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PSYO 2220 - Abnormal Behavior > Exam 1 - Ch. 1,2,3, & 5 > Flashcards

Exam 1 - Ch. 1,2,3, & 5 Flashcards

1
Q

__ is the field devoted to the scientific study of abnormal behavior to describe, predict, explain, and change abnormal patterns of functioning

A

Abnormal psychology

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2
Q

Abnormality usually determined by the presence of several characteristics at one time such as:

A
  • Statistical infrequency
  • Violation of norms
  • Personal distress
  • Disability or dysfunction
  • Unexpectedness
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3
Q

Anti-social behavior of the __ violates __ and is threatening to others

A

Psychopath; social norms

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4
Q

“Violation of norms” needs to be considered in reference to prevailing __

A

Cultural norms

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5
Q

Homosexuality removed from DSM in __

A

1973

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6
Q

__ is a behavior that creates personal suffering, distress or torment in the person

A

Personal distress

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7
Q

__ is a behavior that causes impairment in some important area of life i.e. work, personal relationships, recreational activities

A

Impairment

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8
Q

__ is a surprising or out-of-proportion response to environmental stressors can be considered abnormal

A

Unexpectedness

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9
Q

Although generally is defined as behavior that is deviant, distressful, dysfunctional, and dangerous, these criteria often are __

A

Vague / subjective

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10
Q

__ are inflexible and maladaptive, causing distress and/or impairment

A

Predispositions

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11
Q

A personality disorder typically becomes recognizable in __ or __

A

Adolescence; early adulthood

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12
Q

What are the ABCs of psychological functioning:

A

Affect
Behavior
Cognition

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13
Q

__ is the range, intensity, and changeability of emotions and emotional responsiveness

A

Affect

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14
Q

__ is the ability to control impulses and interactions with others

A

Behavior

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15
Q

__ is perceptions and interpretations of events, other people, and oneself

A

Cognition

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16
Q

Those diagnosed with personality disorders are often also diagnosed with an Axis I disorder. This relationship is called __

A

Comorbidity

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17
Q

The various personality disorders __ each other so much that it can be difficult to distinguish one from another

A

Overlap

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18
Q

The frequent __ between clinicians and diagnosticians has raised concerns about the validity (accuracy) and reliability (consistency) of these categories

A

Lack of agreement

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19
Q

Personality disorders Cluster A:

A
  • Paranoid
  • Schizoid
  • Schizotypal
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20
Q

Personality disorders Cluster B:

A
  • Anti-social
  • Borderline
  • Histrionic
  • Narcissistic
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21
Q

Personality disorders Cluster C:

A
  • Avoidant
  • Dependent
  • Obsessive-compulsive
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22
Q

Between __% and __% of the general population is estimated to have paranoid personality disorder

A

0.5; 4.5

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23
Q

__ is characterized by persistent avoidance of social relationships and limited emotional expression

A

Schizoid personality disorder

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24
Q

Which disorder is this?

  • Withdrawn and reclusive, people with this disorder do not have close ties with other people; they genuinely prefer to be alone
  • Focus mainly on themselves and are often seen as flat, cold, humorless, and dull
  • Estimated to affect fewer than 1% of the population (slightly more likely to occur in men than in women)
A

Schizoid Personality Disorder

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25
Q

What are the clinical features of the Schizotypal Personality Disorder?

A
  • Behavior and dress is odd and unusual
  • Most are socially isolated and may be highly suspicious of others
  • Magical thinking, ideas of reference, and illusions are common
  • Risk for developing schizophrenia is high in this group
  • Many also meet criteria for major depression
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26
Q

The behaviors of people with these disorders are so dramatic, emotional, or erratic that it is almost impossible for them to have relationships that are truly giving and satisfying.
Which disorder is this?

A

“Dramatic” personality disorder

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27
Q

__ is a negative mood state characterized by bodily symptoms of physical tension, and apprehension about the future

A

Anxiety

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28
Q

__ is an immediate alarm reaction to danger

A

Fear

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29
Q

A __ is defined as an abrupt experience of intense fear or acute discomfort, accompanied by physical symptoms that usually include heart palpitations, chest pain, shortness of breath, and possibly dizziness

A

Panic attack

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30
Q

What does DSM stand for?

