Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pediatrics > Exam 2 (Chapters 16, 17, 23, 24, & 25) > Flashcards

Exam 2 (Chapters 16, 17, 23, 24, & 25) Flashcards

1
Q

The grasp reflex disappears at __ months.

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Prehension occurs at __ to __ months.

A

5 to 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Parachute reflex appears at __ to __ months.

A

7 to 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pincer grasp is established by __ months.

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Newborns sleep at intervals of __ to __ hours.

A

2 to 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sleep intervals increase to __ hours at 4 to 6 months.

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Rear-facing seats are for infants less than __ year old, or weighing less than __ lb.

A

1 year old, 22 lb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Infants less than __ months have rounded backs.

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Toddlers are __ to __ years of age.

A

1 to 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Toddlers are in Erikson’s stage of __ vs. __.

A

Autonomy vs. shame and doubt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The toddler gains __ to__ lb per year.

A

4 to 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The toddler grows __ inches per year.

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

__ circumference exceeds abdominal circumference.

A

Chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Bowe and bladder control is complete at __ to __ years of age.

A

2 1/2 to 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Visual acuity is __ at 2 years of age.

A

20/40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

__ are the leading cause of death in childhood.

A

Accidents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A child can wear a car safety belt if they are heavier than __ lb and taller than __ in.

A

80 lb, 57 in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The 8th cranial nerve is the __ nerve.

A

acoustic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The newborn’s tympanic membrane is more __ and __.

A

horizontal and vascular.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The infant’s eustachian tube is __ and __.

A

shorter and straighter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The three functions of the eustachian tube are: __, __, and __.

A

ventilation, protection, and drainage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Otitis externa is an __ __ of the __ ear, also known as: __ __.

A

acute infection of the external ear, also known as swimmer’s ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Manifestations of otitis externa are:

A

pain and tenderness on manipulating the pinna.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Treatment for otitis externa:

A

irrigation and topical antibiotics or antivirals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Acute otitis media is __ in the __ ear.

A

inflammation in the middle ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Infection of the __ can easily spread to the __ __ and __.

A

Infection of the throat can easily spread to the middle ear and mastoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Acute otitis media usually occurs after a ___ and mostly affects children __ to __ months old.

A

Acute otitis media usually occurs after a URI and mostly affects children 6 to 24 months.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The __ __ __ vaccine reduces the incidence of pneumococcal acute otitis media, but are ineffective in children younger than __ years old.

A

Polyvalent pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine, ineffective in children younger than 2 years old.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Manifestations of acute otitis media are: __ pain, __, and diminished __.

A

ear pain, irritability, and diminished hearing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Treatment for acute otitis media: PO __, __, __, and __ or __ compress.

A

PO amoxicillin, myringotomy, antipyretics, and warm or cold compress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Congenital hearing loss may be __ or from __ __.

A

Congenital hearing loss may be hereditary of from utero infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In sensorineural hearing loss, the __ __ along the cochlea and __ __ are damaged.

A

In sensorineural hearing loss, the hair cells along the cochlea and acoustic nerve are damaged.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Conductive hearing loss happens when the __ __ prevents sound from entering the __ __.

A

Conductive hearing loss happens when the tympanic membrane prevents sound from entering the middle ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

A hearing loss greater than __ dB is considered legal deafness.

A

70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hearing screening is recommended at __ or before __ months of age.

A

Hearing screening is recommended at birth or before 3 months of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Barotrauma occurs when there’s a change in the __ __ between __ __ __ and the __.

A

Barotrauma occurs when there’s a change in the atmospheric pressure between internal body systems and the environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Examples of events that cause barotrauma are:

A

Airplane descent and underwater diving.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The eyes begin to develop in the embryo at __ weeks gestation.

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Visual acuity is __ in newborn’s.

A

20/400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Visual acuity of 20/20 can be reached when the child is __ or __ years old.

A

6 or 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The newborn’s eyes are less __. They can focus on objects only __ to __ inches away.

A

The newborn’s eyes are less spherical. They can focus on objects only 8 to 12 inches away.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Amblyopia, also known as __ __, is the reduction or loss of vision in __ __.

A

Amblyopia, also known as lazy eye, is the reduction or loss of vision in one eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The goal of treatment in amblyopia is __ __ in both eyes, done through __ or __/__ of the “good” eye.

A

The goal of treatment in amblyopia is equal vision in both eyes, done through glasses or patching/occlusion of the “good” eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Strabismus is also known as __, __-__, and __. The child is unable to __ both eyes towards the __ __.

A

Strabismus is also known as squinting, cross-eye, and hypertropia. The child is unable to direct both eyes towards the same object.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

In strabismus, the brain __ one eye for a __ __. This can lead to permanent __ __.

A

In strabismus, the brain disables one eye for a clear image. This can lead to permanent visual impairment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The most common strabismus is called __ or __. Extraocular muscles are normal and there is no relation to cranial nerves.

A

The most common strabismus is called Nonparalytic or concomitant. Extraocular muscles are normal and there is no relation to cranial nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

This type of strabismus involves paralysis or weakness in the extraocular muscles. It is called __ or __, and is related to __ oculomotor nerve, __ nerve (__ __ muscle), and the __ nerve (__ __ muscle).

A

This type of strabismus involves paralysis or weakness in the extraocular muscles. It is called Paralytic or incomitant, and is related to 3rd oculomotor nerve, 6th nerve (lateral rectus muscle), and the 4th nerve (superior oblique muscle).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Inward strabismus: __. Outward strabismus: __.
Upper strabismus: __. Downward strabismus: __.

A

Inward: esotropia. Outward: exotropia.
Upper: hypertropia. Downward: hypotropia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Symptoms of eye strain include:

A

inflammation, aching/burning, squinting, short attention span, frequent headaches, and difficulty with schoolwork.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Conjunctivitis is __ of the __. It can be caused by __ or __ agents, __, __, __, __ or by blockage of the __ __.

A

Conjunctivitis is inflammation of the conjunctiva. It can be caused by bacterial or viral agents, toxins, allergens, irritants, diseases, or by blockage of the lacrimal duct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Manifestations of conjunctivitis can be: __, __, and __ in the eyelid. Child can be __ and __. Treatment includes: __ compresses and topical __ eye drops or eye ointments.

A

itching, tearing, edema in the eyelid. Child can be irritable and distracted. Treatment includes: warm compresses and topical antibiotic eye drops or eye ointment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Periorbital cellulitis is a complication of __ __, with __ and __ around the __.

A

Periorbital cellulitis is a complication of bacterial sinusitis, with pain and swelling around the eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Hyphema is __ in the anterior chamber of the eye. Appears as a __ __ or __ __ in front of the __ __.

A

Hyphema is blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. Appears as a bright red or dark spot in front of the lower iris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Treatment for hyphema includes: __ __ with HOB elevated at __ to __ degrees to reduce __. __ are contraindicated.

A

Treatment for hyphema includes: bed rest with HOB elevated at 30 to 45 degrees to reduce ICP. NSAIDs are contraindicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Retinoblastoma is a __ __ of the retina where a __-__ reflex is seen in the pupil; this is called the __ __ reflex or __.

A

Retinoblastoma is a malignant tumor of the retina where a yellowish-white reflex is seen in the pupil; this is called the cat’s eye reflex or leukocoria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

With retinoblastoma, the child experiences loss of __, __, __, and __. It is treated with __ (removal of the eye), or __ __ in small tumors, and __ __ in larger tumors.

A

With retinoblastoma, the child experiences loss of vision, strabismus, hyphema, and pain. It is treated with enucleation (removal of the eye), or laser photocoagulation in small tumors, and systemic chemo in larger tumors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A reduction to LESS than or equal to __ mm Hg of __ can cause an alteration in LOC.

A

A reduction to LESS than or equal to 60 mm Hg of Pao2 can cause an alteration in LOC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

An increase to MORE than or equal to __ mm Hg of __ can cause an alteration in LOC.

A

An increase to MORE than or equal to 45 mm Hg of Paco2 can cause an alteration in LOC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Besides changes in Pao2 and Paco2, a __ BP causing __ __, __, __, __, and increased __ can all cause an alteration in LOC.

A

Besides changes in Pao2 and Paco2, a low BP causing cerebral hypoxia, fever, drugs, seizures, and increased ICP can all cause an alteration in LOC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Reye’s syndrome is an acute __ __ that follows viral infections. There’s a relationship in the use of __ during a viral illness, and a genetic __ __.

A

Reye’s syndrome is acute noninflammatory encephalopathy that follows viral infections. There’s a relationship in the use of Aspirin during viral illness, and a genetic metabolic defect.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In Reye’s syndrome, accumulation of __ in the blood can cause cerebral manifestations, like __ __ and __ __.
__ __/__, __, and __ can also occur. There is effortless __ in children.

A

In Reye’s syndrome, accumulation of ammonia in the blood can cause cerebral manifestations, like cerebral edema and increased ICP. Altered behavior/LOC, seizures, and coma can also occur. There is effortless vomiting in children.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The goal of treatment in Reye’s syndrome is to __ __, maintain a __ __, __ __, and __ and __ balance.

A

The goal of treatment in Reye’s syndrome is to reduce ICP, maintain a patent airway, cerebral oxygenation, and fluid and electrolyte balance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sepsis is a __ response to an __ with bacteria, or virus and fungi. It can cause __ __ response syndrome, and if left untreated, __ shock, __ dysfunction, and __.

A

Sepsis is a systemic response to an infection with bacteria, or virus and fungi. It can cause a systemic inflammatory response syndrome, and if left untreated, septic shock, multiorgan dysfunction, and death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Manifestations of sepsis include: __, __, __, __, and __ signs. __ is an ominous sign. Sepsis can be prevented with the __ __ type B and __ __ vaccines administered between __ months and __ years of age.

A

Manifestations of sepsis include: fever, chills, tachycardia, tachypnea, and neuro signs. Hypotension is an ominous sign. Sepsis can be prevented with the H. influenzae type B and pneumococcal conjugate vaccines administered between 2 months and 4 years of age.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Meningitis is __ of the __. Group __ __ is the main cause in newborns. Meninges are invaded indirectly through __ or from centers of __, or directly through the __ or __ fracture.

A

Meningitis is inflammation of the meninges. Group B strep is the main cause in newborns. Meninges are invaded indirectly through bloodstream or from centers of infection, or directly through ear or skull fractures.

66
Q

Bacterial meningitis is referred to as __ and the peak incidence is between ages __ to __ months. Symptoms result from __ __, along with severe __, __, __, __, __, __, __, and __ rigidity. A __-__ cry is noted in infants and __ in older children.

A

Bacterial meningitis is referred to as purulent and the peak incidence is between ages 6 to 12 months. Symptoms result from intracranial irritation, along with severe headache, drowsiness, delirium, irritability, restlessness, fever, vomiting, and nuchal rigidity. A high-pitched cry is noted in infants and opisthotonos in older children.

67
Q

In meningococcal meningitis, __ is seen.

A

petechiae

68
Q

Diagnosis of meningitis is confirmed with __ examination. It can be prevented by __ and __ immunizations. Child is placed on __ isolation until __ hours after antibiotic therapy has started.

A

Diagnosis of meningitis is confirmed with CSF examination. It can be prevented with Hib and PCV immunizations. Child is placed on droplet isolation until 24 hours after antibiotic therapy has started.

69
Q

Encephalitis is __ of the __, and __ when the spinal cord is also infected. It can occur as a complication of __ diseases or __ poisoning. Manifestations: __, __, __, and __ (seen mostly in infants).

A

Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain, and encephalomyelitis when the spinal cord is also infected. It can occur as a complication of childhood diseases or lead poisoning. Manifestations: headache, drowsiness, coma, and seizures (seen mostly in infants).

70
Q

Majority of brain tumors occur in the __ part of the brain (__ or __), and in __-aged children. The __ position should be avoided because it can increase ICP.

A

Majority of brain tumors occur in the lower part of the brain (cerebellum or brainstem), and in school-aged children. The Tredelenburg position should be avoided because it increases ICP.

71
Q

Manifestations of brain tumors: __ ICP, __, __, __, __, __, __, __. Also, __, __ tilt, __ changes, and __ enlargement.

A

Manifestations of brain tumors: increased ICP, headaches, drowsiness, vomiting, seizures, nystagmus, strabismus, and papilledema. Also, ataxia, head tilt, behavioral changes, and cerebral enlargement.

72
Q

Simple partial seizures are also called __ seizures. They are often mistaken by alterations in __ or “__”. __ begins in one part and proceeds to another part of the body. It cannot be stopped and person is __ and __. No __ __ needed.

A

Simple partial seizures are also called Jacksonian seizures. They are often mistaken by alterations in behavior or “tics”. Jerking begins in one part and proceeds to another part of the body. It cannot be stopped and person is awake and aware. No first aid needed.

