Exam 2 business management Flashcards

1
Q

three planning levels

A

Corporate-level, Business-level and Functional-area Planning

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2
Q

performs goal-setting and strategy-development for the long-term [five or more years into the future] and the intermediate-term [one to five years into the future]. Top-management is primarily responsible for corporate-level planning, though middle-level managers and first-line supervisors can participate.

A

Corporate-level planning

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3
Q

performs goal-setting and strategy-development in the business for the long-term and the intermediate-term. It is the primary responsibility of managers who run the business (middle managers, though first-line supervisors can participate). It’s worth noting, however, that while middle-level managers in the business are responsible for their business’s plans, often top managers must give final approval before the plan is carried out.

A

Business-level planning

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4
Q

performs goal-setting and strategy-development for a specific department in a business (e.g., Accounting or Marketing). Functional plans focus on the intermediate-term and the short-term [from 30 days up to one year into the future]. Departmental first-line supervisors are primarily responsible for functional-area planning.

A

Functional-area (departmental) planning

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5
Q

a company-wide process involving all employees in goal-setting and strategy-developing. There are four steps in the process.

A

Management by objective (MBO)

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6
Q

involves goal setting. The manager and each of his/her subordinates jointly negotiate each subordinate’s performance goals.

A

Step 1 of management by objective (MBO)

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7
Q

involves strategy formulation. The manager and subordinate together develop an action plan for subordinates. Each subordinate identifies what he/she will do to achieve his/her stated performance goal. Each manager identifies what he/she will do to help each subordinate achieve his/her respective performance goal.

A

Step 2 of management by objective (MBO)

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8
Q

involves a frequent but informal performance review. During this stage, each manager and subordinate meet informally on a regular basis to review the subordinate’s progress toward goal achievement. The manager informally reviews each subordinate’s performance to date to see if he/she is on pace to achieve his/her own performance goals. If the subordinate is not on pace to meet goals, the manager and subordinate identify what needs to be done to improve performance. This review takes place periodically throughout the year.

A

Step 3 of management by objective

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9
Q

involves a formal performance review, typically at the end of the year. The manager officially reviews the performance of the subordinates who report to him/her. The manager determines if the performance goals have been met. If they have been met, the manager provides rewards for goal accomplishment; if they haven’t been met, the manager and subordinate discuss actions to take to improve performance.

A

Step 4 of management by objective

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10
Q

MBO has proven to be a useful planning/controlling process that results in ___.

A

Improved organization performance

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11
Q

MBO advantages are what?

A

(1) goal and strategy alignment throughout the firm; (2) a good likelihood that employees (and work units) will achieve goals because the goals are realistic (due to the subordinate’s participation in setting them), because both managers and subordinates can define the goals, because both managers and subordinates know what they each must do to achieve goals, and because both managers and subordinates know they will be held accountable for meeting their goals.

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12
Q

MBO disadvantages

A

(1) is the difficulty a firm faces when carrying out MBO if it exists in a turbulent external environment. Also, MBO can fail if: (2) the firm refuses to spend the time needed to train employees how to use it; (3) managers refuse to share power with subordinates; and (4) subordinates do not want to take responsibility for sharing some tasks that managers previously performed.

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13
Q

Successful planning begins with creating an effective ____.

A

Mission statement

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14
Q

An effective mission statement identifies what?

A

(1) the company’s customers; (2) the customer needs the company seeks to satisfy; and (3) the products the company will provide to satisfy customer needs.

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15
Q

six characteristics of effective goals

A

(1) Specific and Measureable; (2) Challenging; (3) Realistic; (4) Define a Time Period for Goal Achievement; (5) Linked to Rewards; and (6) Focus on Key Success areas.

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16
Q

What is a key success area in which a company should set goals?

A

Profitability

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17
Q

A firm should set a profitability goal measured by ______.

A

return on investment (net profits/total assets)

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18
Q

Ajax Widgets made $30 million net profit before taxes last year while Zenith Widgets earned $40 million net profit before taxes. Which of the two firms was more successful?

