Exam #2 Missed Questions Flashcards

1
Q

A corporation is attempting to sell additional shares to its existing shareholders through a rights distribution. A shareholder who wishes to subscribe must send the purchase amount with the rights certificate to the:
A transfer agent
B stand-by underwriter
C rights agent
D corporate controller

A

The best answer is C.
A rights agent is hired to handle the mechanics of a rights offering. To subscribe, the existing shareholders submit their rights with the subscription dollar amount to the rights agent.

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2
Q

Which of the following can initiate repurchase agreements with government and agency securities as collateral?
I Federal Home Loan Banks
II Commercial banks
III Federal Reserve Banks
IV Government securities dealers
A II, III, IV
B I, II, III
C I, III, IV
D I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is A.
Government securities dealers, Commercial banks, and the Federal Reserve through its open market trading desk, all initiate repurchase agreements. Federal Home Loan Banks sell bonds to obtain funding. With the funds, it buys mortgages from Savings and Loans, making a secondary mortgage market and injecting fresh funds into the S&L’s.

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3
Q

The manager of a mutual fund is known as the:
A Sponsor
B Investment Adviser
C Custodian
D Underwriter

A

The best answer is B.
The investment adviser manages the fund within its stated objective, deciding which securities to buy into the portfolio; and which securities to sell from the portfolio. The custodian bank always safekeeps the assets and usually acts as both paying agent and transfer agent. The sponsor of a mutual fund establishes the fund and registers the fund with the SEC before the security can be sold.

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4
Q

An investor has a $1,000,000 portfolio that is split evenly between “blue chip” stocks and Treasury securities. The current economic environment is characterized by low interest rates and flat stock prices - and this is expected to remain unchanged for a number of years. However, the residential and commercial real estate market is expected to be strong. The investor would like to diversify the portfolio and enhance returns without adding much additional risk. Which of the following investment purchase recommendations would help achieve this objective?
A Mortgage REITs
B Mortgage Bonds
C Equity REITs
D Fannie Mae Pass-Through Certificates

A

The best answer is C.
During periods when financial assets such as stocks and bonds are not doing well, “hard” assets such as real estate and artwork tend to do better (since investors reallocate their investments away from financial assets into housing, etc.) A way that investors can participate in this is by investing in equity REITs. Since equity REITs own real estate, the share price movement of the REIT parallels the value of the real estate owned. Mortgage REITs invest in mortgages (essentially the same as investing in a bond) and thus are not the best choice when interest rates are low, since the yield is meager. And, if market interest rates rise, the value of the mortgages held drops. The same would be true for investments in mortgage bonds and Fannie Mae Pass-Through certificates.

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5
Q

Which statements are TRUE about option contracts?
I Long puts go “out the money” when the market price rises above the strike price
II Long puts go “out the money” when the market price falls below the strike price
III Short puts go “out the money” when the market price rises above the strike price
IV Short puts go “out the money” when the market price falls below the strike price
A I and III
B I and IV
C II and III
D II and IV

A

The best answer is A.
An “out the money” contract is one, that if exercised, would result in an unprofitable stock trade to the holder. These contracts are left to expire unexercised. Puts go “out the money” when the market price rises above the strike price - it makes no difference if the contract is “long” or “short.” Being “out the money” is bad for the contract holder and good for the contract writer. The put holder would not exercise and sell the stock at a strike price that is lower than the current market. Calls go “out the money” when the market price falls below the strike price. The call holder will not exercise and buy stock at the strike price that is higher than the current market price

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6
Q

A customer buys 1 ABC Apr 30 Call @ $6 and 1 ABC Jan 40 Put @ $8 when the market price of ABC is at $34. ABC goes to 36 and the customer closes the positions at intrinsic value. The customer has a:
A $400 loss
B $400 gain
C $1,400 loss
D $1,400 gain

A

The best answer is A.
The customer has bought a combination.
Buy 1 ABC Apr 30 Call @ $ 6
Buy 1 ABC Jan 40 Put @ $ 8
$14 Debit
If the market is at $36, the 40 Put is 4 points “in the money” while the 30 Call is 6 points “in the money.” Closing the contracts at these premiums results in:

Sell 1 ABC Apr 30 Call @ $ 6
Sell 1 ABC Jan 40 Put @ $ 4
$10 Credit
The net loss is: $10 Credit - $14 Debit = $4 or $400 on the positions.

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7
Q

Which statements are TRUE about the CBOE Order Support System?
I The order is directed to the brokerage firm’s communication post on the exchange floor
II The order is directed to the trading post
III Execution notices are sent directly from the trading post to the brokerage firm
A I and III
B II and III
C I only
D I, II, III

A

The best answer is B.
All automated trading systems function in a similar fashion. Orders are routed directly to the trading post, eliminating the need for the order to be wired to the communication post on the exchange floor and then written by hand to be given to a floor broker. The execution report is sent directly to the originating firm; it does not go through the firm’s communication post.

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8
Q

Under FINRA rules, orders can be effected for an account that is transferred from another brokerage firm when the:
A customer completes and signs the transfer form detailing account positions
B carrying firm receives the account transfer form
C carrying firm validates the account transfer form
D carrying firm physically transfers the securities

A

The best answer is C.
Under FINRA rules for transfer of accounts from firm to firm. The customer must complete an account transfer form detailing positions at the receiving firm. This is sent immediately to the “old” carrying firm, which has 1 business day to verify (validate) the positions. Upon verification, the receiving firm can now trade the account. The account positions are then transferred within the next 3 business days.

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9
Q

A customer shorts 1,000 shares of ABC stock @ $5 per share in a margin account. The customer must deposit:
A $2,000
B $2,500
C $4,000
D $5,000

A

The best answer is D.
To short a stock priced from $10 down to $5, the minimum is $5 per share. Thus, to short 1,000 shares at $5, $5,000 must be deposited. Note that this minimum set by FINRA is greater than the Regulation T requirement of 50%. Also note that to short a stock under $5, the minimum rule changes to the greater of 100% or $2.50 per share.

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10
Q

In order to recommend a variable annuity to a customer, the representative must inform the customer, in general terms, about any:
I potential surrender period and surrender charge
II potential tax penalty
III mortality and expense fees
IV charges for and features of enhanced riders
A I and II only
B III and IV only
C I, II, III
D I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is D.
Consider this to be a learning question. To recommend a variable annuity, the representative must have a reasonable basis to believe that the customer has been informed, in general terms, about the material features of the variable annuity. These include the potential surrender period and surrender charge, potential tax penalty, mortality and expense fees, charges for and expenses of enhanced riders (a very popular rider, at a cost, is a GMIB - a Guaranteed Minimum Income Benefit), insurance and investment components and market risk.

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11
Q

Which of the following are characteristics of Defined Contribution Plans?
I Annual contribution amounts are fixed
II If the corporation has an unprofitable year, the contribution may be omitted
III The annual benefit varies dependent on the number of years that the employee is included
IV This type of plan is not subject to ERISA requirements
A I and II only
B I and III only
C II, III, and IV
D I, II, III, IV

A

The best answer is B.
Under a defined contribution plan, a fixed percentage or dollar amount is contributed annually for each year that the employee is included in the plan. Thus, the ultimate benefit to be received by the employee depends on the number of years he or she has been included in the plan and the annual amounts contributed. If the corporation has an unprofitable year, it must still make the contributions. Such plans are subject to ERISA requirements.

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12
Q

If a corporation has an unfunded pension liability, this means that:
A the expected future value of fund assets is less than projected benefit claims
B the expected future value of fund assets is more than projected benefit claims
C inflation has eroded the value of the portfolio funding the plan
D existing retirees’ benefit claims are not being met

A

The best answer is A.
An unfunded pension liability means that expected payments from the retirement plan are in excess of the expected future assets in the plan. It is common for defined benefit pension plans to be underfunded, but the plan trustee is responsible to ensure that future funding is adequate as needed.

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13
Q

Contributions to qualified retirement plans, other than IRAs, must be made by:
A December 31st of the calendar year in which the contribution may be claimed on that person’s tax return
B April 15th of the calendar year in which the contribution may be claimed on that person’s tax return
C April 15th of the calendar year after which the contribution may be claimed on that person’s tax return
D The date on which the tax return is filed with the Internal Revenue Service

A

The best answer is D.
Contributions to qualified retirement plans (other than IRAs) must be made no later than the date the tax return is filed (even if it is filed with an extension). On the other hand, IRA contributions must be made no later than April 15th of the tax year after the year for which the deduction is claimed.

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14
Q

Investment banks perform all of the following functions EXCEPT:
A distribute new issues on an agency basis
B assist issuers in publicizing new issue offerings
C accept time and demand deposits
D buy new securities offerings from issuers on a principal basis

A

The best answer is C.
Investment banks are prohibited from accepting time and demand deposits. These can only be accepted by commercial and savings banks. Investment banks can underwrite new issues on a principal basis, an agency basis, and can help publicize the issues underwritten.

