Exam 2 Chapters 6 - 10 Flashcards

1
Q

Define Nationalization

A

A government taking control of a company or industry. (Most common in developing countries).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Privatization.

A

The transfer of ownership of property or business from a government to a privately owned entity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

List 4 reasons why firms are nationalized.

A

1) to extract more money from the firms, if the government suspects that the firms are concealing profits;
2) profitability—the government believes it can run the firms more efficiently and make more money;

3) ideology;
4) job preservation—to save jobs by putting dying industries on life-support systems;

5) because the government has pumped money into a firm or an industry, and control usually follows money;
6) happenstance, as with the nationalization after World War II of German-owned firms in Europe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Explain why businesses proposer more when a government is stable.

A

With stability there is more power and better performance. There is confidence in investors and money, expertise and technology will come.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Explain why interest groups often succeed in getting import restrictions when free trade would benefit more people. (on final exam)

A

The government officials who make decisions about import restrictions are particularly sensitive to the interest groups that will be hurt by the international competition. These groups consist of a small, easily identified body of people or organizations—as contrasted to the large, widespread number of consumers who typically benefit from free trade. In political debates over a proposed import restriction, the protectionist group will usually be united in exerting pressure on government officials, whereas pro-trade consumers rarely mount an organized effort.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Explain the following reasons for trade restrictions and the free trade response: National Defense

A

Certain industries need protection from imports because they are vital to security and must be kept operating even though they are not competitive with foreign suppliers. (U.S. Shoe Industry).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Explain the following reasons for trade restrictions and the free trade response: Protecting Infant Industries

A

Advocates for the protection of an infant industry may claim that in the long run the industry will have a comparative advantage but that firms need protection from imports until the required investment capital is obtained, the labor force is trained, production techniques are mastered, and economies of scale are achieved. Without the protection, advocates argue, a firm will not be able to survive because lower-cost imports from more mature foreign competitors will underprice it in its local market.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Explain the following reasons for trade restrictions and the free trade response: Retaliation

A

Representatives of an industry whose exports have had import restrictions placed on them by another country may ask their government to retaliate with similar restrictions. The EU banned hormone-treated beef from the U.S. and closed it’s markets to U.S. beef in 1988. U.S. retaliated by putting import duties on about $100 million worth of EU products. Then EU threatened to ban U.S. shipments of certain products worth $140 million. U.S. complied with EU ban on all EU meat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How do free trade advocates respond to claims that domestic jobs must be protected from cheap foreign labor? (on final exam)

A

First, wage costs are neither all of the productions costs nor all of the labor costs. The comparison is misleading (lower foreign hourly wage rates, then they can flood home-market with low-priced goods). Second, productivity per worker may be much greater in richer countries because of more capital per worker, superior management and advanced technology. Labor cost component of the goods being produced could be lower even though wages are higher.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe dumping.

A

Another form of retaliation - The WTO defines dumping as selling a product abroad for less than

i. the average cost of production in the exporting nation,
ii. the market price in the exporting nation, or
iii. the price to third countries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do subsidies restrict imports?

A

Another cause of retaliation. - subsidies that a government makes to a domestic firm either to encourage exports or to help protect it from imports. Some examples are cash payments, government participation in ownership, low-cost loans to foreign buyers and exporters, and preferential tax treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List and describe the 3 types of import duties.

A

Import duties are

i. Ad Valorem – As a percentage of the invoice value of the product
ii. Specific – is a fixed sum of money charged for a specified physical unit of the product.
iii. A combination of the two called compound - When the flavoring extracts and fruit flavors just mentioned contain more than 50 percent alcohol by weight, they are subject to a specific duty of $0.12 per pound plus a 3 percent ad valorem. Thus, on a $10,000 shipment weighing 5,000 pounds, the importer would have to pay a compound duty of $900 [($.12 × 5,000 pounds) + (0.03 × $10,000) = $600 + $300].

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe how the following non tariff barriers restrict trade: Quotas

A

Quotas

i. Which set numerical limits for specific kinds of goods that a country will permit to be imported during a specified period.
ii. Quota Absolute – Once the specified amount has been imported, further importation for the rest of the persion (usually a year) is prohibited.
iii. Global Quota – A total amount is fixed without regard to source.
iv. Allocated Quota – The government of the importing nation assigns quantities to specific countries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe how the following non tariff barriers restrict trade: Voluntary export restraints

A

Is a government-imposed limit on the quantity of some category of goods that can be exported to a specified country during a specified period of time. Typically, VERs arise when industries seek protection from competing imports from particular countries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe how the following non tariff barriers restrict trade: Customs & other administrative procedures

A

These barriers cover a large variety of government policies and procedures that either discriminate against imports or favor exports.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe how the following non tariff barriers restrict trade: Standards

A

Both governmental and private standards to protect the health and safety of a nation’s citizens certainly are desirable, but for years exporting firms have been plagued by many standards that are complex and discriminatory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Why is the rule of law better for international business? (on final exam)

A

This encourages foreign investment because foreign businesses know that their interests will be protected. Following the rule of law also makes ensuring protection of human rights of local people easier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define extraterritorial application of laws.

A

Countries enforcing their laws outside their borders by traditional legal means.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Explain the choice-of-law clause.

A

A choice-of-law clause in a contract specifies which law will govern in the event of a dispute.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Explain the UN Convention on the International Sale of Goods (CISG).

A

Is a treaty that is a uniform international sales law. The CISG established uniform legal rules to govern the formation of international sales contracts and the rights and obligations of the buyer and seller. The CISG applies automatically to all contracts for the sale of goods between traders from different countries that have ratified the CISG.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Explain arbitration.

A

Arbitration is a dispute resolution mechanism that is an alternative to litigation. Arbitration is usually quicker, less expensive, and more private than litigation, and it is usually binding on all parties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Describe the World Intellectual Property Organization.

A

World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) Arbitration and Mediation Center handles technological, entertainment, and intellectual property disputes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Define antitrust laws.

A

Competition laws (known in the United States as antitrust laws) are intended to prevent inappropriately large concentrations of economic power, such as monopolies. Actions brought to enforce competition laws or antitrust laws usually involve government actions brought against business, but also may involve business actions against other businesses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

List 4 ways US liability laws differ from those in Europe and Japan.

A

1) The EU allows companies to use “state-of-the-art” or “developmental risks” defenses, which allow the designer/manufacturer to show that at the time of design or manufacture, the most modern, latest-known technology was used.
2) They also are permitted to cap damages.
3) Europe and Japan will limit or prevent product liability awards by European and Japanese courts.
4) Outside the United States, judges, not juries, hear product liability cases. Judges are less prone to emotional reactions than juries are, and even if the judge is sympathetic toward a plaintiff, punitive damages are not awarded by non-U.S. courts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act. (on final exam)

A

The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) is a federal United States law aimed at preventing the bribery of foreign government officials in an effort to obtain or retain business. The FCPA also requires companies whose securities are listed in the U.S. to adhere to accounting provisions outlined under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. (G)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Define the Bretton Woods system.

A

Also called the gold exchange standard and the fixed rate system, which served as the basis of the international monetary system from 1945 to 1971

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe the following currency arrangements: Exchange arrangements with no separate legal tender

A

One country adopts the currency of another or a group of countries adopt a common currency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe the following currency arrangements: Fixed peg

A

A “peg,” or fixed-rate relationship where exchange rate fluctuations are allowed within a narrow band of less than 1 percent. The peg could be to one currency or to a basket of currencies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe the following currency arrangements: Independently floating

A

Rely on the market. There may be interventions, yet they are conducted to moderate the rate of change rather than to establish the currency’s level.

30
Q

List the 4 main functions of the BIS.

A

Bank for International Settlements BIS is an international organization of central banks that exists to build cooperation among them to foster monetary and financial stability. Today, the BIS has four main functions:

i. A banker for central banks.
ii. A forum for international monetary cooperation.
iii. A center for research.
iv. An agent or trustee for governments in various international financial arrangements.

31
Q

Define: Vehicle currency

A

The currency used to invoice an international trade transaction, especially when it is not the national currency of either the importer or the exporter. (G).

32
Q

Define: Intervention currency

A

Also known as foreign exchange market intervention, or currency manipulation, occurs when a government buys or sells foreign currency to push the exchange rate of its own currency away from equilibrium value or to prevent the exchange rate from moving toward its equilibrium value. (G).