A

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

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31
Q

Depleted levels of gamma aminobutyruc acid (GABA), are associated with increased __

A

Anxiety

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32
Q

The __ system, as well as the serotonergic neurotransmitter system, is also involved in anxiety

A

Noradrenergic

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33
Q

The most common additional diagnosis for all anxiety disorders was __

A

Major depression

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34
Q

The area of the brain most often associated with anxiety is the __

A

Limbic system

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35
Q

The __ acts as a mediator between the brain stem and the cortex

A

Limbic system

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36
Q

The __ is activated by signals from the brain stem of unexpected events, such as major changes in body functioning that might signal danger

A

Behavioral inhibition system

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37
Q

The __ originates in the brain stem and travels through several midbrain structures, including the amygdala, the ventromedial nucleus of the hypothalamus, and the central gray matter; when stimulated produces an immediate alarm-and-escape response

A

Fight/flight system (FFS)

- Believed that the FFS is activated partly by deficiencies in serotonin

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38
Q

__ cues are places or situations similar to the one where the initial panic attack occurred, whereas __ cues are increases in heart rate or respiration that were associated with the initial panic attack, even if they are now the result of normal circumstances i.e. exercise

A

External; internal

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39
Q

__ trigger our biological and psychological vulnerabilities to anxiety

A

Stressful life events

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40
Q

Putting the factors together in an integrated way, we have described a theory of development of anxiety called the __

A

Triple vulnerability theory

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41
Q

The first vulnerability (or diathesis) is a __

A

Generalized biological vulnerability

–> We can see that a tendency to be uptight or high-strung might be inherited

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42
Q

The second vulnerability is a __, for example you might grow up believing the world is dangerous and out of control and you might not be able to cope when things go wrong based on your early experiences

A

Generalized psychological vulnerability

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43
Q

The third vulnerability is a __ in which you learn from early experience, such as being taught by your parents, that some situations or objects are fraught with danger (even if they really aren’t)

A

Specific psychological vulnerability

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44
Q

Anxiety disorders combined with depression will make the risk of suicide significantly __ than the risk for a person who has depression alone

A

Greater

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45
Q

__ describes worrying and being unable to decide what to do about an upcoming problem or situation

A

Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)

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46
Q

Anxiety is associated with specific __ (e.g., behavioral inhibition system or fight/flight system) and __ systems (e.g., noradrenergic)

A

Brain circuits; neurotransmitter

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47
Q

__ is associated with autonomic arousal, presumably as a result of a sympathetic nervous system surge (i.e., increased heart rate, palpitations)

A

Panic

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48
Q

__ is characterized by muscle tension, mental agitation, susceptibility, some irritability, and difficult sleeping

A

GAD

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49
Q

People with __ mostly worry about minor, everyday life events, a characteristic that distinguishes GAD from other anxiety disorders

A

GAD

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50
Q

GAD was found to be most common in the __ group, and least common in the __ group

A

Older (45+ years); youngest (15-24 years)

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51
Q

What causes GAD?

A

There may be a genetic contribution
- Several studies have found that individuals with GAD show less responsiveness on most physiological measures i.e. heart rate, blood pressure, skin conductance, etc.

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52
Q

The one physiological measure that consistently distinguishes the anxious group is __

A

Muscle tension

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53
Q

What are the four distinct cognitive characteristics of people with GAD?

A

1) Intolerance of uncertainty
2) Erroneous beliefs about worry
3) Poor problem orientation
4) Cognitive avoidance

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54
Q

__ are most often prescribed for generalized anxiety, and the evidence indicates that they give some relief, at least in the short term

A

Benzodiazepines

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55
Q

There is stronger evidence for the usefulness of __ in the treatment of GAD, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine

A

Antidepressants

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56
Q

__ in which individuals experience severe unexpected panic attacks

A

Panic Disorder (PD)

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57
Q

PD is accompanied by a closely related disorder called __, which is fear and avoidance of situations in which a person feels unsafe or unable to escape to get home or to a hospital in the event of a developing panic symptoms or other physical symptoms