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15
Q

A customer sells short 100 shares of ABC stock at $74 per share. The stock falls to $66, at which point the customer writes 1 ABC Sept 65 Put at $3. The stock falls to $58 and the put is exercised. The customer’s cost basis upon exercise of the put is:
A $62
B $68
C $71
D $74

A

The best answer is A.
The customer sold the stock short at $74 per share (sale proceeds). Later, the customer sold a Sept 65 Put @ $3 on this stock. If the short put is exercised, the customer is obligated to buy the stock at $65 per share. Since the customer received $3 in premiums when the put was sold, the net cost to the customer is $62 per share for the stock (this is the cost basis in the stock for tax purposes). The stock that has been purchased is delivered to cover the short sale, closing the transaction. The customer’s gain is: $74 sale proceeds - $62 cost basis = 12 point gain.

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16
Q

A customer is short 100 shares of PDQ stock at $62 per share. The stock goes up to $67 and the customer covers the position. If, 30 days later, the customer decides to re-establish this short position when the market for PDQ is $65, what will the sale proceeds be?
A $57 per share
B $60 per share
C $70 per share
D $72 per share

A

The best answer is B.
In this transaction, the customer is attempting to take a loss and then reestablish the position. Under the “wash sale” rule, the loss deduction is disallowed if the position is reestablished within 30 days of the date the loss was generated.

In this case the customer originally sold short the stock at $62. The stock was repurchased at $67, for a $5 loss per share ($500 loss on 100 shares). Then, the customer sold short another 100 shares exactly 30 days later at $65 (to avoid the “wash sale” rule, the position cannot be reestablished until the 31st day). Thus, the $500 loss is disallowed. The $5 per share loss will be deducted from the sale proceeds of $65, for a new sale proceeds of $60. In essence, this defers the taking of the loss until this short position is covered.

17
Q

An investor contributes $50,000 to a limited partnership and signs a $50,000 recourse note. In the first year, the investor’s distributive share of income is $25,000 and loss is $125,000. The partnership also distributed $10,000 of cash during the year. How much loss can be deducted for this year?
A $0
B $10,000
C $115,000
D $125,000

A

The best answer is C.
The beginning basis is $100,000 ($50,000 cash contribution plus $50,000 recourse note). The basis must be brought to its highest point prior to taking any deductions, so the $25,000 share of income is added, bringing the basis to $125,000. The cash distributed is deducted next, bringing the remaining basis to $115,000. Therefore, $115,000 of the $125,000 loss can be deducted, bringing the basis to “0.” $10,000 of unused loss carries forward to next year.

18
Q

Which bond recommendation would be the MOST safe for an individual who seeks income that is free from federal income tax?
A AA-rated revenue bond that is escrowed to maturity
B AAA-rated general obligation bond
C AA rated certificate of participation
D Double-barreled bond

A

The best answer is A.
A bond that is escrowed to maturity (ETM) is backed by escrowed U.S. Government securities – so it becomes the “safest” municipal bond because it becomes government backed.

AAA rated general obligation bonds are extremely safe – they are backed by unlimited tax collections and have a top credit rating. But they are not as safe as bonds backed by escrowed U.S. Government securities.

COPs (Certificates of Participation) are an alternative to G.O. bonds used by municipalities that have caps placed on their property tax rates. Instead of backing bonds by ad valorem taxes, making them a G.O., the municipality works around the “cap” by issuing a bond that will pay if the municipality makes an appropriation from its other tax revenues and fee collections. Because of this, it is not as safe as a G.O. bond.

Finally, a double-barreled bond is a revenue bond that is additionally backed by a municipality’s “full faith and credit” if the revenues fall short, so it has a back-up G.O. backing. It is also extremely safe – just not as safe as an escrowed bond

19
Q

A 67-year old woman has heavily invested her portfolio in growth securities. She realizes that as she approaches retirement, she needs to reallocate her portfolio for more income. However, she does not want to give up the growth objective. What would be the best investment recommendation for the funds that she will reallocate away from growth securities in her portfolio?
A Income stocks and emerging markets stocks
B Income stocks and cyclical stocks
C Cyclical stocks and emerging markets stocks
D Income stocks and blue-chip stocks

A

The best answer is D.
Income stocks will certainly provide income. Cyclical stocks may pay a decent dividend or they might not – furthermore, they might cut their dividend in a period of recession, since they are negatively impacted by the economic cycle – so these do not meet the objective of “more income.” Emerging markets stocks will certainly provide growth, but with a high risk level for a 67-year old who is approaching retirement. Blue chip stocks should grow as fast as the overall market, are relatively “safe” investments for a 67-year old, and could also provide additional dividend income. Therefore, of the choices offered, Choice D is the best. Also note that it could be argued that if this 67-year old was highly risk tolerant, then some allocation to emerging markets stocks might make sense, but that is not addressed in the question and we have to take the “best” of the choices offered.