33
Q

Define: Spot Rate (on final exam)

A

The price quoted for immediate settlement on a commodity, a security or a currency. The spot rate, also called “spot price,” is based on the value of an asset at the moment of the quote. (G).

34
Q

Define: Forward Rate (on final exam)

A

Can be defined as the way the market is feeling about the future movements of interest rates. They do this by extrapolating from the risk-free theoretical spot rate. For example, it is possible to calculate the one-year forward rate one year from now. Forward rates are also known as implied forward rates. (G).

35
Q

Describe Purchasing Power Parity (on final exam)

A

PPP shows the number of units of a currency required to buy the same basket of goods and services in the foreign market that one dollar would buy in the United State, or in another home market with that market’s currency. It is the result of the law of one price applied to a basket of commodity goods. PPP suggests that for a dollar to buy as much in the United Kingdom as in the United States, the cost of the goods in the UK should equal their U.S. cost times the exchange rate between the dollar and pound.

36
Q

Describe these four approaches to exchange rate forecasting: Efficient market approach

A

Assumes that current prices fully reflect all available relevant information in the environment. This also suggests that forward exchange rates are the best possible predictor of future spot rates because they will have taken into account all the available information.

37
Q

Describe these four approaches to exchange rate forecasting: Random walk hypothesis

A

An approach related to the efficient market approach is called the random walk hypothesis, and it holds because of the short-term unpredictability of factors, the best predictor of tomorrow’s prices is today’s prices

38
Q

Describe these four approaches to exchange rate forecasting: Fundamental approach

A

The fundamental approach to exchange rate prediction looks at the underlying forces that play a role in determining exchange rates and develops various econometric models that attempt to capture the variables and their correct relationships.

39
Q

Describe these four approaches to exchange rate forecasting: Technical analysis

A

The third approach to exchange rate forecasting, technical analysis, looks at history and then projects it forward. It analyzes historic data for trends and then, assuming that what was past will be future, projects these trends forward. Technical analysts think in terms of waves and trends.

40
Q

Define convertible currencies

A

Can be exchanged for other currencies without restrictions.

41
Q

Describe the value-added tax (VAT).

A

Is a tax charged on the value added to a good as it moves through production from raw materials to final purchaser. It is really a sales tax whose payment documentation from one stage to another from production through to the final buyer becomes important for tax credits, because the seller collects the tax for the goods sold and then receives credits for VAT already paid earlier in the production process.

42
Q

List four ways inflation affects international business.

A

1) The inflation rate determines the real cost of borrowing in capital markets.
2) Increasing inflation rates encourage borrowing (debt) because the loan will be repaid with inflated, cheaper money.
3) High inflation rates bring high interest rates because banks have to offer more reward to draw in deposits.
4) Inflation may discourage lending because lenders may fear that, even with high interest rates, the amount repaid plus interest would be worth less than the amount lent.

43
Q

Explain the relationship between the current and capital accounts related to trade.

A

The BOP current account and capital account add up to the total account. A deficit in the current account is always accompanied by an equal surplus in the capital account, and vice versa.

44
Q

Define: International strategy

A

Involves decisions that deal with which products or services to offer, which markets to enter, and how to compete. It deals with all the various functions and activities of a company and the interactions among them, not merely a single area such as marketing or production.

45
Q

Define: Competitive advantage

A

This suggests that the international company must either perform activities different from those of its competitors or perform the same activities in different ways.

46
Q

Explain value chain analysis. (on final exam)

A

1) Management will analyze the firm’s activities from the time raw materials enter the plant until the end product reaches the final user
2) As part of this process, management must address three key questions about the business:
i. Who are the company’s target customers?
ii. What value does the company want to deliver to these customers?
iii. How will this customer value be created?
3) The value chain analysis itself focuses primarily on the third question, and it refers to the set of value-creating activities that the company is involved with, from sources for basic raw materials or components to the ultimate delivery of the final product or service to the final customer.

47
Q

Define: Tacit knowledge

A

Which means that it is known well by the individual but is difficult to express verbally or to document in text or figures. As a result, systems are needed in order to convey this tacit knowledge to others.

48
Q

Define: Explicit knowledge

A

Codified knowledge and then making this knowledge accessible quickly and effectively to other employees who need it.

49
Q

Define: Mission statement

A

Defines the purpose for a company’s existence, including its business, objectives, and approach for reaching those objectives.