A

Zenith, right? Not necessarily. Let’s assume that Ajax has $90 million in total assets, while Zenith has $800 million in total assets. This additional information reveals that Ajax was the more profitable of the two firms.

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19
Q

The relation of ___ before taxes to a company’s total assets measures most accurately a company’s success or failure.

A

net profit

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20
Q

. A firm should set a profitability goal measured by ___ (Net Profits/Total Assets). A business should identify a minimum acceptable objective for profitability. A profitability goal that is incorrectly expressed can misrepresent a business’s financial performance. A firm should not state its profit goal in dollars alone.

A

Return on Investment

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21
Q

a firm should set goals measured by amount of sales revenues generated by new products. The dictum “innovate or evaporate” still rules supreme. A company that does not develop new products risks becoming obsolete. No firm wanted to be the best manufacturer of buggy whips after the automobile’s invention! An innovation goal could be: five years from now, at least 35% of annual sales coming from products less than 5 years old.

A

Innovation

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22
Q

a firm sets a goal to produce more goods - or the same amount of goods - at a lower cost. For example, if Worldwide Widgets employees can build an industrial widget in 6 hours this year, after building the same widget last year in ten hours, Worldwide Widgets has improved its ____. An example of an effective ____ goal could be: in two years, reduce labor costs as a percentage of total product costs by 15 percent.

A

productivity

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23
Q

measured by sales figures contrasted with sales figures of competing firms. Every business should establish goals relative to its competition. Sales figures are meaningless unless and until they are compared with how well the competition is doing. A goal in ___ allows a company to compare how well it is doing with how well its competitors are doing. Annual sales of 100,000 units might appear to be impressive unless the firm’s chief competitor sold 4 million units during the same year. An effective ____ goal might be to increase market share from 15% to 25% within 4 years. Similarly, a new gourmet steak house in Cincinnati would likely measure its success by comparing its market share with the market share of Jeff Ruby’s Steakhouse, since Ruby’s is the market leader.

A

market share

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24
Q

the area that measures a company’s acquiring the physical assets it needs (e.g., plant and equipment) and acquiring the finances it needs to pay for these assets. Every business needs both _______ to produce the products it sells to customers. Goals in this area should be the result of carefully prepared plans. The costs a firm suffers from lacking necessary buildings and/or out-of-date equipment may be hidden but do exist.

A

physical and financial assets

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25
Q

For example, for years NKU lost potential students (who wanted to live on-campus) to competing universities who had more campus dormitory living quarters. A physical resource goal could be to increase restaurant space from 25,000 square feet to 40,000 square feet in 9 months; a financial resources goal could be to accumulate $375,000 in retained earnings (profits the company keeps, or “retains,” instead of distributing to stockholders as dividends) by six months from now.

A

physical and financial resources

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26
Q

measured by annual surveys, seeks to identify sources of employee satisfaction and dissatisfaction, with a goal to continuing with practices that lead to satisfaction and correcting practices that cause dissatisfaction so as to avoid high employee turnover.

A

Employee satisfaction

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27
Q

Subordinates should receive continuous improvement of their on-the-job skills to help both the employees and the company. Companies that encourage their employees to develop new skills and learn new information can build in ____.

A

innovation

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28
Q

Firms also need to show concern for employee attitudes reflected in satisfaction levels. Well-run businesses show respect for individuals and treat their employees like adults, like partners. When satisfied employees stay, ______.

A

the firm can achieve synergy and lower its recruiting costs.

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29
Q

Dissatisfied employees leave; when employee turnover is high, it can increase human resource costs of recruiting, hiring, orientation, and training. These higher costs can _____.

A

reduce profitability

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30
Q

Employee performance and attitude goals could include: starting a lunchtime seminar series in 6 months and maintaining an employee satisfaction level of at least __ satisfied or very satisfied through the next five years.

A

90%

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31
Q

measures a business’s contribution to the public good. A business has not only economic and legal obligations but a responsibility to society too. Society is a key element in a company’s external environment. Accordingly, a firm benefits when people view the company as pursuing socially acceptable goals in a socially acceptable manner.