20
Q

A customer, age 69, has never invested in securities. She is retired with no dependents, living on a fixed pension of $35,000 per year. She has a savings account with $160,000 and her home is fully paid. She desires to supplement her retirement income, assuming minimal risk. The BEST recommendation would be for the customer to invest $100,000 of her cash savings into a(n):
A variable annuity contract
B CMO planned amortization class tranche
C SPDR
D income (adjustment) bond

A

The best answer is B.
CMO planned amortization classes give a good yield that is 50 or so basis points higher than equivalent maturity Treasuries and are extremely safe. These meet the customer’s objective of additional income with low risk. Since this customer is only earning $35,000 per year, she is in a low tax bracket - making tax-deferred variable annuities unattractive. SPDRs - Standard and Poor’s 500 Depository Receipts are an exchange traded fund that consists of equities - which don’t provide much income. Income bonds only pay interest if the corporation has enough “income” - so these are not appropriate either.

21
Q

A change in each of the following is a lagging economic indicator EXCEPT:
A Employment Duration
B Reported Corporate Profits
C Inventory to Sales Ratio
D Initial Claims for Unemployment

A

The best answer is D.
Initial Claims for Unemployment is a leading economic indicator (since high initial claims indicate coming production cutbacks). Employment Duration (showing how long someone was employed before being terminated), Reported Corporate Profits (showing what was already earned in the last quarter), and the Inventory to Sales Ratio (showing what was produced and in inventory, relative to current sales) are all lagging indicators.

22
Q

During prolonged periods of an economic recession:
I interest rates can be expected to fall
II interest rates can be expected to rise
III the Federal Reserve will begin to loosen credit
IV the Federal Reserve will begin to tighten credit
A I and III
B I and IV
C II and III
D II and IV

A

The best answer is A.
During prolonged periods of recession, interest rates drop. This occurs because the Federal Reserve loosens credit to get the economy moving again; and because demand for loans falls as business activity drops.

23
Q

Trading in the Interbank market will affect all of the following directly EXCEPT:
A foreign currency prices in terms of U.S. dollars
B American Depositary Receipt prices in terms of U.S. dollars
C future economic growth
D future trade deficit or surplus figures

A

The best answer is B.
Foreign currencies trade in the “Interbank” market. If the dollar declines against foreign currencies, U.S. goods become cheaper to foreigners. This will stimulate exports and domestic economic growth. If the dollar rises against foreign currencies, foreign goods become cheaper in the U.S. This will stimulate imports, and shift production out of the U.S. to other countries.

American Depositary Receipts are vehicles for foreign securities to be traded in the United States. ADRs are only traded in the United States, and are denominated in U.S. dollars, so there is no direct effect of foreign currency price movements on ADR prices (though an argument can be made that the foreign stock held in trust pays dividends in the foreign currency; and that these dividends are converted to U.S. dollars to be paid to ADR holders; that currency price movements have some impact on ADR values).

24
Q

Common shares of which of the following issuers are likely to have a Beta coefficient much higher than +1?
A Semi-conductor manufacturer
B Pharmaceutical manufacturer
C Public utility
D Food processor

A

The best answer is A.
The “Beta” coefficient is a measure of market volatility. A Beta of “+1” indicates that a particular security moves as fast as the market. A Beta higher than one means that the security moves faster than the market - for example a Beta of +2 means that the security moves twice as fast as the overall market. A Beta of less than 1, say 1/2, indicates that the stock’s prices moves half as fast as the overall market. Thus, a stock with a low beta is one that is strongly defensive - that is one that is not affected by business cycles. Food and pharmaceutical companies have beta coefficients that average around 1. Electric and gas utilities, and railroads have the lowest beta factors - around .5. These companies’ betas are the lowest because their rates of return are regulated. Therefore, these firms’ profits are generated independently of the business cycle and stay relatively constant - no matter how good or bad business conditions are. High technology companies typically have very high betas relative to the market - these are growth companies.

25
Q

Common shares of which of the following issuers are likely to have a Beta coefficient much higher than +1?
A Semi-conductor manufacturer
B Pharmaceutical manufacturer
C Public utility
D Food processor

A

The best answer is A.
The “Beta” coefficient is a measure of market volatility. A Beta of “+1” indicates that a particular security moves as fast as the market. A Beta higher than one means that the security moves faster than the market - for example a Beta of +2 means that the security moves twice as fast as the overall market. A Beta of less than 1, say 1/2, indicates that the stock’s prices moves half as fast as the overall market. Thus, a stock with a low beta is one that is strongly defensive - that is one that is not affected by business cycles. Food and pharmaceutical companies have beta coefficients that average around 1. Electric and gas utilities, and railroads have the lowest beta factors - around .5. These companies’ betas are the lowest because their rates of return are regulated. Therefore, these firms’ profits are generated independently of the business cycle and stay relatively constant - no matter how good or bad business conditions are. High technology companies typically have very high betas relative to the market - these are growth companies.