Exam 2 Drugs Flashcards

Drugs

1
Q

Acetylcholine

A

ester of choline
direct cholinomimetic
parasympathomimetic
causes miosis among other cholinergic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Methacholine

A

ester of choline
direct cholinomimetic
parasympathomimetic
used to diagnose asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Carbachol

A

ester of choline
direct cholinomimetic
parasympathomimetic
treatment of intraocular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bethanechol

A

ester of choline
direct cholinomimetic
parasympathomimetic
for bladder dysfunction and GERD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Muscarine

A

plant alkaloid
muscarinic
direct cholinomimetic
parasympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pilocarpine

A

plant alkaloid
muscarinic
direct cholinomimetic
parasympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Nicotine

A

plant alkaloid
nicotinic
direct cholinomimetic
parasympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Arecoline

A

“Betel nut”
plant alkaloid
nicotinic
direct cholinomimetic
parasympathomimetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Edrophonium

A

indirect cholinomimetic/ parasympathomimetic
blocks acetylcholinesterase
simple alcohol- fast acting
used in the Tensilon test to diagnose MG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Neostigmine/ pyridostigmine

A

indirect cholinomimetic/ parasympathomimetic
blocks acetylcholinesterase
carbamate- moderate acting
treatment of MG and surgical paralysis reversal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Echothiophate

A

indirect cholinomimetic/ parasympathomimetic
blocks acetylcholinesterase
organophosphate- long acting (days)
treatment of glaucoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Atropine

A

cholinoreceptor blocker
parasympatholytic
antimuscarinic
used for treating organophosphate poisoning with pralidoxime
treats bradycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

scopolamine

A

cholinoreceptor blocker
parasympatholytic
antimuscarinic
treats motion sickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

tropicamide

A

cholinoreceptor blocker
parasympatholytic
antimuscarinic
causes mydriasis and diagnosis of cycloplegia (paralysis of ciliary muscle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ipratropium

A

cholinoreceptor blocker
parasympatholytic
antimuscarinic
treatment of asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Succinylcholine

A

antinicotinic
parasympatholytic
NMJ blocker- depolarizing
causes flaccid paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

curare derivatives like pancuronium and rocuronium

A

antinicotinic
parasympatholytic
non-depolarizing NMJ blocker
causes flaccid paralysis
reversed by Suggamadex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Epinephrine

A

sympathomimetic
direct agonist
alpha, beta1, beta2
treats hypotension, increases HR and contractility and bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

norepinephrine

A

sympathomimetic
direct agonist
alpha, beta1
treats hypotension, increases HR and contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

isoproterenol

A

sympathomimetic
direct agonist
beta1, beta2
increases HR and contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

dopamine

A

sympathomimetic
direct agonist
DA receptors (1-5), beta1, alpha (triphasic/ dose dependent)
low dose: DA
mod dose: beta1
high dose: alpha1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Dobutamine

A

sympathomimetic
direct agonist
Beta1
increases HR and contractility
used to treat cardiogenic shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

phenylephrine

A

sympathomimetic
direct agonist
alpha1 agonist (specific)
used as a decongestant
not a monoamine so can be absorbed alternate routes to parenterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

midodrine

A

sympathomimetic
direct agonist
alpha1 agonist
treats orthostatic hypotension

25
clonidine
sympathomimetic direct agonist alpha2 specific transient increase in BP then decreased BP Tx: ADHA, Tourette's, withdrawal symptoms, anxiety, PTSD can prolong anesthesia effects
26
methyldopa
sympathomimetic direct alpha2 agonist dose not cross the placental barrier treatment of pregnancy induced hypertension
27
dexmedetomidine
sympathomimetic direct agonist alpha2 agonist anesthesia adjunct to help make patient sleepy
28
ephedrine
both direct and indirect sympathomimetic direct agonist used as a decongestant
29
amphetamines
indirect sympathomimetics displaces NE, reverses NET
30
cocaine
indirect sympathomimetic blocks NET
31
phentolamine
alpha blocker sympatholytic reversible alpha1 and alpha2 blocking treatment of hypertension cardiac stimulant
32
prazosin, tamsulosin
alpha blocker sympatholytic reversible alpha1 blocking treatment of hypertension and BPH
33
labetalol
alpha and beta blocker sympatholytic reversible used to decrease BP and reduces HR
34
phenoxybenzamine
sympatholytic irreversible alpha blocker treats pheochromocytoma
35
Propranolol
sympatholytic beta blocker non-specific (beta1 and beta2)
36
metoprolol, atenolol
sympatholytic beta blocker beta1 specific safer for patients with asthma
37
Esmolol
sympatholytic beta blocker beta1 specific used as a first line drug to treat surgical tachycardia fast onset, short-half life
38
hydralazine
vasodilator K+ channel activation hyperpolarization of smooth muscle
39
Minoxidil
vasodilator K+ channel activation hyperpolarization of smooth muscle
40
fenoldopam
vasodilator DA1 receptor agonist increases blood flow to the kidneys
41
sodium nitroprusside
parenteral vasodilator broken down into NO in the blood, increases cGMP used to treat hypertensive emergencies, acute heart failure Toxicity: CN- accumulation
42
verapamil
vasodilator calcium channel blocker cardiac specific used to treat angina and arrythmias
43
diltiazem
vasodilator calcium channel blocker works at the heart and periphery antiarrythmic
44
nicardipine
vasodilator dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker works more in the periphery
45
Captopril
vasodilator ACE inhibitor treats hypertension
46
Losartan, valsartan
vasodilators angiotensin receptor blockers treats hypertension
47
Bosentan
Endothelin receptor blocker causes vasodilation treatment for pulmonary hypertension
48
nitroglycerin
nitrate/nitrite vasodilation of large veins fast onset, short duration treatment of angina
49
digoxin
cardiac glycoside used to treat HF positive inotropic effects low therapeutic index --> toxic, pro-arrythmogenic
50
Milrinone
phosphodiesterase inhibitor (inhibits PDE3) positive inotropic effects decreases PVR (reduces afterload and preload)
51
Levosimendan
calcium sensitizer positive inotrope not available in the US used in treatment of HF
52
Quinidine
class 1A antiarrhythmic sodium channel blocker prolongs action potential duration (APD)
53
Procainimide
class 1A antiarrhythmic sodium channel blocker prolongs action potential duration (APD) intermediate dissociation
54
Lidocaine
class IB antiarrhythmic sodium channel blocker shortens APD low toxicity, fast dissociation
55
flecainide
class IC antiarrhythmic sodium channel blocker no effect on APD slow dissociation
56
class II antiarrhythmics
beta blockers
57
Amiodarone
class III antiarrhythmic prolongs action potential duration large Vd, long half-life high toxicity
58
class IV antiarrhythmics
Calcium channel blockers
59
how does adenosine work
its an antiarrhythmic resets the heart by enhanced K+ conductance short acting