Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Patient Care > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the “most important tool in dentistry”?

A

Communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is providing information enough to change pt behavior?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What % of med litigation cases cited communication as the primary cause?

A

68% to 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the two main roadblocks to good listening?

A
  • office distractions

- bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Always ask patients about previous _____

A

dental experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the three most common reasons people avoid the dentist?

A

1: Fear

2: cost
3: lack of providers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

6 Predictors of Dental Anxiety (in order)

Alpacas Can Slurp A Giant Albino

A
  1. Attitude towards dentists
  2. Check-up Frequency
  3. Satisfaction with mouth
  4. Avg # filled surfaces
  5. Gender
  6. Annual Income
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are three good initial contact questions?

A
  1. How long since last dental visit?
  2. Past treatment? Talk about it.
  3. Do you have any concerns?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 3 things to do to reduce anxiety in child pts?

A
  1. Tell
  2. Show
  3. Do
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are 4 cultural factors that can affect oral healthcare?

A
  1. Eating habits and diet preferences
  2. What healthy teeth and gums look like
  3. Perception of time
  4. Gender roles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Health literacy is the ability of the pt to process and use med info. What is it associated with?

A

Education and race/ethnicity.

NOT assoc w/ age or gender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are Kleinman’s 8 Questions?

A
  1. What caused problem?
  2. Why/when did it start?
  3. What do you think it does it you?
  4. How severe is it? Long or short course?
  5. What tx should you get?
  6. What do you hope to get from tx?
  7. Problems sickness has caused you?
  8. What do you fear most about sickness?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the 6 types of cements?

Zinc GRP

A
  1. Zinc Phosphate
  2. Zinc Oxide Eugenol
  3. Zinc Polycarboxylate
  4. Glass Ionomer
  5. Resin-Modified Glass Ionomer
  6. Provisional Cements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Should a good cement be thick or thin?

A

Thin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Is a good cement radiolucent or radiopaque?

A

Radiopaque

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What was the first cement?

A

Zinc Phosphate (Gold standard)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Advantages of zinc phosphate?

A
  • thin thickness
  • low solubility (resists breakdown in mouth)
  • low thermoconductivity
  • long shelf life
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Disadvantages of zinc phosphate

A
  • initial low pH
  • no chemical adhesion/bond
  • no antibacterial prop
  • poor aesthetics
  • long setting time
  • exothermic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the setting time of zinc phosphate cements?

A

2.5-8 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What type of ZOE is used for temp crowns?

A

Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is benefit of ZOE? What materials does it not work with?

A
  • neutral pH (soothing to pulp)

- acrylic or composite (eugenol not compatible)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What was first cement system with adhesive agent that bonded to enamel and dentin?

A

Zinc polycarboxylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What materials will polycarboxylate bond to?

A

Most alloys but NOT gold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What zinc cement is used as a temporary crown cement in the clinic?

A

Polycarboxylate

25
Q

How long does ZOE last in the mouth?

A

6-12 mo

26
Q

What is another name for an acid-base cement?

A

Glass ionomer

27
Q

What is the thickness of glass ionomer cements?

A

thin

28
Q

What two aspects of glass ionomer cements seem contradictory?

A
  • Moisture resistant (okay if there is a little moisture present at placement
  • Fairly soluble (can start to degrade in the mouth)
29
Q

Most important advantage of glass ionomer cements?

A

Fluoride release

30
Q

Are glass ionomers radiolucent or radiopaque?

A

Radiopaque

31
Q

What cement has multiple uses? What are 3?

A

Glass ionomer:

  • liner
  • luting agent
  • build-up material
32
Q

How does the addition of resin to glass ionomer change it’s properties?

A
  • less soluble

- lower early strength and moisture sensitive during setting

33
Q

How long is the normal working time for glass ionomer cements?

A

2-2.5 minutes

34
Q

Important detail needed in temp cements?

A

-easily removed from prep without harming tooth structure

35
Q

Why do you want eugenol in temp cements?

A

Antibacterial effect (but can have - effect on resins)

36
Q

How is ZONE different from ZOE?

A

ZONEs have carboxylic acids instead of eugenol. Have greater retention (RelyX Temp NE)

37
Q

4 things to consider when selecting temp cements?

A
  1. How long?
  2. How retentive?
  3. What will permanent cement be?
  4. Working in aesthetic zone?
38
Q

What is the bridge between the study of disease and the treatment of illness?

A

Diagnosis

39
Q

Why change the type of clinical examination?

A

-alters the amount of diagnostic information collected initially and the scope fo diagnostic decisions made by the clinician

40
Q

If pt has multiple complaints, how do you list them?

A

-In order of priority stated by patient

41
Q

Diagnostic casts are part of what kind of exam?

A

Comprehensive

42
Q

T or F: in a periodic exam, the dentist must confirm accuracy of prior data from previous dentist.

A

True

43
Q

What does SOAP stand for?

A

S-Subjective (what patient says)
O-Objective (what you find)
A-Analysis (diagnosis)
P-Plan (recommended treatment)

44
Q

What is the purpose of a screening diagnosis?

A
  • answer specific question about the pt

- obtain limited info needed to answer question w/o accepting comprehensive dx

45
Q

Difference between symptom and sign?

A

Symptom: bodily change perceptible to the pt
Sign: body change perceptible to trained observer

46
Q

What is the most common symptom of face, mouth and neck area?

A

pain

47
Q

T or F: When assessing pt history, it should include the pt’s physical limitations and cognitive status.

A

True

48
Q

The risk of developing Alzheimer’s Disease is incr in pts _______.

A

-who are currently smoking

49
Q

T or F: Rheumatoid arthritis affects only joints, surrounding tissues, and connective tissue.

A

False: inflammation affects entire body, skin, muscles, GI, lungs, heart, eyes

50
Q

What condition increases risk of developing gout?

A

Chronic Heart Failure

51
Q

What med is associated with bruxism and TMD?

A

Antidepressants

52
Q

A diabetic with good control of BG should have an A1c below _______.

A

7%

53
Q

Shortness of breath along with swelling of lower extremities, stomach, veins, neck are signs of _____.

A

Heart Failure

54
Q

Should pts on Warfarin stop or alter their dose before most dental procedures?

A

No. TR is < or = 3.5

55
Q

What are the BP ranges? Normal, Elevated, HTN 1, HTN 2, Crisis?

A 
Normal: <120/<80
Elevated 120-129/<80
HTN 1: 130-139/80-89
HTN 2: >140/>90
Crisis: >180/>120
56
Q

MS is an immune _________ disease of the CNS.

A

mediated

57
Q

What is NOT a typical symptom of MS?

A

Hearing loss

58
Q

Is depression a common symptom of MS or Parkinson’s?

A

MS

59
Q

Should pts with stroke history receive vasoconstrictors? If so how much?

A

Yes, but either Epi 1:1k or 1:2k and < or = 0.04 mg

Patient Care (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions