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Anatomy & Physiology II > Exam 2: Blood, lymphatic, and immune system > Flashcards

Exam 2: Blood, lymphatic, and immune system Flashcards

1
Q

What are the components of blood

A

plasma (liquid fraction)
(make up 55-65%)

formed elements
(make up 35-45%)

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2
Q

what are the different formed elements in blood

A

Erythrocytes (Red Blood Cells)
Leukocytes (White Blood Cells)
Thrombocytes (platelets)

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3
Q

what are the functions of blood

A

-Transport of: gasses, nutrients, regulatory molecules (hormones, enzymes, immune molecules)

-pH balance

-extracellular fluid volume

-body temperature regulation

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4
Q

Describe Plasma

A

-makes up 55-65% of blood
-mostly water
-colloid (liquid that contains suspended substances)

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5
Q

what are the proteins suspended in plasma colloid

A

-Albumin (most common)
-Globulins
-Fibrinogen

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6
Q

what is the function of albumin

A

most common plasma colloid protein:
-regulates: water balance between tissues and blood; osmotic pressure

-Transport of: hormones (T3 & T4) & other molecules

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7
Q

What is the function of globulins

A

Transport of: hormones (E2, CORT) and other molecules

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8
Q

what is the function of fibrinogen

A

clotting

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9
Q

What differentiates serum from plasma

A

2 definitions of plasma:
-referring to blood as whole
-when in clinical setting

definition is based on research/clinical collection technique

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10
Q

how is serum found

A

-let blood clot in test tube, then centrifuge sample
-liquid fraction (lighter material on top)=SERUM
-Does not contain clotting factors (@ bottom of tube)

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11
Q

how is plasma found

A

-blood collected in tube w/ anticoagulant (limits clotting), then centrifuged
-liquid fraction=plasma
-Contains clotting factors

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12
Q

Describe the formed elements of blood

A

Red blood cells/erythrocytes
-O2 transport

White blood cells/leukocytes
-involved with immune function

Platelets/thrombocytes
-cell fragments
-necessary for clot formation

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13
Q

what are the two groups of WBCs (leukocytes)

A

Granulocytes
Agranulocytes

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14
Q

which WBCs are considered granulocytes

A

-Neutrophils (most common WBC, 1st responder)
-Eosinophils
-Basophils

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15
Q

which WBCs are considered agranulocytes

A

-lymphocytes
-monocytes

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16
Q

What do all WBCs have in common

A

-All are highly motile ( move a lot)
-chemotaxis (movement to a chemical signal) toward injury/foreign material

chemo=chemical taxis=movement

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17
Q

Describe the process of WBC chemotaxis

A

Chemotaxis is movement of WBCs between circulation & tissue

Occurs in response to:
-toxins
-chemicals released from damaged/infected tissue

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18
Q

what occurs during WBC chemotaxis

A

Inflammation:
-vasodilation (histamines)
-increased capillary permeability
-neutrophil & macrophage accumulation

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19
Q

what is an effect of inflammation from WBC chemotaxis

A

Pus=dead WBCs, bacteria, cell debris
-this is leftover from inflammation

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20
Q

Describe Neutrophils

A

Most common WBC:
(makes up 60-70% of all WBCs)

-have multilobed nuclei

-first responders to infections

-phagocytize (engulf) bacteria, antigen antibody complexes, & other foreign bodies

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21
Q

Describe Eosinophils

A

Less common WBC
(makes up 2-4% of all WBCs)

  1. Defense against parasites
    -Ex. malaria, blood worms, etc.
    -Attach to parasite & release chemicals to kill it
    *NO phagocytosis
  2. Regulation of inflammatory response
    -Aggregate in tissues during allergic reaction
    -Destroy inflammatory chemicals, prevent spread of allergic inflammation
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22
Q

Describe basophils

A

Rare WBC
(make up 0.5-1% of all WBCs)

-Proliferate (increase) during allergic reactions

-Release heparin (anticoagulant)

-Release histamines
*vasodilation, itching, swelling

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23
Q

Describe lymphocytes

A

fairly common WBC
(make up 20-25% of all WBCs)

-B lymphocytes
*differentiate into plasma cells (responsible for antibody production) or memory cells (responsible for immunological memory)

-T lymphocytes
*cytotoxic T cells: destroy tumor & virus infected cells
*Helper T cells: activate B cells & cytotoxic T cells

-Natural Killer (NK) cells: destroy tumor & virus infected cells

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24
Q

Describe monocytes

A

Less common WBC
(makes up 3-8% of all WBCs)

-when they leave blood circulation they are called macrophages
*phagocytize bacteria, debris, etc.
*stimulate chemotaxis of other cells

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25
Q

Describe Erythrocytes (Red Blood Cells)

A

-Primary function: Oxygen & Carbon dioxide transport

-Anucleated (no nucleus) & biconcave
*increases surface area, creates more space for hemoglobin
*can fold & pass through small capillaries to bring O2 to tissues

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26
Q

What is hemoglobin

A

a protein with four units found on RBCs

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27
Q

what makes up each subunit of hemoglobin

A

globin (polypeptide) bound to heme

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28
Q

define heme

A

red pigment molecule, contains one iron atom

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29
Q

REVIEW ADULT HEMOGLOBIN STRUCTURE IMAGE

A
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30
Q

what binds to heme at the iron in the center of heme

A

Oxygen

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31
Q

How many O2 can each adult hemoglobin molecule carry

A

up to 4 O2 molecules

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32
Q

what other element does hemoglobin transport

A

CO2 (attaches to globin instead of the iron in heme)

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33
Q

what are the major types of hemoglobin

A

embryonic
fetal
adult

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34
Q

what differentiates the different types of hemoglobin

A

the different types/structures of globins

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35
Q

when is embryonic hemoglobin made

A

at 3 weeks to 3 months of pregnancy

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36
Q

when is fetal hemoglobin made

A

at 3 months of pregnancy until birth

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37
Q

when is adult hemoglobin made

A

takes about 2 years to fully transition from fetal to adult hemoglobin

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38
Q

what makes embryonic and fetal hemoglobin unique from adult hemoglobin

A

These kinds have a high affinity (attraction) for O2

*Beneficial BC the blood coming to fetus from mother’s placenta isn’t a lot, so affinity allows for more O2 to get to fetus easier

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39
Q

Describe Sickle Cell disease

A

Abnormality of hemoglobin gene
-irregular RBC shape (crescent instead of biconcave)
-cells block blood flow or break
-reduced oxygen delivery to tissues
*sickle cell carries some protection from plasmodium parasites (malaria)

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40
Q

Describe anemia

A

RBC deficiency
Occurs due to:
-blood loss
*chronic bleeding or Menstruation
-Iron deficiency
-Vitamin B12 and folate deficiency
-Sickle Cell Anemia
*reduced O2 delivery due to sickling of RBCs

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41
Q

Describe Polycythemia

A

Excess RBCs
Occurs due to:
-Hypoxia
*compensatory polycythemia=Low O2 content due to high altitude
-Polycythemia Vera—cancer of blood
*Rare blood disorder, over production of blood cells (Esp. RBCs)
*Thickening of blood, so poor blood flow

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42
Q

Through what process are the formed elements of the blood formed

A

hematopoiesis

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43
Q

Define hematopoiesis

A

Blood cell production

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44
Q

Where does fetal hematopoiesis take place

A

occurs in:
-yolk sac
-liver
-thymus
-spleen
-lymph nodes
-Red marrow

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45
Q

Where does post natal/adult hematopoiesis take place

A

Occurs mostly in:
-Red marrow

46
Q

Describe the process of hematopoiesis

A

-Hemocytoblasts
*stem cell origin of all formed elements
*blood cell formation

-Hemocytoblast division
*one daughter cell remains as hemocytoblast other becomes either:

  1. myeloid stem cell: develops in RBCs, platelets, & most WBCs
  2. Lymphoid stem cell: develops into lymphocytes
47
Q

Through what process are Erythrocytes (RBCs) produced

A

Erythropoiesis

48
Q

Define Erythropoiesis

A

Specifically red blood cell production

49
Q

Describe the process of Erythropoiesis

A

-Hemocytoblast–>

-Myeloid Stem Cell–>

-Proerythroblast
*mature over time
*produce hemoglobin
*organelles then break down
*nucleus condenses & gets ejected from cell–>

-Reticulocyte (immature RBC)
*have reticulum (organelle fragments)
*released into circulation
*reticulum breaks down–>

-Mature into RBCs within ~2 days

50
Q

What is the process of erythropoiesis regulated by

A

erythropoietin (EPO)

51
Q

Describe Erythropoietin (EPO)

A

-hormone produced by kidneys
-stimulates red marrow to produce RBCs
-stimulus for release=low blood oxygen levels

*Blood doping is when athletes inject themselves with EPO to increase oxygen carrying/delivering abilities for better performance (This is illegal!)

52
Q

What is hemostasis

A

The stoppage of bleeding via:
1. Vascular spasm
2. Platelet plug formation
3. Coagulation

53
Q

Define vascular spasm stage of hemostasis

A

-immediate, temporary constriction of blood vessel
-damage to vessels activates reflexes
-stops blood flow

54
Q

Define the platelet plug formation stage of hemostasis

A

-accumulation of platelets to seal breaks in vessel

-platelet adhesion
*Von Willebrand factor (vWF) helps platelets to bind to damaged vessel
*platelet activation

-Platelet release reaction
*Release of ADP & thromboxanes by activated platelets
*leads to additional platelet activation
(ends up being a positive feedback loop)

-Platelet aggregation
*platelet shape change, fibrinogen bridges platelets, forming plug

55
Q

Define the coagulation stage of hemostasis

A

-formation of a clot

-network of fibrin traps blood cells, platelets, and fluid

-clot formation depends on clotting factors (proteins in plasma)

-Activation of clotting factors:
*extrinsic pathway: initiated by chemicals outside the blood

*intrinsic pathway: initiated by chemicals within the blood

*conversion of fibrinogen (from platelet plug) to fibrin (what makes up the clot)

56
Q

REVIEW COAGULATION PATHWAY

A
57
Q

What is ABO blood type based on

A

which antigen is present on surface of RBCs

58
Q

what are located in plasma and associated with each blood group

A

antibodies

59
Q

why are antigens important

A

for matching blood donors

60
Q

What happens if blood is not compatible during a transfusion

A

Bad antigen and antibody reaction could result in:
agglutination (clumping)
*Rapid hemolysis, coagulation, shock, renal failure, or death

61
Q

REVIEW ABO BLOOD GROUP TABLE TO KNOW THE ANTIGENS & ANTIBODIES as well as who can donate to who

A
62
Q

What is the Rh blood group

A

Based on D antigen on RBCs
+ if present, - if absent

*Genetically determined
*first studied in rhesus monkeys

63
Q

What is the Rh blood group

A

Based on D antigen on RBCs
+ if present, - if absent

*Genetically determined
*first studied in rhesus monkeys

64
Q

In what scenarios can Rh antigen develop if Rh negative person is exposed to Rh positive blood

A

-through blood transfusion
-Blood crossing placenta from mother to fetus (& vice versa)

65
Q

What is hemolytic disease of a newborn

A

Potential problem if mother is Rh negative and fetus is Rh positive

-if fetal blood leaks through placenta, mother will produce antibodies against Rh antigen

-if these antibodies cross back to fetus–>agglutination and hemolysis can occur

-Prevention of this done through blocking mother’s sensitization

66
Q

What is an important factor of the lymphatic system

A

Lymph

67
Q

what is lymph

A

fluid within the lymphatic system that stores WBCs

68
Q

what are functions of the lymphatic system

A

-body fluid homeostasis
*between tissues and circulation
-fat absorption and transport
-filtration and removal of infectious agents

69
Q

What is the lymphatic vessels pathway

A

-lymphatic capillaries (small)
*excess fluid passes through tissue spaces & enters capillaries to become lymph

-lymphatic vessels
*movement of lymph by contraction of skeletal muscle and one way valves

-lymph nodes
*filter lymph

-lymphatic trunks
*connect to large thoracic veins or lymphatic ducts that connect to veins