A

Agoraphobia

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58
Q

__ is significantly associated with the use of cocaine, stimulants, and hallucinogens

A

Panic Disorder (PD)

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59
Q

Panic attacks occur more frequently between __ and __ than at any other time

A

1:30 a.m; 3:30 a.m

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60
Q

Nocturnal panics occur during __ or __, which typically occurs several hours after we fall asleep and is the deepest stage of sleep

A

Delta wave; slow-wave sleep

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61
Q

__, similar to nocturnal panic, occurs during the transitional state between sleep and waking. During this period the individual is unable to move and experiences a surge of terror that resembles a panic attack; occasionally, the person who also has vivid hallucinations

A

Isolated sleep paralysis

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62
Q

What are two possible explanations of isolated sleep paralysis?

A

1) REM sleep is spilling over into the waking cycle (one feature of REM sleep is lack of bodily movement)
2) Vivid dreams, which could account for the experience of hallucination

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63
Q

Harmless exercise is an example of a(n) __ cue or a conditioned stimulus for a panic attack

A

Internal

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64
Q

Cues that become associated with several different internal and external stimuli through a learning process is called __

A

Learned alarms

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65
Q

A model of the causes of panic disorder with or without agoraphobia would look like:
__ –> __ –> __ –> __ –> __ –> __ –> __

A 
Generalized psychological or biological vulnerability; 
Stress;
False alarm;
Learned alarm;
Specific psychological vulnerability;
Anxious apprehension;
Panic disorder
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66
Q

What is the strategy of exposure-based treatments?

A

To arrange conditions in which the patient can gradually face the feared situations and learn there is nothing to fear

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67
Q

__ concentrates on exposing patients with panic disorder to the cluster of interoceptive sensations that remind them of their panic attacks

A

Panic control treatment (PCT)

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68
Q

General conclusions from the study of the separate and combined effects of psychological and drug treatments suggest __

A

No advantage to combining drugs and CBT initially for panic disorder and agoraphobia

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69
Q

A __ is an irrational fear of a specific object or situation that markedly interferes with an individual’s ability to function

A

Specific phobia

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70
Q

What are the four major subtypes of specific phobia?

A

1) Animal type
2) Natural environment type (i.e. heights, storms, water)
3) Blood-injury-injection type
4) Situational type (i.e. planes, elevators, or enclosed places)
- A fifth category, “other” includes phobias that do not fit any of the four major subtypes

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71
Q

Those with __ phobias almost always differ in their physiological reaction from people with other types of phobia

A

Blood-injury-injection

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72
Q

Phobias characterized by fear of public transportation or enclosed places are called __

A

Situational phobias

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73
Q

What is the main difference between situational phobia and panic disorder with agoraphobia?

A

People with situational phobia never experience panic attacks outside the context of their phobic object or situation
- Therefore they can relax when they don’t have to confront their phobic situation

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74
Q

Fears of situations or events occurring in nature is callec __

A

Natural environment phobias

i.e. heights, storms, water

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75
Q

Fear of animals and insects are called __

A

Animal phobias

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76
Q

What are two other ways besides experiencing a traumatic event that is the ‘cause’ of specific phobias?

A

1) Observing someone else experience severe fear
2) Being told about danger
- People can also develop phobias by experiencing a false alarm (panic attack) in a specific situation

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77
Q

Specific phobias require __ and __ exercises

A

Structured; consistent exposure-based

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78
Q

__ is characterized by a child’s unrealistic and persistent worry that something will happen to his parents or other important people in his life, or that something will happen to the child himself that will separate him from his parents

A

Separation anxiety disorder

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79
Q

__ percent of adults with Severe Anxiety Disorder (SAD) in their sample experienced severe teasing and bullying in childhood, compared with only __ percent to __ percent among people with other anxiety disorders

A

92; 35; 50

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80
Q

A much smaller number of people, who suffer severely around others, have __

A

Social anxiety disorder (SAD)

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81
Q

In the United States, __ are typically more likely to be diagnosed with social anxiety disorder (as well as GAD and PD) than other faces. __ cultures show the lowest rates of SAD