73
Q

Complex partial seizures are also called __ or __ lobe seizures. They usually start with a __ __, followed by __ and __ activity. They are __ of surroundings, __ and __, and __.

A

Complex partial seizures are also called psychomotor or temporal lobe seizures. They usually start with a blank stare, followed by chewing and random activity. They are unaware of surroundings, dazed and mumbling, and unresponsive.

74
Q

A side effect of many anticonvulsants is __. They’re taken at the same time each day with __ or at __. Abrupt withdrawal can cause __ __.

A

A side effect of many anticonvulsants is drowsiness. They’re taken at the same time each day with meals or at bedtime. Abrupt withdrawal can cause status epilepticus.

75
Q

Child taking Luminal or Dilantin should receive vitamin __ and __ __ supplements. Do not give Dilantin with __. Gum __ can occur with Dilantin.

A

Child taking Dilantin should receive vitamin D and folic acid supplements. Do not give Dilantin with milk. Gum hypertrophy can occur with Dilantin.

76
Q

Cerebral palsy is __ motor disorders caused by __ in __ __ of fetal brain. It is suspected during infancy if there are __ problems, __ not associated with __, and if __ __ are not met when expected.

A

Cerebral palsy is nonprogressive motor disorders caused by lesion in motor centers of the fetal brain. It is suspected during infancy if there are feeding problems, convulsions not associated with fever, and if developmental milestones are not met when expected,

77
Q

__ __ are the major cause of death and permanent injury in children than 1 year old.

A

Head injuries

78
Q

A temporary disturbance of the brain followed by a period of unconsciousness is a __.

A

concussion.

79
Q

__ __ is defined as survival beyond 24 hours after submersion.

A

Near drowning

80
Q

The newborn legs are maintained in the __ position.

A

flexed

81
Q

Toddler’s feet appear __.

A

flat.

82
Q

Children who don’t walk independently by __ months may have a serious delay.

A

18

83
Q

Toe-walking after __ years of age can indicate a muscle problem.

A

3

84
Q

Genu varum: __
Genu valgum: __

A

bowlegged
knock-kneed

85
Q

Bone in child is not completely __.

A

ossified.

86
Q

Ephiphyses in child is __.

A

present.

87
Q

Periosteum in child is __ and porosity is __.

A

Periosteum in child is thicker and porosity is greater.

88
Q

Tearing of subq tissue resulting in hemorrhage, edema, and pain is a __.

A

contusion.

89
Q

When ligament is torn or stretched away from bone to the point of trauma is called __.

A

sprain.

90
Q

A microscopic tear in tendon or muscle is a __.

A

strain.

91
Q

What does the RICE acronym stand for?

A

Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

92
Q

A __ is a break in a bone usually by accidents characterized by pain, swelling, and tenderness.

A

fracture

93
Q

Injured __ can interfere with __ growth during childhood.

A

Injured epihysis can interfere with longitudinal growth during childhood.

94
Q

Fractures of the __ extremities, like a __ fracture, in non-ambulatory infant can indicate child abuse.

A

Fractures of the lower extremities, like a spiral fracture, in non-ambulatory infant can indicate child abuse.

95
Q

Bryant’s traction is used in children less than __ years of age or lighter than __ to __ lb. __ of child supplies countertraction.

A

Bryant’s traction is used in children less than 2 years of age or lighter than 20 to 30 lb. Weight of child supplies for countertraction.

96
Q

In Buck’s skin traction, or Buck’s extension, a type of __ traction pulls the __ and __ into extension. Child’s __ supplies countertraction. It is essential that child does not __ down the __ and that the bed is not placed in __-__ position.

A

In Buck’s skin traction, or Buck’s extension, a type of skin traction pulls the hips and legs into extension. Child’s weight supplies countertraction. It is essential that child does not slip down the bed and that the bed is not placed in high-Fowler’s position.

97
Q

In Russell traction, a __ is put under the __ and __ traction is applied. Pull is in __ directions (__ and __).

A

In Russell traction, a sling is put under the knee and skin traction is applied. Pull is in two directions (vertically and longitudinally).

98
Q

A neurovascular check involves: __ pulse rate and __, __, __ __, __, __ and __.

A

A neurovascular check involves: peripheral pulse rate and quality, color, capillary refill, warmth, movement and sensation.