70
Q

what is a thoracic duct

A

largest lymphatic vessel that drains lymph from right and left sides of body

71
Q

what percentage of arterial blood enters lymphatic capillaries

A

10%
-returns through lymphatic system

72
Q

What cells and structural components make up lymphatic tissue

A

-mostly consists of lymphocytes
-Also includes: macrophages & dendritic cells

Structural components:
-reticulocytes: produce reticular fibers
-fiber network has immune cells attached
*traps microorganisms and other particles & filters lymph

73
Q

Describe Diffuse lymphatic tissue

A

-has dispersed immune cells
-no clear boundaries

74
Q

Describe nodules of lymphatic tissue

A

-Are slightly denser
-contain the tonsils:
*palatine tonsils
*pharyngeal tonsils
*lingual tonsils
~all of these possess capture cells to alert B & T cells of a pathogen

75
Q

Describe Lymph nodes of lymphatic tissue

A

-Superficial vs. deep
*capsule: dense regular connective tissue —->extends inward to form
*Trabeculae

Lymph nodes are only structures that filter lymph

76
Q

Describe the spleen

A

-The largest lymphoid organ
*can enlarge with infection & reduces size after

-Arteries and veins supply and drain internal compartments

-Have pulps:
*Red pulp (makes up 75% of spleen)-associated with veins

*white pulp (makes up 25% of spleen)-associated with arteries

77
Q

what are the functions of the spleen

A

-Destroys defective RBCs
-responds to foreign substances
-acts as blood reservoir

78
Q

what is a splenectomy

A

surgical removal of spleen
Occurs if:
-spleen experiences severe enough rupture

IF splenectomy is done:
-other lymphatic organs & liver must compensate for loss of spleen

79
Q

Describe the Thymus

A

-Bilobed structure, superior to heart
-lobes divided into lobules
-made of epithelial cells (instead of reticular fibers)

80
Q

what occurs in the Thymus

A

T-cell maturation

81
Q

Describe components of T-cell maturation

A

positive selection:
-T-cells that bind appropriately to Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein=WILL SURVIVE

Negative Selection:
-T-cells that bind too strongly to Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein=DESTROYED
*this minimizes the risk of autoimmune response=the body attacking itself

82
Q

What are some chemical mediators of the lymphatic and immune system

A

-Cytokines
-Early induced proteins
-Complement system

83
Q

What are cytokines

A

a signaling molecule responsible for induction of chemotaxis

84
Q

What proteins are considered early induced proteins

A

-Interferons

-Mannose-binding protein & C-reactive protein

-Complement System

85
Q

Describe Interferons

A

-Secreted by virus infected cells
*induce cells/adjacent cells to produce antiviral proteins to inhibit viral replication

86
Q

Describe Mannose-binding protein & C-reactive protein

A

-Bind to bacterial cell wall, recognized by phagocytic cells
*opsonization=tagging a pathogen for phagocytosis occurs

87
Q

Describe complement system

A

-complements ability of phagocytic cells and antibodies to destroy invaders

88
Q

Describe Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) proteins

A

MHC Class I Proteins:
-found on every nucleated cell surface
-presentation of antigen
-recognition & destruction of infected cell by cytotoxic T-cells

MHC Class II Proteins:
-on antigen presenting cells (APCs), like dendritic cells & macrophages
-APCs take in & process antigen, present fragment at surface, bound to MHC Class II molecule
-allows for recognition by T-cells

89
Q

What is barrier immunity

A

bodies first line of defense
-bypassing barriers including:
*skin
*mucus, etc.

90
Q

what are the 2 major components of the immune system

A
  1. innate immune response
  2. adaptive immune response
91
Q

Briefly describe the innate immune response

A

-fast acting defense mechanism
-NOT specific to certain pathogens

92
Q

Briefly describe the adaptive immune response

A

-slower & more complex
-pathogen must be processed and recognized
-provides defense against specific pathogens through:
*Humoral Immunity &
*Cell-mediated immunity

93
Q

Briefly describe Humoral immunity

A

antibody production

94
Q

Briefly describe Cell-mediated immunity

A

T-cells kill cells infected by pathogen

95
Q

Describe the different components of the innate immune response

A

Fast-acting, non specific response:
-Phagocytosis of foreign materials

-Pattern recognition receptors (PRR)