50
Q

Define: Vision statement

A

Is a description of the company’s desired future position, of what it hopes to accomplish if it can acquire the necessary competencies and successfully implement its strategy.

51
Q

Define: Values statement

A

Is intended to be a clear, concise description of the fundamental values, beliefs, and priorities of the organization’s members, reflecting how they want to behave with each other and with the company’s customers, suppliers, and other members of the global community.

52
Q

List and describe the four main international strategies. (on final exam): Global Strategy

A

A global strategy tends to be used when a company faces strong pressures for reducing costs and limited pressure to adapt products for local markets. Strategy and decision making are typically centralized at headquarters, and the company tends to offer standardized products and services. Overseas offices are expected to adopt the most efficient strategies found within the entire corporation.

53
Q

List and describe the four main international strategies. (on final exam): Transnational Strategy

A

i. A transnational strategy tends to be used when a company confronts simultaneous pressures for cost effectiveness and local adaptation and when there is a potential for competitive advantage from responding to both of these two divergent forces.
ii. The location of a company’s assets and capabilities will be based on where it would be most beneficial for each specific activity, neither highly centralized as with a global strategy nor widely dispersed as with a multidomestic strategy.
iii. International subsidiaries are expected to contribute actively to the development of the company’s capabilities, as well as to develop and share knowledge with company operations worldwide.

54
Q

List and describe the four main international strategies. (on final exam): Home Replication Strategy

A

According to this typology, companies pursuing a home replication strategy typically centralize product development functions in their home country. After they develop differentiated products in the home market, these innovations are then transferred to foreign markets in order to capture additional value. To be successful, the company has to possess a valuable distinctive competency that local competitors lack in the foreign markets. The company’s home-country headquarters usually maintains tight control over marketing and product strategy, and the primary responsibility of local subsidiaries is to leverage home-country capabilities.

55
Q

List and describe the four main international strategies. (on final exam): Multidomestic Strategy

A

A multidomestic strategy tends to be used when there is strong pressure for the company to adapt its products or services for local markets. Under these circumstances, decision making tends to be more decentralized in order to allow the company to modify its products and to respond quickly to changes in local competition and demand.

56
Q

Define scenarios.

A

1) Multiple, plausible stories for probable futures.
2) Their significant contributions to strategy development merit additional focus.
3) Scenario analysis allows management to assess the implications for the company of various economic conditions and operating strategies.
4) Scenarios integrate a variety of ideas about the future, including key certainties and uncertainties, and present these ideas in a useful and comprehensible manner.

57
Q

Explain contingency plans.

A

Worst- and best-case scenarios and for critical events as well. Every operator of a nuclear power plant has contingency plans, as do most producers of petroleum and hazardous chemicals since such ecological disasters as BP’s 2010 oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico occurred.

58
Q

Explain tactical plans.

A

Tactical (also called operational) plans are a requisite for spelling out in detail how the objectives will be reached. In other words, very specific, short-term means for achieving the goals are the objective of tactical planning.

59
Q

Explain how leaders use sales forecasts and budgets to manage firms.

A

1) The sales forecast not only provides management with an estimate of the revenue to be received and the units to be sold but also serves as the basis for planning in the other functional areas. Without this information, management cannot formulate the production, financial, and procurement plans.
2) Budgets, like sales forecasts, are both a planning and a control technique. During planning, they coordinate all the functions within the firm and provide management with a detailed statement of future operating results and the resources required to achieve those outcomes.

60
Q

List one advantages and one disadvantages of each of the following: Top-down planning

A

In top-down planning, corporate headquarters develops and provides guidelines that include the definition of the business, the mission statement, company objectives, financial assumptions, the content of the plan, and special issues.

61
Q

List one advantages and one disadvantages of each of the following: Bottom-up planning

A

Bottom-up planning operates in the opposite manner. The lowest operating levels inform top management about what they expect to do, and the total becomes the firm’s goals. The advantage of bottom-up planning is that the people responsible for attaining the goals are formulating them.

62
Q

List the 4 dimensions that need to be considered when designing the structure of an international firm. (on final exam)

A

1) There are four primary dimensions that need to be considered when designing the structure of an international company:
i. Product and technical expertise regarding the different businesses that the company participates in.
ii. Geographic expertise regarding the countries and regions in which the company operates.
iii. Customer expertise regarding the similarity of client groups, industries, market segments, or population groups that transcend the boundaries of individual countries or regions.
iv. Functional expertise regarding the various value chain activities that the company is involved with.