99
Q

Osteomyelitis is __ of the __, occurring mostly in children under __ and in those between __ to __ years of age. The __ are compressed and __ can produce ischemia and pain.

A

Osteomyelitis is infection of the bone, occurring mostly in children under 1 and in those between 5 to 14 years of age. The vessels are compressed and thrombosis can produce ischemia and pain.

100
Q

In osteomyelitis, if __ under periosteum is not drained it can result in __. There is elevation in both __ and __. Possible complication if fever lasts more than __ days. __ __ should be avoided.

A

In osteomyelitis, if pus under periosteum is not drained it can result in necrosis. There is an elevation in both WBC and ESR. Possible complication if fever lasts more than 5 days. Weight bearing should be avoided.

101
Q

Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy (DMD) is more __ than Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD). In DMD, __ is completely __ in the muscle therefore it is more severe.

A

DMD is more common than BMD. In DMD, dystrophin is completely absent in the muscle therefore it is more severe.

102
Q

Some dystrophin is __ in BMD, making it progress more __.

A

Some dystrophin is present in BMD, making it progress more slowly.

103
Q

Manifestations of DMD/BMD: calf muscles __, frequent __, __, contractures of __ and __, and __ maneuver. Death can result from __ failure or __ tract infection.

A

Manifestations in DMD/BMD: calf muscles hypertrophied, frequent falling, clumsiness, contractures of ankles and hips, and Gower’s maneuver. Death can result from cardiac failure or respiratory tract infection.

104
Q

Slipped femoral capital epiphysis, also known as coxa __, is the spontaneous __ of __ of the __. Elevated puberty __ and excess __ result in the __ of __ head.

A

Slipped femoral capital epiphysis, also known as coxa vara, is the spontaneous displacement of epiphysis of the femur. Elevated puberty hormones and excess weight result in the displacement of the femur head.

105
Q

Manifestations of slipped femoral capital epiphysis include: __ pain and a __, or inability to __ weight. Child is placed in __ traction.

A

Manifestations of slipped femoral capital epiphysis include: thigh pain and a limp, or inability to bear weight. Child is placed in Buck’s traction.

106
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthes, also known as coxa __, is the disruption of __ supply to the __ of femur. Tissue death from inadequate blood supply is __ necrosis. Most common in boys ages __ to __ years.

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes, also known as coxa plana, is the disruption of blood supply to the epiphysis of femur. Tissue death from inadequate blood supply is avascular necrosis. Most common in boys ages 5 to 12 years.

107
Q

Manifestations of coxa plana include: __ and __ pain, painless __, and limitation of __. Healing occurs __ with __-__ cast to prevent __.

A

Manifestations of coxa plana include: thigh and knee pain, painless limb, and limitation of motion. Healing occurs spontaneously with ambulation-abduction cast to prevent subluxation.

108
Q

Osteosarcoma is __ tumor of the __ bones. Age of onset is between __ to __ years in __ adolescents; children with __ are at higher risk. __ occurs quickly, with the __ being primary site of metastasis.

A

Osteosarcoma is malignant tumor of the long bones. Age of onset is between 10 to 15 years in tall adolescents; children with retinoblastoma are at higher risk. Metastasis occurs quickly, with the lungs being primary site of metastasis.

109
Q

Manifestations of osteosarcoma include: __ and __ at site that is lessened by __ the extremity. __ resection or __ may be necessary. __ pain may be experienced.

A

Manifestations of osteosarcoma include: pain and swelling at site that is lessened by flexing the extremity. Radical resection or amputation may be necessary. Phantom pain may be experienced.

110
Q

Ewing’s sarcoma is __ growth in the __ of the __ bones. Prognosis is __ with metastasis; there is a __% survival rate without metastasis. __ is not recommended; __ and __ are preferred.

A

Ewing’s sarcoma is malignant growth in the marrow of the long bones. Prognosis is poor with metastasis; there is a 60% survival rate without metastasis. Amputation is not recommended; radiation and chemotherapy are preferred.

111
Q

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is a systemic __ disease involving __, __ tissue, and __. There is no specific __ or __.

A

Juvenile idiopathic arthritis is a systemic autoimmune disease involving joints, connective tissue, and viscera. There is no specific tests or cure.

112
Q

Oligo arthritis: __ or fewer joints involved.
Polyarthritis: __ or more joints involved.
Systemic arthritis: __, __, and __.

