group is __
Muscle tension
53
What are the four distinct cognitive characteristics of people with GAD?
1) Intolerance of uncertainty 2) Erroneous beliefs about worry 3) Poor problem orientation 4) Cognitive avoidance
54
__ are most often prescribed for generalized anxiety, and the evidence indicates that they give some relief, at least in the short term
Benzodiazepines
55
There is stronger evidence for the usefulness of __ in the treatment of GAD, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine
Antidepressants
56
__ in which individuals experience severe unexpected panic attacks
Panic Disorder (PD)
57
PD is accompanied by a closely related disorder called __, which is fear and avoidance of situations in which a person feels unsafe or unable to escape to get home or to a hospital in the event of a developing panic symptoms or other physical symptoms
Agoraphobia
58
__ is significantly associated with the use of cocaine, stimulants, and hallucinogens
Panic Disorder (PD)
59
Panic attacks occur more frequently between __ and __ than at any other time
1:30 a.m; 3:30 a.m
60
Nocturnal panics occur during __ or __, which typically occurs several hours after we fall asleep and is the deepest stage of sleep
Delta wave; slow-wave sleep
61
__, similar to nocturnal panic, occurs during the transitional state between sleep and waking. During this period the individual is unable to move and experiences a surge of terror that resembles a panic attack; occasionally, the person who also has vivid hallucinations
Isolated sleep paralysis
62
What are two possible explanations of isolated sleep paralysis?
1) REM sleep is spilling over into the waking cycle (one feature of REM sleep is lack of bodily movement) 2) Vivid dreams, which could account for the experience of hallucination
63
Harmless exercise is an example of a(n) __ cue or a conditioned stimulus for a panic attack
Internal
64
Cues that become associated with several different internal and external stimuli through a learning process is called __
Learned alarms
65
A model of the causes of panic disorder with or without agoraphobia would look like: __ --> __ --> __ --> __ --> __ --> __ --> __
``` Generalized psychological or biological vulnerability; Stress; False alarm; Learned alarm; Specific psychological vulnerability; Anxious apprehension; Panic disorder ```
66
What is the strategy of exposure-based treatments?
To arrange conditions in which the patient can gradually face the feared situations and learn there is nothing to fear
67
__ concentrates on exposing patients with panic disorder to the cluster of interoceptive sensations that remind them of their panic attacks
Panic control treatment (PCT)
68
General conclusions from the study of the separate and combined effects of psychological and drug treatments suggest __
No advantage to combining drugs and CBT initially for panic disorder and agoraphobia
69
A __ is an irrational fear of a specific object or situation that markedly interferes with an individual's ability to function
Specific phobia
70
What are the four major subtypes of specific phobia?
1) Animal type 2) Natural environment type (i.e. heights, storms, water) 3) Blood-injury-injection type 4) Situational type (i.e. planes, elevators, or enclosed places) - A fifth category, "other" includes phobias that do not fit any of the four major subtypes
71
Those with __ phobias almost always differ in their physiological reaction from people with other types of phobia
Blood-injury-injection
72
Phobias characterized by fear of public transportation or enclosed places are called __
Situational phobias
73
What is the main difference between situational phobia and panic disorder with agoraphobia?
People with situational phobia never experience panic attacks outside the context of their phobic object or situation - Therefore they can relax when they don't have to confront their phobic situation
74
Fears of situations or events occurring in nature is callec __
Natural environment phobias | i.e. heights, storms, water
75
Fear of animals and insects are called __
Animal phobias
76
What are two other ways besides experiencing a traumatic event that is the 'cause' of specific phobias?
1) Observing someone else experience severe fear 2) Being told about danger - People can also develop phobias by experiencing a false alarm (panic attack) in a specific situation
77
Specific phobias require __ and __ exercises
Structured; consistent exposure-based
78
__ is characterized by a child's unrealistic and persistent worry that something will happen to his parents or other important people in his life, or that something will happen to the child himself that will separate him from his parents
Separation anxiety disorder
79
__ percent of adults with Severe Anxiety Disorder (SAD) in their sample experienced severe teasing and bullying in childhood, compared with only __ percent to __ percent among people with other anxiety disorders
92; 35; 50
80
A much smaller number of people, who suffer severely around others, have __
Social anxiety disorder (SAD)
81
In the United States, __ are typically more likely to be diagnosed with social anxiety disorder (as well as GAD and PD) than other faces. __ cultures show the lowest rates of SAD
White Americans; Asian
82
__ is a rare childhood disorder characterized by a lack of speech in one or more settings in which speaking is socially expected
Selective mutism (SM)
83
Nearly __ percent of a series of 50 children with selective mutism also met criteria for SAD
100
84
PTSD cannot be made until at least __ month(s) after the occurrence of the traumatic event, and when PTSD continues longer than __ month(s), it is considered chronic
One; Three
85
__ is similar to PTSD, occurring within the first month after the trauma, but the different name emphasizes the very severe reaction that some people have immediately
Acute stress disorder | - 50% of individuals with acute stress disorder went on to develop PTSD
86
Intensity of exposure to assaultive violence contributes to the etiology of __
PTSD
87
A __ of anxiety suggests a generalized biological vulnerability for PTSD
Family history - Genetic factors predispose individuals to be easily stressed and anxious, making it more likely that a traumatic experience will result in PTSD
88
__ describe anxious or depressive reactions to life stress that are generally milder than one would see in acute stress disorder or PTSD but are nevertheless impairing in terms of interfering with work or school performance, etc.
Adjustment disorders
89
If the symptoms persist for more than __ month(s) after the removal of the stress or its consequences, the adjustment disorder would be considered chronic
Six
90
__ refer to disturbed and developmentally inappropriate behaviors in children, emerging before five years of age, in which the child is unable or unwilling to form normal attachment relationships with caregiving adults
Attachment disorders
91
In __ the child will very seldom seek out a caregiver for protection, support, and nurturance and will seldom respond to offers from caregivers to provide this kind of care
Reactive attachment disorder
92
In __, a similar set of child-rearing circumstances, perhaps including early persistent harsh punishment, would result in a pattern of behavior in which the child shows no inhibitions whatsoever to approaching adults. They might engage in inappropriately intimate behavior
Disinhibited social engagement disorder
93
__ is the devastating culmination of the anxiety and related disorders
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)
94
__ are intrusive and mostly nonsensical thoughts, images, or urges that the individual tries to resist or eliminate
Obsessions
95
__ are the thoughts or actions used to suppress the obsessions and provide relief
Compulsions
96
What are the four major types of obsessions?
1) Symmetry obsessions (keeping things in order or doing something in a specific way) 2) "Forbidden thoughts or actions" (i.e. May feel they are about to yell out a swear word in church) 3) Cleaning and contamination 4) Hoarding
97
__ is characterized by involuntary movement (sudden jerking of limbs for example) to co-occur in patients with OCD (particularly children) or in their families
Tic disorder
98
__ is one of the more radical treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder. It is a radical treatment for OCD involving a surgical lesion to the cingulate bundle
Psychosurgery
99
__ is a psychological disorder in which a person becomes obsessed with imaginary defects in their appearance
Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)
100
The urge to pull out one's own hair from anywhere on the body, including the scalp, eyebrows, and arms, is referred to as __
Trichotillomania | - Results in noticeable hair loss, distress, and significant social impairments
101
__ is characterized as repetitive and compulsive picking of the skin, leading to tissue damage (largely a female disorder)
Excoriation
102
__ is characterized by deep distrust and suspicion of others
Paranoid personality disorder | - As a result, often remain cold and distant
103
__ is characterized by being likely to lie repeatedly, be reckless, sexually promiscuous, and impulsive
Antisocial personality disorder
104
__ is characterized by extremely emotional people and continually seek to be the center of attention
Histrionic personality disorder
105
__ describes people who need much admiration, feel no empathy for others, convinced of their own great success, power or beauty, exaggerate their achievements, and often appear arrogant
Narcissistic personality disorder
106
__ describes people who are impulsive, have self-damaging behaviors, are unstable, and have anger control problems
Borderline personality disorder (BPD)
107
People with __ are very uncomfortable and inhibited in social situations, overwhelmed by feelings of inadequacy, and extremely sensitive to negative evaluation (they believe they are unappealing or inferior and often have few close friends)
Avoidant personality disorder
108
People with __ have a pervasive, excessive need to be taken care of. They are clinging and obedient, fearing separation from loved ones and rely on others
Dependent personality disorder
109
A(n) __, is a psychological dysfunction within an individual that is associated with distress or impairment in functioning and a response that is not typical or culturally expected
Psychological disorder
110
__ refers to a breakdown in cognitive, emotional, or behavioral functioning
Psychological dysfunction
111
__ is the anticipated course of a disorder
Prognosis
112
__ is the study of origins, and has to do with why a disorder begins (what causes it) and includes biological, psychological, and social dimensions
Etiology
113
Maria should recover quickly with no intervention necessary. Without treatment, David will deteriorate rapidly. What is this? __
Prognosis
114
Three new cases of bulimia have been reported in this county during the past month and only one in the next county. What is this? __
Incidence
115
Liz visited the campus mental health centre because of her increasing feelings of guilt and anxiety. What is this? __
Presenting problem
116
The pattern a disorder follows can be chronic, time limited or episodic. What is this? __
Course
117
During the Middle Ages, individuals with psychological disorders were sometimes thought to be __
Possessed by evil spirits that had to be exorcised through rituals
118
A feeling of pensive sadness, typically with no obvious cause is referred to as __
Melancholy
119
A __ indicates apathy and sluggishness but can also mean being calm under stress
Phlegmatic personality
120
A(n) __ person (from yellow bile or choler) is hot tempered
Choleric
121
The humoral theory reflected the belief that normal functioning of the brain required a balance of four bodily fluids, or humors. Which "cure" was used?
Bloodletting
122
__ began the mental hygiene movement and spent much of her life campaigning for reform in the treatment of people with mental illnesses
Dorothea Dix
123
The first major approach, __, elaborates the theory of the structure of the mind and the roe of unconscious processes in determining behavior
Psychoanalysis
124
The second approach, __, focuses on how learning and adaptation affect the development of psychopathology
Behaviorism
125
Recalling and reliving emotional trauma that has been made unconscious and releasing the accompanying tension, is a process known as __
Catharsis
126
Freud took basic observations and expanded them into the __, the most comprehensive theory yet constructed on the development and structure of our personalities
Psychoanalytic model
127
The __ is the source of our strong sexual and aggressive energies or our instinctual drives- the "animal" within us
Id | - Operates according to the pleasure principle
128
The part of our mind that ensures we act realistically is called the __, and it operates according to the reality principle
Ego
129
The third important structure within the mind, the __, (conscience) represents the moral principles instilled in us
Superego
130
Conflicts that are all within the mind are called __
Intrapsychic conflicts
131
__ are unconscious protective processes that keep primitive emotions associated with conflicts in check so the ego can continue its coordinating function
Defence mechanisms
132
__ is the study of how children incorporate the images, memories, and sometimes values of a person who was very important to them and to whom they were/are emotionally attached
Object relations
133
__ in which patients are instructed to say whatever comes to mind without the usual socially mandated censoring
Free association
134
In a phenomenon called __, patients come to relate to the therapist very much as they did toward important figures in their childhood
Transference
135
__ is the underlying assumption that all of us can reach our highest potential
Self-actualizing
136
__, is the complete and almost unqualified acceptance of most of the client's feelings and actions
Unconditional positive regard
137
__ helps clients to develop an awareness of their desires and needs, and to understand how they might be blocking themselves from reaching their potential
Gestalt therapy
138
__ is a type of learning in which a neutral stimulus is paired with a response until it elicits that response
Classical conditioning (Pavlov)
139
__ is a process of reinforcing successive approximations to a final behavior
Shaping
140
__ is a learning principle that uses positive and negative reinforcement to control and manipulate behavior
Operant conditioning (Skinner)
141
What is a developmental critical period?
When we are more or less reactive to a given situation or influence than at other times
142
__ is when individuals inherit, from multiple genes, tendencies to express certain traits or behaviors, which may then be activated under conditions of stress
Diathesis-stress model
143
Genetic endowment may __ the probability that an individual will experience stressful life events
Increase
144
The __ is the most interesting point of view of psychopathology as it carries most of the weight of our thinking and reasoning abilities as well as our memory
Frontal lobe
145
The __ controls the muscles
Somatic nervous system
146
The __ includes the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)
Autonomic
147
Which structure of the brain is involved in movement, breathing, and sleeping (present in most animals)?
Brain stem
148
Which area contains parts of the reticular activating system and coordinates movement with sensory output?
Frontal lobe
149
More than 80 percent of the neurons in the human central nervous system are contained in __ part of the brain, which gives us distinct qualities
Cerebral cortex
150
Which area is responsible for most of our memory, thinking, and reasoning capabilities, and makes us social animals?
Midbrain
151
Each endocrine gland produces its own chemical messenger, called a __
Hormone
152
The adrenal glands produce __ in response to stress, as well as salt-regulating hormones
Epinephrine (also called adrenaline)
153
The thyroid gland produces __ which facilitates energy, metabolism, and growth
Thyroxine
154
The __ is a master gland that produces a variety of regulatory hormones
Pituitary
155
The __ glands produce sex hormones such as estrogen and testosterone
Gonadal
156
The __ system is closely related to the immune system
Endocrine
157
The __ is primarily responsible for mobilizing the body during times of stress or danger, by rapidly activating the organs and glands under its control
Sympathetic nervous system (SNS)
158
One of the functions of the __ is to balance in the sympathetic system
``` Parasympathetic system (PNS) - The PNS takes over after the SNS has been active for awhile, normalizing our arousal and facilitating the storage of energy by helping the digestive process ```
159
__ are substances that effectively increase the activity of a neurotransmitter by mimicking its effects
Agonists
160
__ are substances that decrease or block a neurotransmitter
Antagonists
161
__ are substances that produce effects opposite to those produced by the neurotransmitter
Inverse agonists
162
After a neurotransmitter is released, it is quickly drawn back from the synaptic cleft into the same neuron. This process is called __
Reuptake
163
Two types of neurotransmitters, __ and __, have been most studied in regard to psychopathology
Monoamines; amino acids
164
Neurotransmitters in the monoamine class include __, __, and __
Norepinephrine (noradrenaline); serotonin; dopamine
165
Amino acid neurotransmitters include __ and __
GABA and glutamat
166
__ is an excitatory transmitter that "turns on" many different neurons, leading to action
Glutamate
167
__ is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that inhibits (or regulates) the transmission of information and action potentials
GABA | - Best known effect is to reduce anxiety
168
__ is believed to influence a great deal of our behavior, particularly the way we process information. It also regulates our behavior, moods, and thought processes
Serotonin
169
Low __ activity has been associated with aggression, suicide, impulsive over-eating, and excessive sexual behavior
Serotonin
170
What are SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) used for?
Treat a number of psychological disorders, particularly anxiety, mood, and eating disorders
171
__ may bear some relationship to states of panic
Norepinephrine
172
__ has been implicated in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia and disorders of addiction
Dopamine | - Some research suggests it plays a significant role in depression and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
173
Deficiencies in __ have been associated with disorders such as Parkinson's disease
Dopamine
174
Patients with OCD have increased anxiety in the part of the frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex called the __
Orbital surface | - Increased activity is also present in the cingulate gyrus and also the caudate nucleus (a lesser extent)
175
Which neurotransmitter binds to neuron receptor sites, inhibiting postsynaptic activity and reducing overall arousal?