63
Q

Describe the structure of each of the following ways to organize an international firm: (on final exam): International division

A

i. To take charge of all overseas involvement.
ii. Product, region, function, or customer classes. At secondary, tertiary, and still lower levels, these four dimensions—plus
1. Process
2. National subsidiary
3. International or domestic—provide the basis for subdivisions.

64
Q

Describe the structure of each of the following ways to organize an international firm: Global form by product

A

While this organizational form avoids the duplication of product experts common in a company with an international division, it creates a duplication of area experts. Occasionally, to avoid placing regional specialists in each product division, management will have a group of managerial specialists in an international division who advise the product divisions but have no authority over them

65
Q

Describe the structure of each of the following ways to organize an international firm: Global form by geographic region

A

i. This kind of organization simplifies the task of directing worldwide operations, because every country in the world is clearly under the control of someone who is in contact with headquarters
ii. Of course, this organizational type is used for both multinational (multidomestic) and global companies. Global companies that use it consider the division in which the home country is located as just another division for purposes of resource allocation and a source of management personnel.

66
Q

Describe the structure of each of the following ways to organize an international firm: Global form by function

A

Few firms are organized by function at the top level. Those that are obviously believe worldwide functional expertise is more significant to the firm than is product or area knowledge. In this type of organization, those reporting to the CEO might be the senior executives responsible for each functional area (marketing, production, finance, and so on), as in Figure 10.6. The commonality among the users of the functional form is a narrow and highly integrated product mix, such as that of aircraft manufacturers or oil refining companies.

67
Q

Describe a matrix organization

A

The matrix organization has evolved from management’s attempt to mesh product, regional, and functional expertise while still maintaining clear lines of authority. It is called a matrix because an organization based on one or possibly two dimensions is superimposed on an organization based on another dimension. In an organization of two dimensions, such as area and product, both the geographic area managers and the product managers will be at the same level, and their responsibilities will overlap.

68
Q

Describe a virtual organization.

A

A virtual corporation, also called a network corporation, is an organization that coordinates economic activity to deliver value to customers using resources outside the traditional boundaries of the organization. In other words, it relies to a great extent on third parties to conduct its business. Outsourcing once was used for downsizing and cost reduction, but now companies are using it to obtain specialized expertise that they don’t have but need in order to serve new markets or adopt new technology.

69
Q

Describe a horizontal corporation.

A

This organization has been characterized as “antiorganization” because its designers are seeking to remove the constraints imposed by the conventional organizational structures. In a horizontal corporation, employees worldwide create, build, and market the company’s products through a carefully cultivated system of interrelationships.

70
Q

List the 3 options for where decision can be made for a wholly-owned subsidiary.

A

1) Product and equipment
2) The competence of subsidiary management and reliance on that management by the IC headquarters
3) The size of the IC and how long it has been one,
4) The detriment of a subsidiary for the benefit of the enterprise
5) Subsidiary frustration. We discuss each of these variables in the sections that follow.

71
Q

Explain how transfer pricing can be used to lower taxes

A

1) One way that GlobalSoft has reduced the level of taxes that it pays is through the careful use of transfer pricing.
2) For example, the company established a subsidiary in Ireland, where the corporate tax rate in 2011 was only 12.5 percent, one of the lowest levels in Europe. This subsidiary, called Emerald Isle Enterprises (EIE), serves as the regional headquarters for the licensing of GlobalSoft’s software to European customers.
3) Although most of GlobalSoft’s software development occurs in the United States, the American organization then licenses this software at a relatively low rate to EIE. The outcome of this transfer pricing decision is that a lower level of revenues—and corresponding taxable income—is earned by GlobalSoft’s American operations from EIE’s activities. As a result, GlobalSoft pays a smaller amount of taxes in the United States than would be the case if it charged a higher license fee to EIE.

72
Q

List the 4 ways a firm can control a joint venture while owning less than 50%.

A

With less than 50 percent of the voting stock and even with no voting stock, an IC can have control. Some methods of maintaining control are:

i. A management contract.
ii. Control of the finances.
iii. Control of the technology.
iv. Putting people from the IC in important executive positions.