Exam 2 (Chapter 4, 6, 7) Practice Quiz

Question 1

Development refers to:
a) The study of plants and animals in their natural environment
b) The process of learning to read and write
c) The sequence of age-related changes that occur as a person progresses from conception to death
d) The study of historical events and their impact on societies

Answer 1

c

Question 2

The nature versus nurture debate in development is concerned with:
a) Whether genetic or environmental factors are more important in determining behavior
b) Whether personality traits are fixed or changeable over time
c) Whether development proceeds in stages or is continuous
d) Whether development is primarily influenced by biological or social factors

Answer 2

a

Question 3

Continuity versus stages refers to:
a) The idea that development is a continuous process, with no clear-cut stages
b) The idea that development proceeds in a series of distinct stages or that it is a continuum of changes in development
c) The idea that development is primarily influenced by biological or social factors
d) The idea that development is determined by a combination of genetic and environmental factors

Answer 3

b

Question 4

Stability versus change refers to:
a) The idea that development is a continuous process, with no clear-cut stages
b) The idea that development proceeds in a series of distinct stages, each marked by a specific set of behaviors or characteristics
c) The idea that development is primarily influenced by biological or social factors
d) The idea that personality traits and behavior patterns remain relatively stable over time, or whether they change over the lifespan

Answer 4

d

Question 5

The stages of prenatal development are:
a) Germinal (zygote), embryonic, fetal
b) Zygote, neonatal, fetal
c) Infancy, childhood, adolescence
d) Toddler, preschool, school-age

Answer 5

a

Question 6

Teratogens are:
a) Substances that can cause birth defects if ingested by a pregnant woman
b) Neurotransmitters that play a role in brain development
c) Hormones that regulate the growth and development of the fetus
d) Structures in the developing brain that are critical for learning and memory

Answer 6

a

Question 7

Infant amnesia refers to:
a) The inability of young children to remember events that occurred before the age of 3 or 4
b) A developmental disorder that affects language and social interaction
c) A stage of prenatal development marked by rapid growth and differentiation of major organs and tissues
d) The process by which synapses in the developing brain are eliminated in order to increase efficiency

Answer 7

a

Question 8

Piaget’s theory of cognitive development posits that:
a) Children develop their understanding of the world through the acquisition of language
b) Children’s cognitive development is largely determined by genetic factors
c) Children progress through a series of distinct stages of cognitive development, each marked by a different way of thinking about the world
d) Children’s cognitive development is primarily shaped by their social interactions with others

Answer 8

c

Question 9

According to Piaget, schemas are:
a) Mental frameworks that help organize information and knowledge about the world
b) Genetic blueprints that determine a child’s physical development
c) Social scripts that guide behavior in specific situations
d) Chemical messengers that transmit information between neurons in the brain

Answer 9

a

Question 10

The three stages of cognitive development according to Piaget are:
a) Preoperational, concrete operational, formal operational
b) Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational
c) Preconventional, conventional, postconventional
d) Germinal, embryonic, fetal

Answer 10

a

Question 11

The difference between Piaget and Vygotsky’s theories of cognitive development is:
a) Vygotsky emphasized the importance of social interaction in shaping cognitive development, while Piaget focused on the role of innate, biologically determined factors
b) Vygotsky believed that cognitive development proceeds in stages, while Piaget emphasized the continuity of development
c) Piaget argued that cognitive development is primarily a result of maturation, while Vygotsky stressed the importance of cultural factors
d) Vygotsky focused on the development of language as a key aspect of cognitive development, while Piaget did not emphasize this as much

Answer 11

a

Question 12

Autism spectrum disorder is characterized by:
a) Impaired social communication and interaction, and restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior or interests
b) Inability to form emotional attachments with others
c) Inability to understand abstract concepts or engage in complex reasoning
d) A tendency to engage in risky or impulsive behavior, particularly during adolescence

Answer 12

a

Question 13

Effective treatments for autism spectrum disorder include:
a) Medications that target specific symptoms of the disorder
b) Behavioral interventions that teach social and communication skills
c) Dietary supplements that promote brain function and development
d) A combination of medication and behavioral interventions

Answer 13

b

Question 14

Secure attachment in infancy is characterized by:
a) A child who is overly clingy and dependent on their caregiver
b) A child who avoids or ignores their caregiver and shows little emotion
c) A child who seeks comfort from their caregiver when distressed, and is easily soothed by them
d) A child who is hostile or aggressive toward their caregiver and others

Answer 14

c

Question 15

Authoritative parenting is characterized by:
a) High levels of warmth and emotional support, but low levels of control and discipline
b) High levels of control and discipline, but low levels of warmth and emotional support
c) High levels of both warmth and emotional support, and control and discipline that is age-appropriate and flexible
d) Low levels of both warmth and emotional support, and control and discipline that is harsh and punitive

Answer 15

c

Question 16

Puberty is characterized by:
a) The period of prenatal development from conception to birth
b) The period of rapid physical growth and sexual maturation that occurs during adolescence
c) The period of cognitive development marked by the acquisition of formal operational reasoning skills
d) The period of life following adolescence, marked by the transition to adulthood

Answer 16

b

Question 17

According to Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, individuals progress through three levels of moral reasoning, which are:

a) Preconventional, conventional, postconventional
b) Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational
c) Germinal, embryonic, fetal
d) Trust vs. mistrust, autonomy vs. shame and doubt, initiative vs. guilt

Answer 17

a

Question 18

The process of pruning in the brain during adolescence involves:
a) The elimination of unused synapses and strengthening of those that are frequently used
b) The growth of new neurons and the formation of new synapses
c) The process by which stem cells differentiate into various types of brain cells
d) The process of myelination, which enhances the speed and efficiency of neural communication

Answer 18

a

Question 19

The reminiscence bump refers to:
a) The tendency for older adults to recall more memories from their teenage years and early adulthood than from other periods of their lives
b) The loss of memories for events that occurred prior to a certain age
c) The tendency for people to remember traumatic or emotionally charged events more vividly than other events
d) The phenomenon of forgetting information shortly after it has been learned

Answer 19

a

Question 20

Love and work are two key aspects of social development in adulthood according to:
a) Erik Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development
b) Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
c) Carl Rogers’ theory of personality development
d) Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development

Answer 20

a

Question 21

What is the difference between Sensation and Perception?
a) Sensation is the processing of information from the environment and perception is the interpretation of that information
b) Sensation and perception are the same thing
c) Sensation involves the use of sensory organs and perception involves cognitive processes
d) Sensation is the interpretation of information from the environment and perception is the processing of that information

Answer 21

a

Question 22

What is the difference between Top-Down and Bottom-Up processing?
a) Bottom-Up processing deals with the sensory information, while Top-Down processing starts with higher level processing and works down to make sense of sensory information
b) Top-Down processing and Bottom-Up processing are the same thing
c) Top-Down processing involves processing only the most important sensory information, while Bottom-Up processing involves processing all sensory information
d) Top-Down processing and Bottom-Up processing are both used exclusively for vision

Answer 22

a

Question 23

What is the difference between Absolute and Difference Threshold?
a) Absolute threshold is the minimum amount of stimulation needed to detect a stimulus, while Difference threshold is the minimum difference needed to detect a change in a stimulus
b) Absolute threshold and Difference threshold are the same thing
c) Absolute threshold is the minimum difference needed to detect a change in a stimulus, while Difference threshold is the minimum amount of stimulation needed to detect a stimulus
d) Absolute threshold and Difference threshold are both used to measure hearing sensitivity

Answer 23

a

Question 24

What is Weber’s law?
a) The just noticeable difference between two stimuli is proportional to the magnitude of the stimuli
b) The just noticeable difference between two stimuli is independent of the magnitude of the stimuli
c) The absolute threshold is proportional to the magnitude of the stimuli
d) The absolute threshold is independent of the magnitude of the stimuli

Answer 24

a

Question 25

What is Subliminal Perception?
a) Perception that occurs below the absolute threshold
b) Perception that occurs above the absolute threshold
c) Perception that occurs only in the absence of other sensory stimuli
d) Perception that occurs only during sleep

Answer 25

a

Question 26

What is Signal Detection Theory?
a) Theory that explains how sensory information is processed in the brain
b) Theory that explains how we make decisions under conditions of uncertainty
c) Theory that explains how our sensory systems adapt to changes in the environment
d) Theory that explains how sensory information is converted into neural signals

Answer 26

b

Question 27

What are the effects on perception of Adaptation, Culture, Context, Motivation, and Emotion?
a) They can all influence how we perceive sensory information
b) They have no effect on perception
c) They only influence perception in certain sensory modalities
d) They only influence perception in individuals with certain sensory deficits

Answer 27

a

Question 28

What are the Properties of Light—Wavelength vs. Amplitude?
a) Wavelength refers to the distance between peaks of light waves, while Amplitude refers to the height of the peaks
b) Wavelength refers to the height of the peaks of light waves, while Amplitude refers to the distance between peaks of light waves
c) Wavelength and Amplitude both refer to the brightness of light
d) Wavelength and Amplitude both refer to the color of light