-Surface molecules on pathogens bind to PRRs on phagocytic cell membranes

-Innate response against viral infections

-Inflammatory Response

96
Q

What are pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) and what do they do
(Innate Immune response)

A

-found on surfaces of WBCs (neutrophils, macrophages, & others)

-Recognizes characteristics of pathogens or damage

-small number of receptors to recognize a wide variety of pathogens

97
Q

what happens when surface molecules on pathogens bind to PRRs on phagocytic cell membranes
(Innate immune response)

A

-engulfing of pathogen

-lysosomes that contain hydrogen peroxide, etc. digest pathogens

98
Q

Describe the innate response against viral infections
(innate immune response)

A

-natural killer (NK) cells provide early response against viral infections
*Induce apoptosis (cell death) before viral replication can occur, secretion of interferons

-Recognition: find and attack cells with low concentration of MHC Class I proteins on surface

99
Q

Describe the purpose and signs of the inflammatory response
(innate immune response)

A

-purpose: attract immune cells, slow spread of infection, promote tissue repair

-Signs: Redness, swelling, pain, heat

100
Q

Describe the adaptive immune response

A

-slower & complex, but provides specific protection

-response is faster at second infection
*primary vs. secondary response & immunological memory

-self-recognition
*distinction between self- & non-self anitgens

101
Q

Describe the components of cell-mediated immunity
(adaptive immune response)

A

-T-cells mature in thymus
*Recognize antigens with 2 chain protein receptor which is done by:

-Antigen Processing & presentation
*T-cells only recognize antigens on surface of antigen presenting cells

-Antigen-presenting cells: dendritic cells
*antigens internalized & fragmented
*MHC molecules present fragments at cell surface
*T-Cell binding and recognition occurs, which allows for

-T-cell activation
*Helper T-cells
*Cytotoxic T-cells
*regulatory T-cells

102
Q

what does CD mean

A

Cluster of differentiation
*found on T-cell surface, act as identifiers

103
Q

Function of Helper T-cells

A

CD4 molecule
-secrete cytokines to activate or enhance other cells or functions

104
Q

Function of Cytotoxic T-cells

A

CD8 molecule
-Kills infected cells by inducing apoptosis (cell death)

105
Q

Function of Regulatory T-cells

A

CD4 & CD24 molecules
-Recent discovery, poorly understood
-Suppress other T-cell responses (end of response)

106
Q

Describe Humoral immunity
(Adaptive immune response)

A

-Clonal expansion

-B-cells formed in Bone marrow

-Recognition of antigen
*B-cell binds to antigen
*proliferation & activation of of B-cell clones

-plasma cell formation: produces antibodies specific to antigen

-Memory B-cell formation: Rapid secondary response at subsequent infection
*differentiation into plasma cells
*Rapid production of Specific antibodies

-Antibodies (immunoglobulins)
*paratope binding to epitope of antigen (lock & key precision)

107
Q

Describe antibody functions

A

-neutralization: attacking cell is ineffective

-agglutination: clumping, targets for phagocytosis

-precipitation: force precipitates out of solution, targets for phagocytosis

-complement activation: encourage complement cascade & cell lysis (breakdown)

108
Q

How to put humoral and cell-mediated together to get adaptive immunity

A

Primary response (cell-mediated)=slow antibody production

Secondary response (humoral)=fast antibody production

109
Q

Describe the components of Natural immunological memory

A

-natural passive immunity:
antibodies passed from mother to child

-natural active immunity:
antibodies produced in response to illness

110
Q

Describe the components of Artificial immunological memory

A

-artificial passive immunity: pre-formed antibodies introduced by injection or transfusion

-artificial active immunity: antibodies produced in response to vaccine

111
Q

Describe the typical vaccine mechanism of action

A

-Injection of live or killed pathogen (typically into deltoid bc close to lymph node)

-antigen-presenting cell takes in and fragments pathogen

-migration to lymph node

-MHC presents antigen to T-cells

-Information conveyed to B-cells
*antibodies and memory B-cells made against that specific pathogen produced

112
Q

Why are vaccines recommended even for healthy people

A

to raise herd immunity!

Anatomy & Physiology II (3 decks)

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