A

social responsibility

32
Q

What are some examples of social responsibility goals?

A

having at least 30% of its employees participating in an adult literacy program each year or to support annually local youth soccer or baseball by sponsoring at least 2 teams each year.

33
Q

What should managers perform to understand as completely as possible the firm’s internal and external environments.

A

S.W.O.T analysis

34
Q

the process through which a company identifies its Strengths and Weaknesses [internal environment] and its Opportunities and Threats [external environment].

A

S.W.O.T analysis

35
Q

A well-managed firm develops strategies to establish strengths and then seeks to match its strengths to _______.

A

environmental opportunities

36
Q

. A well-managed firm also seeks to ____ that eliminate or minimize its weaknesses that make the firm vulnerable to environmental threats.

A

develop strategies

37
Q

What are the seven types of growth strategies?

A
  1. Concentration strategy
  2. related diversification strategy
  3. Unrelated diversification strategy
  4. Horizontal versification strategy
  5. Joint venture
  6. Backward vertical integration
  7. Forward vertical integration
38
Q

A business expands from its core product by adding related products similar to—but slightly different from—its core products (e.g., Paramount Studios adding television shows the viewer watches in his/her home but does not pay to see to its core business of commercial movies viewers do pay to see in theatres).

A

Related diversification strategy

39
Q

a firm concentrates on a single product line (e.g., Hallmark Company, with a variety of greeting cards for many/all occasions).

A

concentration strategy

40
Q

a business adds goods or services totally different from its core business (e.g., Paramount Motion Picture Studios buying a roofing company).

A

Unrelated diversification strategy

41
Q

a business purchases a competing business (e.g., Mercedes Benz buying Chrysler Auto Company).

A

Horizontal Integration strategy

42
Q

a firm becomes a partner with one (or more) other firms in a business deal (e.g., Starbucks partnering with foreign coffee shops in foreign lands).

A

Joint Venture strategy

43
Q

a company either purchases one or more of its suppliers or becomes its own supplier (e.g., Graeters buying dairy farms).

A

Backward Vertical Integration strategy

44
Q

a firm becomes its own distributor, either by opening its own retail stores to sell its own products exclusively or – more likely in the 21st century – by creating a website to sell its products on line (e.g., Levi Strauss opening levi.com to sell its clothes).

A

Forward Vertical Integration strategy

45
Q

A company that carries out a ___ corporate-level strategy ceases to grow and seeks to maintain its status quo.

A

Stability

46
Q

What at the corporate-level Retrenchment strategies?

A
  1. Harvesting Strategy
  2. Turn around Strategy
  3. Divestiture strategy
  4. Liquidation strategy
47
Q

. A firm using a _______ seeks to improve its performance; typically a firm implementing a retrenchment strategy is either under-performing (falling short of its goals) or losing money.

A

Retrenchment corporate-level strategy

48
Q

a strategy in which a firm seeks to increase cash flow by raising the price of its popular items while at the same time lowering the costs of its products (e.g., Ford raising the price of its popular Taurus while reducing the quality of materials inside the car: very cheap simulated leather seats and simulated wood paneling on the dashboard).

A

Harvesting strategy

49
Q

seeks to reduce its spending. There are many ways for a firm to cut its expenses. For example, it can reduce the number of its employees (downsizing) or reduce/eliminate its charitable donations.

A

Turnaround strategy

50
Q

sells off units of its business. This strategy is often used in response to a failed Unrelated Diversification strategy where a firm bought businesses completely different from its core operation.

A

Divestiture strategy

51
Q

in which a firm closing its business and sells off (or liquidates) its assets to pay its debts instead of filing for bankruptcy.

A

Liquidation strategy

52
Q

What are four business-level strategies a firm’s managers can choose from when deciding a course of action?

A
  1. low cost
  2. Differentiation
  3. Focus-Low-Cost
  4. Focus-Differentiation
53
Q

(also termed low-cost-leadership), where a firm seeks to be the low-cost manufacturer/provider of a good/service)

A

low cost

54
Q

where a firm has a unique product or a product that appears to be unique)

A

Differentiation

55
Q

where a firm uses a Low-Cost strategy and focuses on a specific segment of the total customer market

A

Focus-Low-Cost

56
Q

where a firm uses a Differentiation strategy and focuses on a specific market segment. I didn’t discuss a “Stuck in the Middle” business-level strategy because it’s a failed strategy; when managers do not choose between a low-cost and a differentiation strategy, they are described as being “stuck in the middle.

A

Focus-Differentiation

57
Q

structure is very rigid: (1) highly specialized jobs (low skill variety, low job depth jobs); (2) very specific job descriptions; (3) centralized decision-making by top managers; (4) much emphasis on obeying the manager/supervisor; (5) Top-down communication; and (6) many rules, policies, procedures. A mechanistic organization structure is very good at keeping costs low.

A

Mechanistic Organization structure

58
Q

structure is very flexible: (1) jobs low in specialization (high skill variety, high job depth); (2) general job descriptions; (3) decentralized decision-making throughout the firm; (4) little emphasis on obeying the manager/supervisor; (5) communication that is top-down, bottom-up and/or side-to-side ; and (6) relatively few rules and more guidelines. An organic structure is typically costly but very flexible.

A

Organic Organization structure

59
Q

A firm should have a mechanistic structure if?

A

(1) operates in a stable external environment; (2) has adopted a Low-Cost or Focused Low-Cost business strategy; and (3) uses Mass Production technology - making many identical products for a large number of customers (e.g., the way Lee Jeans mass-produces its clothes).

60
Q

A firm should have an Organic structure if?

A

(1) it exists in a turbulent external environment; (2) uses a Differentiation or Focus-Differentiation strategy, or (3) uses Unit/Small Batch production technology

61
Q
  • making highly unique products in small numbers or for one customer (for example, the way a clothing tailor would make an expensive tailored suit to fit one person – and only that person – perfectly).
A

Unit/Small Batch production technology

62
Q

(the number of tasks an employee does)

A

skill variety

63
Q

(the amount of freedom an employee enjoys)

A

Job depth

64
Q

In high skill variety jobs, the employee does _____; in low skill variety jobs, the employee does ____.

A

many tasks, few tasks

65
Q

Highly specialized jobs (low skill variety/low job depth assembly-line-type jobs) are good at _____. However, these jobs can turn employees into robots, resulting in bad behavior (absenteeism, on-the-job ‘self-medication,’ fights, injuries, equipment sabotage, etc.) that increase costs.

A

keeping costs low

66
Q

which an employee is given more tasks to perform (more skill variety)

A

Job Enlargement

67
Q

which an employee is given more tasks to perform and the authority and control to make meaningful decisions about the work they perform

A

Job enrichment

68
Q

[an employee rotates through several jobs, doing one job for a length of time, then rotating to a different job, then to another job, and so forth].

A

Job rotation

69
Q

the number of subordinates a manager can effectively supervise.

A

Managerial Span of Control

70
Q

Well-run businesses have managers with the right number of subordinates. If a firm’s managers have____ subordinates, the company saves on managerial salaries but subordinates may not be performing effectively because their manager doesn’t have the time to manage them well.

A

Too many

71
Q

If a firm’s managers have too few ____, the subordinates may get more instruction than they need while the firm spends more money on managerial salaries than it needs to spend. If a manager has the right number of subordinates reporting to him/her, then the subordinates get the managerial guidance they need and the company avoids wasting valuable financial resources on unnecessary managerial salaries.

A

Subordinates

72
Q

Managers should have a Wide span of control (many subordinates) when:

A

(1) they are experienced managers; (2) when their subordinates are experienced; (3) when subordinates perform simple, uncomplicated work; and (4) when managers have no additional non-supervisory responsibilities.

73
Q

wide span of control

A

Many subordinates

74
Q

Narrow span of control

A

Few subordinates

75
Q

Managers should have a Narrow span of control (few subordinates) when:

A

(1) they have little management experience; (2) when they supervise inexperienced subordinates; (3) when subordinates perform difficult work; and (4) when managers perform other duties plus their regular assigned management duties.