Answer 28

a

Question 29

What is the Structure of the eye?
a) The eye is composed of the pupil, lens, iris, and cornea
b) The eye is composed of the retina, optic nerve, and sclera
c) The eye is composed of the fovea, blind spot, and rods and cones
d) The eye is composed of the vitreous humor, aqueous humor, and ciliary muscles

Answer 29

b

Question 30

What is the difference between Rods and Cones?
a) Rods are responsible for color vision and cones are responsible for low-light vision
b) Rods are responsible for low-light vision and cones are responsible for color vision
c) Rods and cones are the same thing
d) Rods and cones are both responsible for depth perception

Answer 30

b

Question 31

What is the ‘blind spot’?
a) The area of the retina where there are no rods or cones
b) The area of the retina with the highest concentration of rods and cones
c) The area of the retina responsible for color vision
d) The area of the retina responsible for low-light vision

Answer 31

a

Question 32

What is Young-Helmholtz (Trichromatic) theory?
a) Theory that proposes that there are three types of cones in the retina that are responsible for color vision
b) Theory that proposes that there are three types of rods in the retina that are responsible for low-light vision
c) Theory that proposes that there are three types of cells in the visual cortex that are responsible for processing color information
d) Theory that proposes that there are three types of cells in the retina that are responsible for processing brightness information

Answer 32

a

Question 33

What is Opponent Process theory?
a) Theory that proposes that color perception is based on the activity of three pairs of opponent cells
b) Theory that proposes that color perception is based on the activity of three types of cones
c) Theory that proposes that color perception is based on the activity of three types of rods
d) Theory that proposes that color perception is based on the activity of three types of cells in the visual cortex

Answer 33

a

Question 34

What are the Gestalt principles?
a) Principles that describe how we group sensory information into meaningful units
b) Principles that describe how we perceive depth and distance
c) Principles that describe how we perceive color
d) Principles that describe how we perceive motion

Answer 34

a

Question 35

What is Constancy?
a) The ability to perceive the same object as having the same shape, size, and color even when viewed from different angles or in different lighting conditions
b) The ability to perceive objects as having depth and distance
c) The ability to perceive objects as having motion
d) The ability to perceive objects as having different colors depending on the lighting conditions

Answer 35

a

Question 36

What are the other senses?
a) Taste, Smell, Touch, Hearing
b) Taste, Smell, Kinesthesia, Vestibular
c) Touch, Hearing, Vision, Smell
d) Hearing, Vision, Kinesthesia, Vestibular

Answer 36

b

Question 37

Which are chemical senses?
a) Touch and Taste
b) Hearing and Vision
c) Kinesthesia and Vestibular
d) Taste and Smell

Answer 37

d

Question 38

What is classical conditioning?
a) A type of learning where behaviors are strengthened or weakened based on consequences
b) A type of learning where behaviors are associated with stimuli
c) A type of learning where behaviors are learned through observation
d) A type of learning where behaviors are shaped through successive approximations

Answer 38

b

Question 39

What is the Neutral Stimulus in classical conditioning?
a) The stimulus that naturally elicits a response
b) The stimulus that is paired with the unconditioned stimulus
c) The stimulus that initially does not elicit a response
d) The response that is naturally elicited by the unconditioned stimulus

Answer 39

c

Question 40

What is the Unconditioned Stimulus in classical conditioning?
a) The stimulus that is paired with the neutral stimulus
b) The response that is naturally elicited by the unconditioned stimulus
c) The stimulus that naturally elicits a response
d) The stimulus that is presented after the conditioned stimulus

Answer 40

c

Question 41

What is the Conditioned Stimulus in classical conditioning?
a) The stimulus that is presented after the unconditioned stimulus
b) The stimulus that naturally elicits a response
c) The response that is naturally elicited by the unconditioned stimulus
d) The stimulus that is paired with the unconditioned stimulus

Answer 41

d

Question 42

What is the Unconditioned Response in classical conditioning?
a) The response that is learned through association with a conditioned stimulus
b) The response that is naturally elicited by the conditioned stimulus
c) The response that is naturally elicited by the unconditioned stimulus
d) The response that is learned through operant conditioning

Answer 42

c

Question 43

What is the Conditioned Response in classical conditioning?
a) The response that is naturally elicited by the unconditioned stimulus
b) The response that is learned through association with a conditioned stimulus
c) The response that is naturally elicited by the conditioned stimulus
d) The response that is learned through operant conditioning

Answer 43

b

Question 44

What is Acquisition in classical conditioning?
a) The initial stage of learning where the association between the neutral stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus is established
b) The stage where the conditioned response is weakened and eventually disappears
c) The stage where the conditioned response becomes stronger and more consistent
d) The process by which a behavior is learned through reinforcement