A

White Americans; Asian

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82
Q

__ is a rare childhood disorder characterized by a lack of speech in one or more settings in which speaking is socially expected

A

Selective mutism (SM)

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83
Q

Nearly __ percent of a series of 50 children with selective mutism also met criteria for SAD

A

100

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84
Q

PTSD cannot be made until at least __ month(s) after the occurrence of the traumatic event, and when PTSD continues longer than __ month(s), it is considered chronic

A

One; Three

85
Q

__ is similar to PTSD, occurring within the first month after the trauma, but the different name emphasizes the very severe reaction that some people have immediately

A

Acute stress disorder

- 50% of individuals with acute stress disorder went on to develop PTSD

86
Q

Intensity of exposure to assaultive violence contributes to the etiology of __

87
Q

A __ of anxiety suggests a generalized biological vulnerability for PTSD

A

Family history
- Genetic factors predispose individuals to be easily stressed and anxious, making it more likely that a traumatic experience will result in PTSD

88
Q

__ describe anxious or depressive reactions to life stress that are generally milder than one would see in acute stress disorder or PTSD but are nevertheless impairing in terms of interfering with work or school performance, etc.

A

Adjustment disorders

89
Q

If the symptoms persist for more than __ month(s) after the removal of the stress or its consequences, the adjustment disorder would be considered chronic

90
Q

__ refer to disturbed and developmentally inappropriate behaviors in children, emerging before five years of age, in which the child is unable or unwilling to form normal attachment relationships with caregiving adults

A

Attachment disorders

91
Q

In __ the child will very seldom seek out a caregiver for protection, support, and nurturance and will seldom respond to offers from caregivers to provide this kind of care

A

Reactive attachment disorder

92
Q

In __, a similar set of child-rearing circumstances, perhaps including early persistent harsh punishment, would result in a pattern of behavior in which the child shows no inhibitions whatsoever to approaching adults. They might engage in inappropriately intimate behavior

A

Disinhibited social engagement disorder

93
Q

__ is the devastating culmination of the anxiety and related disorders

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)

94
Q

__ are intrusive and mostly nonsensical thoughts, images, or urges that the individual tries to resist or eliminate

A

Obsessions

95
Q

__ are the thoughts or actions used to suppress the obsessions and provide relief

A

Compulsions

96
Q

What are the four major types of obsessions?

A

1) Symmetry obsessions (keeping things in order or doing something in a specific way)
2) “Forbidden thoughts or actions” (i.e. May feel they are about to yell out a swear word in church)
3) Cleaning and contamination
4) Hoarding

97
Q

__ is characterized by involuntary movement (sudden jerking of limbs for example) to co-occur in patients with OCD (particularly children) or in their families

A

Tic disorder

98
Q

__ is one of the more radical treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder. It is a radical treatment for OCD involving a surgical lesion to the cingulate bundle

A

Psychosurgery

99
Q

__ is a psychological disorder in which a person becomes obsessed with imaginary defects in their appearance

A

Body dysmorphic disorder (BDD)

100
Q

The urge to pull out one’s own hair from anywhere on the body, including the scalp, eyebrows, and arms, is referred to as __

A

Trichotillomania

- Results in noticeable hair loss, distress, and significant social impairments

101
Q

__ is characterized as repetitive and compulsive picking of the skin, leading to tissue damage (largely a female disorder)

A

Excoriation

102
Q

__ is characterized by deep distrust and suspicion of others

A

Paranoid personality disorder

- As a result, often remain cold and distant

103
Q

__ is characterized by being likely to lie repeatedly, be reckless, sexually promiscuous, and impulsive

A

Antisocial personality disorder

104
Q

__ is characterized by extremely emotional people and continually seek to be the center of attention

A

Histrionic personality disorder

105
Q

__ describes people who need much admiration, feel no empathy for others, convinced of their own great success, power or beauty, exaggerate their achievements, and often appear arrogant

A

Narcissistic personality disorder

106
Q

__ describes people who are impulsive, have self-damaging behaviors, are unstable, and have anger control problems

A

Borderline personality disorder (BPD)

107
Q

People with __ are very uncomfortable and inhibited in social situations, overwhelmed by feelings of inadequacy, and extremely sensitive to negative evaluation (they believe they are unappealing or inferior and often have few close friends)

A

Avoidant personality disorder

108
Q

People with __ have a pervasive, excessive need to be taken care of. They are clinging and obedient, fearing separation from loved ones and rely on others

A

Dependent personality disorder

109
Q

A(n) __, is a psychological dysfunction within an individual that is associated with distress or impairment in functioning and a response that is not typical or culturally expected

A

Psychological disorder

110
Q

__ refers to a breakdown in cognitive, emotional, or behavioral functioning

A

Psychological dysfunction

111
Q

__ is the anticipated course of a disorder

112
Q

__ is the study of origins, and has to do with why a disorder begins (what causes it) and includes biological, psychological, and social dimensions

113
Q

Maria should recover quickly with no intervention necessary. Without treatment, David will deteriorate rapidly. What is this? __

114
Q

Three new cases of bulimia have been reported in this county during the past month and only one in the next county. What is this? __

115
Q

Liz visited the campus mental health centre because of her increasing feelings of guilt and anxiety. What is this? __

A

Presenting problem

116
Q

The pattern a disorder follows can be chronic, time limited or episodic. What is this? __

117
Q

During the Middle Ages, individuals with psychological disorders were sometimes thought to be __

A

Possessed by evil spirits that had to be exorcised through rituals

118
Q

A feeling of pensive sadness, typically with no obvious cause is referred to as __

A

Melancholy

119
Q

A __ indicates apathy and sluggishness but can also mean being calm under stress

A

Phlegmatic personality

120
Q

A(n) __ person (from yellow bile or choler) is hot tempered

121
Q

The humoral theory reflected the belief that normal functioning of the brain required a balance of four bodily fluids, or humors. Which “cure” was used?

A

Bloodletting

122
Q

__ began the mental hygiene movement and spent much of her life campaigning for reform in the treatment of people with mental illnesses

A

Dorothea Dix

123
Q

The first major approach, __, elaborates the theory of the structure of the mind and the roe of unconscious processes in determining behavior

A

Psychoanalysis

124
Q

The second approach, __, focuses on how learning and adaptation affect the development of psychopathology

A

Behaviorism

125
Q

Recalling and reliving emotional trauma that has been made unconscious and releasing the accompanying tension, is a process known as __

126
Q

Freud took basic observations and expanded them into the __, the most comprehensive theory yet constructed on the development and structure of our personalities

A

Psychoanalytic model

127
Q

The __ is the source of our strong sexual and aggressive energies or our instinctual drives- the “animal” within us

A

Id

- Operates according to the pleasure principle

128
Q

The part of our mind that ensures we act realistically is called the __, and it operates according to the reality principle

129
Q

The third important structure within the mind, the __, (conscience) represents the moral principles instilled in us

130
Q

Conflicts that are all within the mind are called __

A

Intrapsychic conflicts

131
Q

__ are unconscious protective processes that keep primitive emotions associated with conflicts in check so the ego can continue its coordinating function

A

Defence mechanisms

132
Q

__ is the study of how children incorporate the images, memories, and sometimes values of a person who was very important to them and to whom they were/are emotionally attached

A

Object relations

133
Q

__ in which patients are instructed to say whatever comes to mind without the usual socially mandated censoring

A

Free association

134
Q

In a phenomenon called __, patients come to relate to the therapist very much as they did toward important figures in their childhood

A

Transference

135
Q

__ is the underlying assumption that all of us can reach our highest potential

A

Self-actualizing

136
Q

__, is the complete and almost unqualified acceptance of most of the client’s feelings and actions

A

Unconditional positive regard

137
Q

__ helps clients to develop an awareness of their desires and needs, and to understand how they might be blocking themselves from reaching their potential

A

Gestalt therapy

138
Q

__ is a type of learning in which a neutral stimulus is paired with a response until it elicits that response

A

Classical conditioning (Pavlov)

139
Q

__ is a process of reinforcing successive approximations to a final behavior

140
Q

__ is a learning principle that uses positive and negative reinforcement to control and manipulate behavior

A

Operant conditioning (Skinner)

141
Q

What is a developmental critical period?

A

When we are more or less reactive to a given situation or influence than at other times

142
Q

__ is when individuals inherit, from multiple genes, tendencies to express certain traits or behaviors, which may then be activated under conditions of stress

A

Diathesis-stress model

143
Q

Genetic endowment may __ the probability that an individual will experience stressful life events

144
Q

The __ is the most interesting point of view of psychopathology as it carries most of the weight of our thinking and reasoning abilities as well as our memory

A

Frontal lobe

145
Q

The __ controls the muscles

A

Somatic nervous system

146
Q

The __ includes the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system (PNS)

147
Q

Which structure of the brain is involved in movement, breathing, and sleeping (present in most animals)?

A

Brain stem

148
Q

Which area contains parts of the reticular activating system and coordinates movement with sensory output?

A

Frontal lobe

149
Q

More than 80 percent of the neurons in the human central nervous system are contained in __ part of the brain, which gives us distinct qualities

A

Cerebral cortex

150
Q

Which area is responsible for most of our memory, thinking, and reasoning capabilities, and makes us social animals?

151
Q

Each endocrine gland produces its own chemical messenger, called a __

152
Q

The adrenal glands produce __ in response to stress, as well as salt-regulating hormones

A

Epinephrine (also called adrenaline)

153
Q

The thyroid gland produces __ which facilitates energy, metabolism, and growth

154
Q

The __ is a master gland that produces a variety of regulatory hormones

155
Q

The __ glands produce sex hormones such as estrogen and testosterone

156
Q

The __ system is closely related to the immune system

157
Q

The __ is primarily responsible for mobilizing the body during times of stress or danger, by rapidly activating the organs and glands under its control

A

Sympathetic nervous system (SNS)

158
Q

One of the functions of the __ is to balance in the sympathetic system

A 
Parasympathetic system (PNS)
- The PNS takes over after the SNS has been active for awhile, normalizing our arousal and facilitating the storage of energy by helping the digestive process
159
Q

__ are substances that effectively increase the activity of a neurotransmitter by mimicking its effects

160
Q

__ are substances that decrease or block a neurotransmitter

A

Antagonists

161
Q

__ are substances that produce effects opposite to those produced by the neurotransmitter

A

Inverse agonists

162
Q

After a neurotransmitter is released, it is quickly drawn back from the synaptic cleft into the same neuron. This process is called __

163
Q

Two types of neurotransmitters, __ and __, have been most studied in regard to psychopathology

A

Monoamines; amino acids

164
Q

Neurotransmitters in the monoamine class include __, __, and __

A

Norepinephrine (noradrenaline); serotonin; dopamine

165
Q

Amino acid neurotransmitters include __ and __

A

GABA and glutamat

166
Q

__ is an excitatory transmitter that “turns on” many different neurons, leading to action

167
Q

__ is an inhibitory neurotransmitter that inhibits (or regulates) the transmission of information and action potentials

A

GABA

- Best known effect is to reduce anxiety

168
Q

__ is believed to influence a great deal of our behavior, particularly the way we process information. It also regulates our behavior, moods, and thought processes

169
Q

Low __ activity has been associated with aggression, suicide, impulsive over-eating, and excessive sexual behavior

170
Q

What are SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor) used for?

A

Treat a number of psychological disorders, particularly anxiety, mood, and eating disorders

171
Q

__ may bear some relationship to states of panic

A

Norepinephrine

172
Q

__ has been implicated in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia and disorders of addiction

A

Dopamine

- Some research suggests it plays a significant role in depression and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

173
Q

Deficiencies in __ have been associated with disorders such as Parkinson’s disease

174
Q

Patients with OCD have increased anxiety in the part of the frontal lobe of the cerebral cortex called the __

A

Orbital surface

- Increased activity is also present in the cingulate gyrus and also the caudate nucleus (a lesser extent)

175
Q

Which neurotransmitter binds to neuron receptor sites, inhibiting postsynaptic activity and reducing overall arousal?

176
Q

Which neurotransmitter is a switch that turns on various brain circuits?

177
Q

Which neurotransmitter seems to be involved in your emergency reactions or alarm responses?

A

Norepinephrine

178
Q

Which neurotransmitter is believed to influence the way we process information, as well as to moderate or inhibit our behavior?

179
Q

A phenomenon called __, occurs when rats or other animals encounter conditions over which they have no control whatsoever

A

Learned helplessness

180
Q

__ is apparent when someone clearly acts on the basis of things that have happened in the past but can’t remember the events

181
Q

Karen noticed that every time Don behaved well at lunch, the teacher praised him. Karen decided to behave better to receive praise herself. This is called __

182
Q

Jin stopped trying to please his father because he never knows whether his father will be proud or outraged. This is called __

A

Learned helplessness

183
Q

Greg fell into a lake as a baby and almost drowned. Even though Greg has no recollection of the event, he hates to be around large bodies of water. This is called __

A

Implicit memory

184
Q

Celine was scared to death of the tarantula, even though she knew it wasn’t likely to hurt her. This is called __

A

Prepared learning

185
Q

The goal is to restructure the maladaptive schema. This process is called __

A

Cognitive restructuring

186
Q

__ is a principle used in developmental psychopathology to indicate that we must consider many paths to a given outcome

A

Equifinality

187
Q

The likelihood of you having a particular phobia is powerfully influenced by your __

188
Q

A large number of studies have demonstrated that the greater number and frequency of __ relationships, the longer you are likely to live

189
Q

The effect of social and interpersonal factors on the expression of physical and psychological disorders may differ with __

190
Q

The principle of __ is used in developmental psychopathology to indicate that we must consider a number of paths to a given outcome

A

Equifinality

191
Q

__ is the systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social factors in an individual presenting with a possible psychological disorder

A

Clinical assessment

192
Q

__ is the process of determining whether the particular problem afflicting the individual meets all the criteria for a psychological disorder

193
Q

__ is the degree to which a measurement is consistent

A

Reliability

194
Q

__ is whether something measures what it is designed to measure

195
Q

__ is the process by which a certain set of standards or norms is determined for a technique to make its use consistent across different measurements

A

Standardization

196
Q

The mental status exam covers five categories:

A

1) Appearance and behavior
2) Thought processes
3) Mood and affect
4) Intellectual functioning
5) Sensorium (general awareness of our surroundings)

197
Q

__ takes the mental status exam one step further by using direct observation to formally assess an individual’s thoughts, feelings, and behaviors in specific situations or contexts

A

Behavioral assessment

198
Q

__ involves identifying specific behaviors that are observable and measurable

A

Formal observation

199
Q

People can also observe their own behavior to find patterns, a technique known as __

A

Self-monitoring (or self-observation)

200
Q

Ambiguous stimuli, such as pictures of people or things, are presented to a person who is asked to describe what he or she sees, is known as __

A

Projective tests

201
Q

__ measures abilities in areas such as receptive and expressive language, attention and concentration, memory, motor skills, perceptual abilities, and learning and abstraction

A

Neuropsychological testing

202
Q

With the use of neuropsychological tests, the test will occasionally show a problem when none exists __, and will not fin a problem when indeed some difficulty is present __

A

False positive; false negative

203
Q

Patients with early Alzheimer’s type dementia show reduced __ in the parietal lobes

A

Glucose metabolism

204
Q

Measuring electrical activity in the head related to the firing of a specific group of neurons reveals brain wave activity

A

Electroencephalogram (EEG)

205
Q

(CAT) scan or CT scan is called a __

A

Computerized axial tomography

206
Q

__ are partially blocked or attenuated more by bone and less by brain tissue, and are passed directly through the head

207
Q

A commonly used scanning technique, __, is when the head is placed in a high-strength magnetic field through which radio frequency signals are transmitted. these signals “excite” the brain tissue, altering the protons in the hydrogen atoms

A

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

208
Q

__, is when the outcome is the criterion by which we judge the usefulness of the category

A

Criterion validity

PSYO 2220 - Abnormal Behavior (2 decks)

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