GABA
176
Which neurotransmitter is a switch that turns on various brain circuits?
Dopamine
177
Which neurotransmitter seems to be involved in your emergency reactions or alarm responses?
Norepinephrine
178
Which neurotransmitter is believed to influence the way we process information, as well as to moderate or inhibit our behavior?
Serotonin
179
A phenomenon called __, occurs when rats or other animals encounter conditions over which they have no control whatsoever
Learned helplessness
180
__ is apparent when someone clearly acts on the basis of things that have happened in the past but can't remember the events
Implicit
181
Karen noticed that every time Don behaved well at lunch, the teacher praised him. Karen decided to behave better to receive praise herself. This is called __
Modelling
182
Jin stopped trying to please his father because he never knows whether his father will be proud or outraged. This is called __
Learned helplessness
183
Greg fell into a lake as a baby and almost drowned. Even though Greg has no recollection of the event, he hates to be around large bodies of water. This is called __
Implicit memory
184
Celine was scared to death of the tarantula, even though she knew it wasn't likely to hurt her. This is called __
Prepared learning
185
The goal is to restructure the maladaptive schema. This process is called __
Cognitive restructuring
186
__ is a principle used in developmental psychopathology to indicate that we must consider many paths to a given outcome
Equifinality
187
The likelihood of you having a particular phobia is powerfully influenced by your __
Gender
188
A large number of studies have demonstrated that the greater number and frequency of __ relationships, the longer you are likely to live
Social
189
The effect of social and interpersonal factors on the expression of physical and psychological disorders may differ with __
Age
190
The principle of __ is used in developmental psychopathology to indicate that we must consider a number of paths to a given outcome
Equifinality
191
__ is the systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social factors in an individual presenting with a possible psychological disorder
Clinical assessment
192
__ is the process of determining whether the particular problem afflicting the individual meets all the criteria for a psychological disorder
Diagnosis
193
__ is the degree to which a measurement is consistent
Reliability
194
__ is whether something measures what it is designed to measure
Validity
195
__ is the process by which a certain set of standards or norms is determined for a technique to make its use consistent across different measurements
Standardization
196
The mental status exam covers five categories:
1) Appearance and behavior 2) Thought processes 3) Mood and affect 4) Intellectual functioning 5) Sensorium (general awareness of our surroundings)
197
__ takes the mental status exam one step further by using direct observation to formally assess an individual's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in specific situations or contexts
Behavioral assessment
198
__ involves identifying specific behaviors that are observable and measurable
Formal observation
199
People can also observe their own behavior to find patterns, a technique known as __
Self-monitoring (or self-observation)
200
Ambiguous stimuli, such as pictures of people or things, are presented to a person who is asked to describe what he or she sees, is known as __
Projective tests
201
__ measures abilities in areas such as receptive and expressive language, attention and concentration, memory, motor skills, perceptual abilities, and learning and abstraction
Neuropsychological testing
202
With the use of neuropsychological tests, the test will occasionally show a problem when none exists __, and will not fin a problem when indeed some difficulty is present __
False positive; false negative
203
Patients with early Alzheimer's type dementia show reduced __ in the parietal lobes
Glucose metabolism
204
Measuring electrical activity in the head related to the firing of a specific group of neurons reveals brain wave activity
Electroencephalogram (EEG)
205
(CAT) scan or CT scan is called a __
Computerized axial tomography
206
__ are partially blocked or attenuated more by bone and less by brain tissue, and are passed directly through the head
X-rays
207
A commonly used scanning technique, __, is when the head is placed in a high-strength magnetic field through which radio frequency signals are transmitted. these signals "excite" the brain tissue, altering the protons in the hydrogen atoms
Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
208
__, is when the outcome is the criterion by which we judge the usefulness of the category
Criterion validity