Answer 44

a

Question 45

What is Extinction in classical conditioning?
a) The initial stage of learning where the association between the neutral stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus is established
b) The stage where the conditioned response is weakened and eventually disappears
c) The stage where the conditioned response becomes stronger and more consistent
d) The process by which a behavior is learned through reinforcement

Answer 45

b

Question 46

What is Spontaneous Recovery in classical conditioning?
a) The initial stage of learning where the association between the neutral stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus is established
b) The stage where the conditioned response is weakened and eventually disappears
c) The stage where the conditioned response becomes stronger and more consistent
d) The reappearance of the conditioned response after a period of extinction

Answer 46

d

Question 47

What is Generalization in classical conditioning?
a) The process of learning to respond to a specific stimulus
b) The tendency to respond to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus
c) The process of learning to differentiate between stimuli
d) The tendency to respond to stimuli only in certain situations

Answer 47

b

Question 48

What is Discrimination in classical conditioning?
a) The process of learning to respond to a specific stimulus
b) The tendency to respond to stimuli that are similar to the conditioned stimulus
c) The process of learning to differentiate between stimuli
d) The tendency to respond to stimuli only in certain situations

Answer 48

c

Question 49

What is operant conditioning?
a) A type of learning where behaviors are strengthened or weakened based on consequences
b) A type of learning where behaviors are associated with stimuli
c) A type of learning where behaviors are learned through observation
d) A type of learning where behaviors are shaped through successive approximations

Answer 49

a

Question 50

What is Thorndike’s “Law of Effect”?
a) Behaviors that are followed by positive consequences are more likely to be repeated, while behaviors that are followed by negative consequences are less likely to be repeated
b) Behaviors that are followed by negative consequences are more likely to be repeated, while behaviors that are followed by positive consequences are less likely to be repeated
c) Behaviors that are consistently reinforced are more likely to be repeated, while behaviors that are not reinforced are less likely to be repeated
d) Behaviors that are learned through observation are more likely to be repeated, while behaviors that are not observed are less likely to be repeated

Answer 50

a

Question 51

What is Positive Reinforcement in operant conditioning?
a) Adding something desirable to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
b) Removing something undesirable to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
c) Adding something undesirable to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
d) Removing something desirable to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated

Answer 51

a

Question 52

What is Negative Reinforcement in operant conditioning?
a) Adding something desirable to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
b) Removing something undesirable to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
c) Adding something undesirable to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
d) Removing something desirable to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated

Answer 52

b

Question 53

What is Positive Punishment in operant conditioning?
a) Adding something desirable to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
b) Removing something undesirable to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
c) Adding something undesirable to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
d) Removing something desirable to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated

Answer 53

c

Question 54

What is Negative Punishment in operant conditioning?
a) Adding something desirable to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
b) Removing something undesirable to increase the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
c) Adding something undesirable to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated
d) Removing something desirable to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated

Answer 54

d

Question 55

What is shaping in operant conditioning?

a) The process of gradually refining a behavior by reinforcing successive approximations
b) The process of punishing unwanted behaviors to decrease their frequency
c) The process of associating a behavior with a specific stimulus
d) The process of generalizing a behavior to different situations

Answer 55

a

Question 56

What are primary reinforcers in operant conditioning?
a) Reinforcers that are inherently desirable, such as food or water
b) Reinforcers that are learned to be desirable, such as money or praise
c) Reinforcers that are desirable only in specific situations
d) Reinforcers that are undesirable, but are used to decrease the likelihood of a behavior being repeated

Answer 56

a

Question 57

What are the two types of reinforcement schedules in operant conditioning?
a) Fixed and variable
b) Positive and negative
c) Continuous and partial
d) Primary and secondary

Answer 57

c

Question 58

What is instinctive drift in operant conditioning?
a) The tendency for animals to return to innate behaviors over learned ones
b) The tendency for animals to associate behaviors with specific stimuli
c) The tendency for animals to exhibit behaviors that are reinforced inconsistently
d) The tendency for animals to generalize behaviors to similar situations

Answer 58

a

Question 59

What is latent learning?
a) Learning that is not immediately expressed in behavior
b) Learning that is learned through observation
c) Learning that is reinforced through punishment
d) Learning that is learned through trial and error

Answer 59

a

Question 60

What is observational learning?
a) Learning that is not immediately expressed in behavior
b) Learning that is learned through observation
c) Learning that is reinforced through punishment
d) Learning that is learned through trial and error

Answer 60

b

Question 61

What are mirror neurons?
a) Neurons that are involved in the sensation of touch
b) Neurons that are involved in the perception of color
c) Neurons that are activated when observing the actions of others
d) Neurons that are activated during the process of classical conditioning

Answer 61

c