Exam #1 Missed Questions Flashcards
PDQ Corporation has declared a rights offering to stockholders of record. The company has 5,000,000 shares outstanding and is selling an additional 1,000,000 shares via the rights offer. Which statements are TRUE regarding a customer who owns 500 shares of PDQ stock?
The customer will receive 500 rights. The customer may buy 100 shares.
ABC Corporation has declared a rights offering to stockholders of record on Friday, December 10th. Under the offer, shareholders need 10 rights to subscribe to 1 new share at a price of $19. Fractional shares can be rounded up to purchase 1 full share. As of the ex date, the stock is trading at $24. The value of the right is:
$.50
$24 - $19 = $5 = $.50 Value “Ex Rights”
XYZZ ADR represents 10% of the value of an XYZZ ordinary share. The ordinary shares trade on the London Stock Exchange, where the current price is 400 British Pounds (BP). The current exchange rate for the British Pound against the U.S. Dollar is $1.40. The ordinary share pays an annualized dividend of 12 BP, with payment made semi-annually. The XYZZ ADR is listed on the NYSE. If a customer places an order to buy $560,000 of the ADR on the NYSE, how much will the customer receive in each dividend payment?
$8,400
A Moody’s MIG rating is used for:
Municipal short term debt
A 20-year 3 1/2% Treasury Bond is quoted at 99-4 - 99-8. The note pays interest on Jan 1st and Jul 1st. If a customer buys 5 T-Bonds on Friday, Jan 13th in a regular way trade, how many days of accrued interest are owed to the seller? (It is not a leap year.)
15
Treasury bonds:
I are issued in minimum $100 denominations
II are issued in minimum $10,000 denominations
III mature at par
IV mature at par plus accrued interest
I and III. Treasury bonds are issued at par in minimum denominations of $100 each, and pay interest semi-annually. At maturity, the bondholder receives par.
Which of the following would NOT purchase STRIPS?
I Pension fund
II Money market fund
III Individual seeking current income
IV Individual wishing to avoid reinvestment risk
II and III. Pension funds and retirement accounts are the large purchasers of STRIPS. These zero-coupon bonds are purchased at a deep discount and are held to maturity to fund future retirement liabilities. There is little credit risk, because the U.S. Treasury is a top credit. There is no current income because they don’t pay until maturity. They have a huge amount of purchasing power risk as a long-term zero coupon obligation, but this is not an issue if they are held to maturity. Retirement plan managers like STRIPS because they don’t have to worry about reinvestment risk - there are no semi-annual interest payments to reinvest! It is an investment that can be “tucked away” for 20 or 30 years, with no further work or worry on the part of the retirement fund manager.
A municipal variable rate demand note:
I is considered to be a short term issue
II is considered to be a long term issue
III gives the issuer the right to call the bond from the holder on pre-set dates
IV gives the holder the right to put the bond to the issuer on pre-set dates
II and IV. A municipal variable rate demand note is a long-term municipal security because it has no stated maturity, but it is issued at short-term (lower) interest rates, because the holder has the right to “put” the bond to the issuer at par at each interest payment date. The interest rate is reset, usually weekly at the interest payment date, to an indexed rate for the next week. Thus, the interest rate will vary. With any variable rate note, the interest rate varies as market rates move; therefore the market price remains at, or very close to, par. Thus, these instruments have almost no market risk.
Interest income from which of the following bonds is most likely to be considered a “tax preference item” in the Alternative Minimum Tax calculation?
A Airport revenue bond
B Hospital revenue bond
C Water revenue bond
D General obligation bond
Airport revenue bond. Municipal “Private Activity Bonds” are taxable – the interest income is subject to federal income tax. If the PAB is “qualified,” then the interest income is not subject to regular income tax, but it is a tax preference item included in the AMT calculation (which typically only hits higher income taxpayers who take a lot of deductions).