A

Oligo arthritis: 4 or fewer joints involved.
Polyarthritis: 5 or more joints involved.
Systemic arthritis: fever, rash, and inflammation.

113
Q

Torticollis, also known as __ neck, is __ neck motion and a rotated __ __ due to shortening of __. Most common type is __ and may be seen in conjunction with congenital __ __.

A

Torticollis, also known as wry neck, is limited neck motion and a rotated cervical spine due to shortening of sternocleidomastoid. Most common type is congenital and may seen in conjunction with congenital hip dysplasia.

114
Q

Scoliosis is a __-shape curvature in the spine, most common in __. __ scoliosis is caused by poor __. __ scoliosis is caused by changes in shape of __ or __.

A

Scoliosis is a s-shape curvature in the spine, most common in girls. Functional scoliosis is caused by poor posture. Structural scoliosis is caused by changes in shape of vertebrae or thorax.

115
Q

Idiopathic curvature of at least __ degrees. Curves up to __ degrees only require __ with no __ intervention. Curves __ to __ degrees require __ brace. Curves > __ degrees require spinal __.

A

Idiopathic curvature of at least 10 degrees. Curves up to 20 degrees only require exercise with no medical intervention. Curves 20 to 40 degrees require Milwaukee brace. Curves > 45 degrees require spinal fusion.

116
Q

Act of omission and failure to give proper care and meet basic needs is defined as __.

A

neglect.

117
Q

__ is defined as physical and psychological abuse. Neglect is considered __.

A

Maltreatment is defined as physical and psychological abuse. Neglect is considered maltreatment.

118
Q

SIDS is the sudden, unexpected __ of an apparently healthy infant between ages __ weeks and __ year. Death occurs during __. It is though to be caused by a __ abnormality related to __ control.

A

SIDS is the sudden, unexpected death of an apparently healthy infant between ages 2 weeks and 1 year. Death occurs during sleep. It is thought to be caused by a brainstem abnormality related to cardiorespiratory control.

119
Q

Cranial nerve I (1): __ - Inability to __.

A

Olfactory - Inability to smell.

120
Q

Cranial nerve II (2): __ - Inability to control __ reflex.

A

Optic - Inability to control optic reflex.

121
Q

Cranial nerve III (3): __ - __ vision.

A

Oculomotor - Double vision.

122
Q

Cranial nerve IV (4): __ - Inability to move __.

A

Trochlear - Inability to move eyes.

123
Q

Cranial nerve V (5): __ - Difficulty __.

A

Trigeminal - Difficulty chewing.

124
Q

Cranial nerve VI (6): __ - Inability to control __ reflex.

A

Abducens - Inability to control corneal reflex.

125
Q

Cranial nerve VII (7): __ - Inability to __ eye.

A

Facial - Inability to close eye.

126
Q

Cranial nerve VIII (8): __ - Inability to __.

A

Acoustic - Inability to hear.

127
Q

Cranial nerve IX (9): __ - Inability to __ or control __ and __ reflexes.

A

Glossopharyngeal - Inability to taste or control gag and cough reflexes.

128
Q

Cranial nerve X (10): __ - Difficulty __ or __; __ malfunction.

A

Vagus - Difficulty swallowing or talking; visceral malfunction.

129
Q

Cranial nerve XI (11): __ __ - Controls __, __, and shrugs __.

A

Spinal accessory - Controls head, turns, and shrugs shoulders.

130
Q

Cranial nerve XII (12): __ - Controls __ movement; thick __.

A

Hypoglossal - Controls tongue movement; thick speech.

131
Q

At __ weeks gestation, the formed alveolar cells begin to produce surfactant in the fetus.

A

24 weeks

132
Q

The process of breathing air into and out of the lung is called __.

A

ventilation.

133
Q

The intercostal muscles, diaphragm, and ribs allow chest __ and __.

A

expansion and contraction.

134
Q

The __ nerve and the respiratory centers in the __ of the brain regulate respiration rhythm.

A

vagus nerve
medulla

135
Q

The __ respond to changes in the oxygen saturation of the blood by sending a signal to the __ in the brainstem.

A

The chemoreceptors respond to changes in the oxygen saturation of the blood by sending a signal to the pons in the brainstem.

136
Q

High __ __ plus a low __ saturation increases the respiratory rate.

A

High carbon dioxide plus a low oxygen saturation increases the respiratory rate.

137
Q

Nasopharyngitis, a.k.a. __ is caused principally by __ and is spread through __, __, or direct __. Treatment of nasopharyngitis includes: __, adequate __ __, prevention of __. Complications: __, __, and __ infections.

A

Nasopharyngitis, a.k.a. coryza, is caused principally by rhinoviruses and is spread through sneezing, coughing, or direct contact. Treatment of nasopharyngitis includes: rest, adequate fluid intake, prevention of fever. Complications: bronchitis, pneumonitis, and ear infections.

138
Q

Allergic rhinitis has NO __, NO __ discharge, and NO __ mucous membranes. S/S of allergic rhinitis include: __, watery __, and __ of the skin.

A

Allergic rhinitis has NO fever, NO nasal discharge, and NO reddened mucous membranes. S/S of allergic rhinitis include: sneezing, watery eyes, and itching of the skin.

139
Q

Acute pharyngitis is __ of the structures in the __, most common in children __ to __ years of age. __ is the most common cause; __. __ most common cause in children younger than __.

A

Acute pharyngitis is inflammation of the structures in the throat, most common in children 5 to 10 years of age. Virus is the most common cause; H. influenzae most common cause in children younger than 3.

140
Q

S/S do not last longer than __ days in viral pharyngitis. __ pharyngitis in children older than __ includes high __ that lasts longer than __ week.

A

S/S do not last longer than 5 days in viral pharyngitis. Strep pharyngitis in children older than 2 includes high fever that lasts longer than 1 week.

141
Q

Frontal sinuses are present at __ years of age but are not fully developed until age __. There is __ pain when the sinus is infected. Sinus infection suspected when URI lasts more than __ days.

A

Frontal sinuses present at 8 years of age but are not fully developed until age 18. There is tooth pain when the sinus is infected. Sinus infection suspected when URI lasts more than 10 days.

142
Q

Chief symptom in croup syndromes is a “__” cough and varying degrees of __.

A

Chief symptom in croup syndromes is a “barking” cough and varying degrees of stridor.

143
Q

In laryngomalacia, symptoms lessen when infant is placed __ or in a __-__ position.

A

In laryngomalacia, symptoms lessen when infant is placed prone or in a side-lying position.

144
Q

Epiglottis is __ of the tissues above the __ __. Caused by __. __ type B in children __ to __ years of age. Epiglottis is a __-__ emergency. Child __ up, leans __ with mouth open, and drools because of difficulty __.

A

Epiglottis is swelling of the tissues above the vocal cords. Caused by H. influenzae type B in children 3 to 6 years of age. Epiglottis is a life-threatening emergency. Child sits up, leans forward with mouth open, and drools because of difficulty swallowing.

145
Q

Treatment of choice for epiglottis is immediate __ or endotracheal __ and __.

A

Treatment of choice for epiglottis is immediate tracheotomy or endotracheal intubation and oxygen.

146
Q

Bronchitis is __ of the __, usually secondary to a __ or a __ disease. Gradual onset of an __ “__” cough. __ suppressants before bedtime may help sleep, but __, __, and __ are usually not helpful.

A

Bronchitis is infection of the bronchi, usually secondary to a cold or communicable disease. Gradual onset of an unproductive “hacking” cough. Cough suppressants before bedtime may help sleep, but antihistamines, expectorants, and antibiotics are usually not helpful.

147
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) is responsible for __% of cases of bronchiolitis in infants and younger children, and most common cause of viral ___. It is spread by __ contact with __ secretions.

A

RSV is responsible for 50% of cases of bronchiolitis in infants and younger children, and most common cause of viral pneumonia. It is spread by direct contact with respiratory secretions.

148
Q

RSV survives for more than __ hours on countertops, tissues, and soap bars. Incubation period is approximately __ to __ days, and if hospitalized, place in __ isolation precautions.

A

RSV survives for more than 6 hours on countertops, tissues, and soap bars. Incubation period is approximately 2 to 8 days, and if hospitalized, place in contact isolation precautions.

149
Q

Pneumonia is __ of the __ in which the __ become filled with __ and __ may be reduced. Breathing is __. Group __ __ most common cause in newborns. __ most common cause in infants __ weeks to __ months of age.

A

Pneumonia is inflammation of the lungs in which alveoli become filled with exudate and surfactant may be reduced. Breathing is shallow. Group B strep most common cause in newborns. Chlamydia most common cause in infants 3 weeks to 3 months of age.