Qualified PABs include bonds where the proceeds go to finance the activities of a private entity, including airports, docks, residential rental projects that are privately owned, waste disposal projects, water and sewer facilities that are privately owned and enterprise zones. Note that if any of these activities were being done by public entities, the bonds would be tax-free.
An investor in the 28% tax bracket buys a 7% municipal bond quoted on an 7.25 basis. To calculate the equivalent taxable yield:
A divide 7% by 28%
B divide 7% by 72%
C divide 7.25% by 28%
D divide 7.25% by 72%
divide 7.25% by 72%. The best answer is D.
The formula for the equivalent taxable yield is:
7.25% = 7.25% = 10.07%
(100% - 28%) .72
A husband has a brokered CD titled in his name in the amount of $500,000 held at Bank A. Both the husband and his wife have a brokered CD in the amount of $500,000 titled in both their names held at Bank B. Additionally, the wife has a brokered CD in the amount of $500,000 titled in her name held at Bank “B.” What is the total coverage offered by FDIC on all of these CDs?
$750,000. FDIC (Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation) insures bank deposits if the bank fails. The maximum coverage is $250,000 at each bank, based on each depositor’s social security number.
The husband’s CD at Bank A is covered for $250,000.
The jointly held CD at Bank B is covered $250,000 for the husband and $250,000 for the wife (2 different social security numbers).
The wife’s CD at Bank B gets no coverage because she already reached the maximum coverage limit with the jointly held CD at Bank B.
The total coverage is $750,000.
Eurodollars are:
I European currency deposits
II U.S. dollar deposits
III held in foreign branches of U.S. banks
IV held in U.S. branches of foreign banks
II and III. Eurodollars are U.S. dollar deposits held in foreign branches of U.S. banks or foreign banks. Eurodollar deposits are used to finance international trade.
REITs can invest in all of the following EXCEPT:
A mortgages
B real estate
C government securities
D limited partnerships
D.
Which statements are TRUE?
I Orders and quotes for NMS stocks can only be accepted or posted in penny increments in exchange display books
II Orders and quotes for NMS stocks can be accepted or posted in sub-penny increments in exchange display books
III Trade executions of NMS stocks can only occur in penny increments
IV Trade executions of NMS stocks can occur in sub-penny increments
I and IV. The best answer is B.
Rule 612 of Regulation NMS does not allow sub-penny orders to be entered for NMS (NYSE, NYSE American (AMEX) or NASDAQ) stocks. However, trade executions are permitted in sub-penny increments, since this makes the market more competitive.
When the Standard and Poor’s 500 Index is at 2,460 on a given day, the U.S. listed equities markets will close its market for the rest of the day if the index declines by a total of:
A 124 points
B 172 points
C 320 points
D 492 points
D 492 points. Under the circuit breaker rule, if the Standard and Poor’s 500 Index falls by a cumulative 20% in a given trading day, the market will be shut for the balance of the day. 20% of 2,460 = 492 points.
In riskless principal transaction, the dealer:
I buys a security into inventory in advance of filling a customer order to buy that security
II buys a security into inventory after receiving a customer order to buy that security
III charges a mark-up to the customer
IV does not charge a mark-up to the customer
C II and III. A riskless principal or simultaneous transaction occurs when a dealer receives a buy order from a customer and then purchases the stock into inventory and resells it to the customer. The dealer wasn’t holding the security when the order was received, so there is no “risk” to the dealer of falling prices giving the dealer an inventory loss. The dealer has no risk in the transaction and the mark-up charged must be disclosed to each customer.
Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding quotes provided on NASDAQ Level II?
I Quotes are shown for round and mixed lots
II Quotes are shown for up to 999,999 shares
III Bid and ask quotes are shown
IV The minimum quote size is 100 shares
D I, II, III, IV. NASDAQ Level II shows all bid and ask quotes for NASDAQ stocks with the size of the quote. The minimum quote size is 100 shares (1 round lot). Quotes for odd lots (less than 100 shares) can be entered into the system, but are not displayed until there are other odd lot orders at the same price that aggregate to 100 shares or over. A mixed lot is an order that has both a round lot and an odd lot component (such as an order for 143 shares - which is composed of a 100 share round lot and a 43 share odd lot). Just like odd lots, any portion of the order that is less than 100 shares is not displayed until there are other odd lot orders at the same price that aggregate to 100 shares or more. The maximum quote that can be entered and displayed is for 999,999 shares.
Which of the following statements are TRUE about a stock trade effected “for cash” in a cash account?
I Payment is required in part
II Payment is required in full
III Settlement occurs the same business day
IV Settlement occurs in 2 business days
C II and III. Trades effected for cash settle the same day. If the trade is effected in a cash account, payment is required in full on settlement. If the trade is effected in a margin account, partial payment is required on settlement.
Which of the following create a straddle?
I Short 1 ABC Jan 50 Call
Short 1 ABC Jan 50 Put
II Short 1 ABC Apr 50 Call
Short 1 ABC Oct 50 Put
III Short 1 ABC Jan 50 Call
Long 1 ABC Jan 50 Put
IV Long 1 ABC Jan 50 Call
Long 1 ABC Jan 60 Put
I only
The long leg of a bear put spread:
provides potential gain.An example of a bear put spread is:
Buy 1 ABC Jan 60 Put
Sell 1 ABC Jan 50 Put
The long 60 put allows the customer to sell the stock at $60 per share in a falling market. Thus, if the market falls below $60, this position gives increasing gain. However, if the market falls below $50, the short 50 put will be exercised, obligating the customer to buy the stock at $50. Thus, the short position limits potential gain. The maximum gain is limited to 10 points (Sell at $60; Buy at $50).
A put is assigned prior to the ex date for a cash dividend. The customer:
A will receive the dividend
B will not receive the dividend
C must pay the dividend
D is not required to pay the dividend
The best answer is A.
If the put is “assigned,” it means that the OCC (Options Clearing Corporation) has selected that put writer to receive the exercise notice (because a holder of that contract has chosen to exercise), obligating the writer of the put to buy the stock in a regular way trade. Because the writer of the put is assigned prior to the ex date, the writer is buying the stock in time to get the dividend. If the put is assigned on the ex date or after, the writer would not get the dividend.
If it is now the beginning of January, the maximum maturity on the longest available January equity LEAP contract is:
A 18 months
B 24 months
C 38 months
D 40 months
The best answer is B.
Equity LEAPs expire each January on the same date as the regular options expiration (the 3rd Friday of the month).
The CBOE issues equity LEAPs as follows;
Cycle 1 companies have LEAPs issued after the September expiration for the January that is 28 months later;
Cycle 2 companies have LEAPs issued after the October expiration for the January that is 27 months later; and
Cycle 3 companies have LEAPs issued after the November expiration for the January that is 26 months later.
If it is now the beginning of January 2022, the January ‘22 options are still trading, as are the January ‘23 and January ‘24 options. Starting after the September 2022 expiration, LEAPs will now be issued for January 2025. Thus, at the beginning of January 2022, the longest available equity LEAP option is the January 2024. This contract has 24 months to expiration.
A customer purchases $100,000 of municipal bonds at 80% in a margin account. The customer must deposit:
A $7,000
B $12,000
C $20,000
D $40,000
The best answer is B.
There is no Regulation T. requirement for municipal bonds because they are exempt securities. The only margins are the minimums set by the exchanges. The minimum maintenance requirement set by FINRA is the greater of 7% of face amount or 15% of market value. The bonds are purchased at 80% of $100,000 par = $80,000. 15% of $80,000 = $12,000. 7% of $100,000 face = $7,000. The greater amount is $12,000.
The formula for equity in a combined margin account is:
A long market value plus short market value minus credit balance minus debit balance
B long market value plus short market value plus credit balance minus debit balance
C long market value minus short market value plus credit balance minus debit balance
D long market value minus short market value minus credit balance plus debit balance
The best answer is C.