150
Q

PCV13 for children younger than __ years of age, given at __, __, __, __, and __ months. PPSV23 for children older than __ years of age.

A

PCV13 for children younger than 2 years of age, given at 2, 4, 6, 12, and 15 months. PPSV23 for children older than 2 years of age.

151
Q

With pneumonia, cough is __ at first but becomes __. Respiratory rate increases to __ to __ breaths/min in infants and __ to __ breaths/min in older children. WBC count may rise to __ to __ mm3.

A

With pneumonia, cough is dry at first but becomes productive. Respiratory rate increases to 40 to 80 breaths/min in infants and 30 to 50 breaths/min inn older children. WBC may rise to 16,000 to 40,000 mm3.

152
Q

Carbon __ poisoning prevents __ from combining with __. Three stages of inhalation injury: Pulmonary insufficiency in the first __ hours, Pulmonary edema from __ to __ hours, and Bronchopneumonia after __ hours.

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning prevents oxygen from combining with Hgb. Three stages of inhalation injury: Pulmonary insufficiency in the first 6 hours, Pulmonary edema from 6 to 72 hours, and Bronchopneumonia after 72 hours.

153
Q

Tonsils and adenoids are part of the body’s __ against __. Symptoms of tonsillitis are difficulty __ and __. Treatment: cool mist __, __-__ gargles, throat __, a cool __ diet, and __.

A

Tonsillitis and adenoids are part of the body’s defense against infection. Symptoms of tonsillitis are difficulty swallowing and breathing. Treatment: cool mist vaporizer, salt-water gargles, throat lozenges, a cool liquid diet, and APAP.

154
Q

Tonsillectomy is not recommended for children under __ years of age. It is indicated only if there’s persistent __ obstruction, repeated __, or difficulty in __ occurs.

A

Tonsillectomy is not recommended for children under 3 years of age. It is indicated only if there’s persistent airway obstruction, repeated infections, or difficulty in breathing occurs.

155
Q

Asthma is __ diagnosed in infancy. Obstruction is most severe during __. Signs of __ hunger and __ appear. Chronic asthma manifested by __ beneath the eyes (allergic __), slight eyelid __, and __ breathing.

A

Asthma is rarely diagnosed in infancy. Obstruction is most severe during expiration. Signs of air hunger and orthopnea appear. Chronic asthma manifested by discoloration beneath the eyes (allergic shiners), slight eyelid eczema, and mouth breathing.

156
Q

Status asthmaticus is continued severe __ distress, unresponsive to __ (including __ and __). This is a medical __.

A

Status asthmaticus is continued severe respiratory distress, unresponsive to drugs (including epinephrine and aminophylline). This is a medical emergency.

157
Q

Cystic fibrosis is an __ recessive trait with __ parents carrying the gene. A __ __ test is considered diagnostic. CF is a __ disease.

A

Cystic fibrosis is an inherited recessive trait with both parents carrying the gene. A sweat chloride test is considered diagnostic.

158
Q

With cystic fibrosis, the loss of __ in the sweat causes a “__” skin surface. Thick secretions __ airways and prevent __ enzymes from flowing to the __ tract.

A

With cystic fibrosis, the loss of electrolytes in the sweat causes a “salty” skin surface. Thick secretions obstruct airways and prevent digestive enzymes from flowing to the GI tract.

159
Q

With cystic fibrosis, more and more air becomes trapped in the lungs (__ __) and __ occurs. The chest assumes a __ shape and __ of the fingers can occur.

A

With cystic fibrosis, more and more air becomes trapped in the lungs (obstructive emphysema) and atelectasis occurs. The chest assumes a barrel shape and clubbing of the fingers occur.

160
Q

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is the __ of the alveolar walls and the bronchiolar epithelium. RDS in the newborn is the major reason for use of __ and __, with __ being the main cause.

A

Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is the thickening of alveolar walls and the bronchiolar epithelium. RDS is the newborns is the major reason for use of oxygen and ventilators, with prematurity being the main cause.

161
Q

Goal of treatment for BPD is to decrease __ of airway and to __ infant from mechanical ventilator. Infant at risk for __-sided heart failure.

A

Goal of treatment for BPD is to decrease inflammation of airway and to wean infant from mechanical ventilator. Infant is at risk for right-sided heart failure.

Pediatrics (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions